Maternal Health Flashcards

1
Q

What advice should a pregnant woman be given for suspected tension headache? When should they be referred?

A
  • most are tension headaches and occur in 1st trimester
  • good sleep
  • good hydration
  • avoid precipitants
  • Paracetamol if above doesn’t help

Refer if:
* high risk/complex pregnancy
* severe headaches despite 1st line medication
* any red flags

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2
Q

What are the important differential diagnoses of headache in pregnancy?

A
  • increased coagulability: cerebral venous thombosis, ischaemic stroke, reversible cerebral vasoconstriction
  • pre-eclampsia
  • non obstetric: IIH, meningitis, SAH, migraine, cluster headache, tension
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3
Q

What causes physiological breathlessness in pregnant women - how does it present?

A
  • increased progesterone causes increased respiratory drive and oxygen requirements increase as pregnancy proceeds
  • leads to physiological hyperventilation - felt as breathlessness by the pregnant woman
  • Usually present at rest - can affect speech
  • may improve with mild activity
  • no reduction in oxygen sats
  • exclude serious causes of breathlessness first.
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4
Q

What are the important differential diagnoses of breathlessness in pregnancy?

A
  • physiological (suggested by mild symptoms with normal vital signs)
  • asthma - new or worsening control. Treat same as non pregnant woman - inhalers and oral steroids as needed.
  • anaemia
  • VTE
  • LRTI/pneumonia- after 28 weeks there is increased risk of serious illness with COVID-19, flu, varicella pneumonitis
  • sepsis
  • peripartum cardiomyopathy causing heart failure- can occur at any stage, most common postnatally. PND, orthopnoea, peripheral oedema and wheeze.
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5
Q

How common is N&V in pregnancy? When does it usually start and resolve?

A
  • 80% of pregnant women
  • Most start with symptoms at 6-7 weeks
  • usually resolve by 16 weeks
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6
Q

What score is used to assess the severity of N&V in pregnancy?

A

PUQE score

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7
Q

What are the important differential diagnoses of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A
  • obstetric: hyperemesis gravidarum, pre-eclampsia, acute fatty liver of pregnancy
  • non obstetric: gastroenteritis, medications: ABX, iron. Assoc with abdo pain: pyelonephritis, pancreatitis, appendicitis.
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8
Q

How should uncomplicated nausea and vomiting in pregnancy be managed?

A
  1. Reassure.
  2. Lifestyle: avoid food preparation, frequent small meals, avoid greasy/spicy foods, ginger, acupressure
  3. If severe & uncontrolled: 1st line antiemetics: cyclizine or promethazine (antihistamines), prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine (phenothiazines), or doxylamine/pyridoxine. Reassess at 24-72h
  4. Next step: switch to second line. 2nd line antiemetics: metoclopramide or domperidone (dopamine receptir antagonists) or ondansetron (5-HT3 receptor antagonist). Reassess at 24h. Max 5/7 treatment. Can combine up to 3 antiemetics.
  5. Next step if 2nd line combos ineffective: oral prednisolone 40mg OD - tapered to lowest dose that controls syx. Regular BP and DM monitoring. If this 3rd line treatment ineffective - seek specialist advice.
  6. Ideally wean/stop treatments around 12-16 weeks.

Consider bloods: FBC, glucose, electrolytes, TFTs, inflamm markers if severe/diagnosis unsure. MSU ?UTI.

Consider H2RAs/PPIs for GORD syx. Thiamine supplements.

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9
Q

Which red flags in nausea and vomiting in pregnancy indicate urgent referral to specialist needed?

A
  • not tolerating oral fluids or medications despite anti-emetics
  • suspected hyperemesis gravidarum despite antiemetics
  • Any confirmed/suspected comorbidity e.g. UTI, DM
  • Severe headache, neurological signs (pre-eclampsia, Wernicke’s)
  • Severe abdo pain, esp. epigastric/RUQ
  • weight loss >5% TBW
  • Clinical dehydration: reduced urine output, dizzy, increased thirst, dry mouth. Haemodynamic instability
  • Biochemical abnormality - electrolytes, AKI
  • Concerns re mental health
  • PUQE score >13
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10
Q

Why is urinary frequency common in pregnancy? How should it be managed?

A
  • physiological changes - increase in plasma volume, pressure of enlarging uterus on the bladder. Cause increased frequency and nocturia.
  • UTI must be ruled out- if fever or lumbar/flank pain, consider pyelonephritis. Can lead to premature labour/low birth weight baby. Consider admission for pyelonephritis.
  • Start empirical ABX if likely UTI, even if dipstick negative and send MSU. 7 day course. Must also treat asymptomatic bacteriruria. Repeat MSU afterwards to ensure cleared.
  • refer if recurrent UTIs/symptoms not improved.
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11
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for abdominal pain in pregnancy?

A

Gynae and early pregnancy:
* ectopic
* miscarriage - assoc vaginal bleeding.
* ovarian cyst rupture/haemorrhage/torsion - severe unilateral pain
* ovarian hyperstimulation
* fibroid degeneration - severe unilateral pain

Obstetric:
* pelvic girdle pain
* round ligament pain - stitch like pain radiating to groin
* braxton-hicks contractions - intermittent tightening
* labour - intermittent tightening
* abruption - severe constant pain
* chorioamnionitis - assoc foul smelling discharge
* uterine rupture - severe constant pain
* pre-eclampsia - RUQ/epigastric pain
* acute fatty liver of pregnancy

Other:
* UTI/pyelonephritis - lower abdo pain, LUTS, flank pain
* appendicitis
* acute pancreatitis
* constipation - consider ispaghula husk to manage.

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12
Q

What is the definition of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

The most severe spectrum of N&V in pregnancy - a clinical diagnosis of exclusion:
* **Prolonged, persistent and severe **nausea and vomiting unrelated to other causes.
* Weight loss (usually at least 5% of pre-pregnancy body weight).
* **Dehydration and electrolyte **imbalance.

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13
Q

What are the risk factors assoc with nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A
  • increased placental mass - molar pregnancy, multiple preg.
  • First pregnancy
  • previous HG
  • Hx motion sickness
  • Hx migraines
  • FHX nausea and vomiting in preg
  • Obesity
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14
Q

What side effects should the pregnant woman be advised about ondansetron in pregnancy? How long can it be prescribed for? What are the important drug interactions?

A
  • 4-8mg TDS for MAX 5 days
  • QT prolongation
  • Exposure to ondansetron in first trimester- assoc small increased risk of baby having a cleft lip and/or palate.
  • Interactions:
  • Other drugs prolonging QTc: antipsychotics, antidepressants, macrolides (clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin), quinolones (levofloxacin), azole antifungals.
  • Corticosteroids, thiazides, salbutamol - hypokalaemia -> torsades de pointes.
  • SSRIs - increased risk serotonin syndrome
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15
Q

How long can metoclopramide be prescribed for in pregnancy? what are the side effects?

A
  • 5-10mg TDS MAX 5 days
  • CI: epilepsy (increases seizures), GI haemorrhage/obstruction.
  • Caution: parkinsons, renal/liver imp, bradycardia
  • Adverse effects: acute dystonic reaction - risk increased in young women. Prolonged treatment - tardive dyskinesia. Discontinue immediately.
  • Cardiac: QT prolongation, bradycardia
  • Neonatal EPSEs if given in 3rd trimester

Domperidone can be prescribed for 7 days. Can prolong QTc but no EPSEs as does not cross BBB.

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16
Q

Routine antenatal care includes two USS. What dates are they performed and what is the purpose?

A

* 12 weeks - dating scan
* determine gestational age
* detect multiple pregnancies
* confirm viability
* detect early abnormalities e.g. anencephaly.
* part of screening for Downs if woman consented

* 20 weeks - fetal anomaly scan
* locate placenta, assess amniotic fluid, identify 11 conditions that: benefit from Rx, need specialist setting after birth, baby may die after birth, option for termination.
* abdominal wall defects
* renal agenesis
* cleft lip
* diaphragmatic hernia
* Congenital heart disease
* Trisomy 13 (Patau’s)
* Trisomy 18 (Edward’s)
* Neural tube defects
* severe skeletal dysplasia

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17
Q

How many antenatal appointments are advised for routine antenatal care in nulliparous and parous women?

A
  • 10 for nulliparous
  • 7 for parous
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18
Q

Which women may require additional care in pregnancy?

A
  • Higher risk of developing complications:
  • existing medical problems: HTN, cardiac, CF, renal, liver, endocrine, DM, psychiatric, haem (sickle cell, thalassaemia, thromboembolic), autoimmune, epilepsy, malignancy, severe asthma, HIV, HepB.
  • High (>=30) BMI or Low (<18.5) BMI
  • Aged over 40 at booking
  • Multiple preg
  • Complex social - drug abuse, DV
  • comps in previous pregnancy
  • develop comps in current preg: placenta praevia, HTN, GD, USS abnormalitites, malpresentation.
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19
Q

What advice should women be given about folic acid in pregnancy?

A
  • advise to take folic acid 400mcg/day pre-conception (ideally for 3 months before) until 12wks
  • 5mg folic acid up to 12 weeks recommended for:
  • previous child with NTD, either partner has an NTD, FHx NTD
  • on Antiepileptic drugs
  • women with: DM, coeliacs, sickle cell, thalassaemia (or trait)
  • BMI>30.

Sickle cell, thalassaemia, or trait - should take 5mg OD throughout pregnancy.
Reduces risk of neural tube defects - spina bifida etc.

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20
Q

What advice should women be given about vitamin D in pregnancy?

A
  • Advise to take a vit D supplement (10 micrograms of vitamin D per day) throughout pregnancy.
  • Especially important if: darker skin, housebound, cover skin with headscarf etc.

AVOID vitamin A supplemets - high levels are teratogenic.
Healthy start vitamins have: folic acid, ascorbic acid and vitamin D)

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21
Q

What routine screening is offered to all pregnant women? In time order

A
  • Women with DM offered Diabetic eye screening at first presentation
  • Blood test for: FBC, blood group, rhesus status and alloantibodies. At booking and 28 wks.
  • Blood test for: syphilis, HepB, HIV. At booking, or any stage.
  • Haemoglobinopathy (sickle cell and thalassaemia) screen at booking (best before 10 weeks). Thalassaemia blood test for all. Sickle cell - High prevalence area: blood test. Low prevalence area: Family Origins Questionnaire.
  • Urine MC&S for asymptomatic bacteriuria - at Booking.
  • **12 week scan **- supports T21, T18, T13 screening.
  • Combined screening test - for T21, T18, T13 (Downs, Edwards, Pataus) at 10-14wks. Includes blood hCG, pregnancy associated paraprotein A (PAPP-A), and nuchal translucency on USS.
  • **Quadruple screening test **- for Downs at 14wk 2d - 20wk (for women who book late). Includes: blood AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol (uE3), and inhibin A. (not as accurate)
  • 20 week anomaly scan (for 11 conditions incl Edwards and Pataus)
  • **BP, urine dip for proteinuria **at each appt - preclampsia screening
  • Symphysis-fundal height - from 25 weeks - identify small or large for gestational age
  • **Abdominal palpation for breech **position - from 36 weeks.
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22
Q

What results on combined screening test suggest Downs? What are the next steps?

A

Down’s syndrome is suggested by ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

Both the combined and quadruple tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result
* ‘lower chance’: 1 in 150 chance or more e.g. 1 in 300
* ‘higher chance’: 1 in 150 chance or less e.g. 1 in 100

NIPT - non-invasive pre-natal screening test or diagnostic test offered next.
* analyses small DNA fragments that circulate in the blood of a pregnant woman (cell free fetal DNA)
* cffDNA derives from placental cells and is usually identical to fetal DNA
* sensitivity and specificity are very high for trisomy 21 (>99%)

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23
Q

Which vaccines are recommended in pregnancy? Which are contraindicated?

A
  • influenza - given at any gestation (preferably pre flu season)
  • pertussis (combined diptheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio)- to protect neonates from pertussis given 18-20 wks
  • Covid-19 (any gestation)

Live vaccines should be avoided.

24
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of bleeding during pregnancy?

A
  • Non pregnancy related: STIs, cervical polyps
  • Bleeding in early pregnancy (<14 wks): miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, hyatidiform mole (trophoblastic disease)
  • 3rd trimester: Placental abruption, placenta praevia, vasa praevia
25
Q

What is recurrent miscarriage? How should it be managed in primary care?

A
  • loss of three or more pregnancies before 24 weeks of gestation.
  • Offer refferal for Ix and Mx. Provide info on recurrent miscarriage.
26
Q

What is the most common cause of miscarriage in the first trimester?

A

chromosomal abnormalities.

27
Q

What are the risk factors for miscarriage?

A
  • Increasing parental age
  • PCOS, DM, thyroid disease
  • Previous miscarriage
  • smoking, alcohol, caffeine, obesity
  • black ethnicity

Recurrent miscarriage: antiphospholipid syndrome, factor V Leiden.
PCOS
Hypothyroidism
Prolactin imbalances
BMI<19, BMI >25

28
Q

How should a woman with suspected miscarriage be assessed?

A
  • confirm pregnancy with urine pregnancy test
  • suspect if presents with vaginal bleeding (with or without pain) in first 24wks
  • Gynae & obstetric Hx, Medical Hx, Social Hx
  • Risk fx for ectopic:
  • abdo/pelvic pain
  • dizzy, syncope
  • shoulder tip pain
  • GI syx - D&V (tubal rupture- intra-abdo bleeding), urinary syx - rectal pressure/pain on defecation
  • previous ectopic
  • Hx PID
  • Prev pelvic surgery, sterilisation
  • black ethnicity
  • infertility/assisted repro
  • smoking
  • multiple sexual partners
  • IUS/IUD
    Examine: obs- HD instability, abdo exam - acute abdomen, abdo/pelvic/adenxal tenderness suggests ectopic. If no red flags, consider speculum & pelvic exam but do not palpate for adnexal/pelvic mass - increases risk of rupture if ectopic present.
  • speculum - other sources of bleeding - ectropion, cervical polyp, cervicitis, assess for visible POC.
29
Q

When should a woman with suspected miscarriage be referred to EPAU?

A
  • abdominal pain/tenderness
  • pelvic tenderness
  • cervical motion tenderness
  • pregnancy of 6 weeks or more
  • pregnancy of uncertain gestation
30
Q

When can expectant management of miscarriage be used? What should they be advised?

A
  • pregnancy <6 weeks gestation who are bleeding but not in pain and have no risk factors for ectopic pregnancy
  • Advise: repeat pregnancy test after 7-10 days - return if it is positive. A negative test means they have miscarried. Return if bleeding continues or pain develops.
  • Offer follow up appt
31
Q

How does BP normally change during pregnancy?

A
  • BP usually falls in first trimester, and continues to gall until 24wks
  • then BP increases to pre-pregnancy levels by term.
32
Q

Which women are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia? How should they be managed?

A

If they have **ONE **of the following:
* Hx of HTN in a previous pregnancy
* CKD
* Autoimmune disease e.g. SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome
* T1 or T2 DM
* Chronic HTN

TWO or more of:
* first pregnancy
* Aged >=40
* Pregnancy interval of >10 years
* BMI >=35 at first visit
* FHx pre-eclampsia
* Multiple pregnancy

Refer for consultant led care
Aspirin 75-150mg OD from 12 weeks until birth.
Healthy lifestyle advice

33
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

New onset HTN (>140/90) (or superimposed on chronic HTN) after 20 wks AND one of:
* proteinuria
* renal impairment (Cr >=90)
* Liver: raised ALT or AST >40)
* neuro comps: seizure (eclampsia), confusion, stroke, blindness, severe headaches, visual scotoma, clonus
* haem: thrombocytopenia <150), haemolysis
* fetal growth restriction

Can occur up to 4 weeks post partum!

34
Q

What are the Syx of pre-eclampsia?

A
  • severe headaches - increasing frequency, not relieved by regular analgesics
  • visual problems - blurred vision, flashing lights, double vision, floating spots
  • Persistent new epigastric or RUQ pain
  • Vomiting
  • SOB
  • Sudden swelling of face/hands/feet
35
Q

If routine dipstick in pregnancy is positive (1+) for proteinuria, how should it be managed? How can it be quantified?

A
  • If no syx pre-eclampsia, BP normal. Consider UTI.
  • IF 2+ protein - urgent 2ry care Ax - even if possible UTI
  • ACR >8
  • PCR > 30 – > seek specialist advice.
  • Do not use the first morning void.
36
Q

How should women with chronic HTN be managed in pregnancy? Which regular meds should be stopped? What are the first line antihypertensive treatments? What is the BP target?

A
  • refer for consultant led care
  • Aspirin 75-150mg from 12 wks until birth
  • STOP ACEI/ARB immediately
  • switch thiazide-like diuretic to alternative
  • Rx not necessary if BP <110/70 or symptomatic hypotension.
  • 1st line: labetalol
  • 2nd line: nifedipine (if asthmatic)
  • 3rd line: methyldopa
  • BP target: 135/85
37
Q

How should a woman with new HTN (>140 systolic/ >90 diastolic) after 20wks be managed?

A
  • if signs/syx pre-eclampsia - urgent admission
  • 2ry care assessment for all (outpatient)
  • If BP severe >160/110 - admit to hospital
38
Q

Which is the first line antihypertensive for breastfeeding women? Which should be avoided?

A
  • enalapril
  • if black ethnicity - nifedipine
  • can combine both if more control needed.

AVOID ARB/diuretics
AVOID methyldopa. - risk depression

39
Q

What is obstetric cholestasis? What are the symptoms/signs? How should it be managed by primary care?

A
  • affects 2-20 in 100 pregnancies
  • impaired bile flow
  • Usually begins in 3rd trimester, peaking in last month
    Symptoms/signs:
  • pruritis (without rash) - intense esp. palms, soles, abdo, worse at night
  • Jaundice - (10%) urgent referral
  • anorexia, malaise, abdo pain
  • dark urine, pale fatty stools
  • Same day referral to local maternity unit for bloods: serum bile acids, LFTs.
  • Labour usually induced from 37 weeks - as increased risk of late stillbirth with raised bile acids
  • Repeat LFTs at 6 week post natal check.
40
Q

What does this image show? How should it be managed?

A
  • Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy. A.k.a: Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy
  • Usually in first pregnancy, third trimester.
  • An intense itchy rash - usually lower abdo over stretch marks, buttocks.
  • Conservative Rx: emollients, cetirizine/loratadine, topical steroids
41
Q

What is atopic eruption of pregnancy? How is it treated?

A
  • eczema presenting in 1st/2nd trimester
  • some have a personal/FHx eczema.
  • flexor aspects of limbs, face, neck upper chest. Or small papules on abdomen, and firm itchy bumps on shins and extensor surfaces of arms.
  • Rx conservatively - emollients, topical steroids
42
Q

What does the image show? How is it managed?

A
  • Pemphigoid gestationis
  • May be Hx grave’s disease/FHx autoimmune cond.
  • very rare. 2nd/3rd trimester
  • intense itch then develop rash - erythematous urticarial papules and plaques on the abdomen (and nearly always the umbilicus region), but which may spread to cover the entire body. Develops into blisters.
  • Refer urgently specialist dermatologist.
43
Q

How should a woman be managed if she is exposed to chickenpox during pregnancy? How should she be managed if she develops chickenpox infection?

A
  • if she has had previous chickenpox - no risk to her or baby
  • if not had chicken pox- urgent specialist advice. Test varicella-zoster IgG antibodies (most have antibodies from silent infection)
  • If negative (not immune) - refer specialist for VZ-Ig to be given to mother. - best within 10d of exposure
  • risk of pneumonia in mother, and fetal varicella syndrome.
  • If infected - immediate obstetritian specialist advice
  • at >20wks gestation and presents <24h- treat with aciclovir PO only on specialist advice
  • If <28wks - needs USS after infection to check for fetal varicella syndrome.
  • topical calamine, PO paracetamol can be used.
44
Q

When are fetal movements usually recognised by the mother?

A

18-20 weeks gestation

If multiparous - usually earlier from 16-18 wks.
Fetal movements increase until 32 weeks then remain stable. They should not reduce.

45
Q

How should symphysis-fundal height be measured? How can you tell if it is normal for gestation?

A
  • The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is measured from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres

It should match the gestational age in weeks to within 2 cm after 20 weeks, e.g. if 24 weeks then the a normal SFH = 22 to 26 cm

46
Q

When is the pregnant woman screened for anaemia? What are the cut offs to decide if she should receive iron therapy - in first trimester, in the rest of pregnancy, and postpartum?

A
47
Q

When and how should at risk women be screened for gestational DM? What result is a positive test?

A
  • all should be screened for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks.
  • women who’ve previously had gestational diabetes: OGTT should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
  • gestational diabetes is diagnosed if either:
    fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L
    2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L

Remember as** 5 6 7 8 **

48
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational DM?

A
  • BMI above 30 kg/m2
  • previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more
  • previous gestational diabetes
  • first‑degree relative with diabetes
  • an ethnicity with a high prevalence of diabetes. (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

Offer women with any of these risk factors testing for gestational diabetes

GDM affects 4% of pregnancies

49
Q

How is newly diagnosed gestational DM managed?

A
  • seen in DM antenatal clinic <1 wk
  • taught self-monitoring BM
  • Diet & exercise advice
  • fasting glucose <7 - 1st line: trial diet & exercise. 2nd line: add in metformin. 3rd line: add in short acting insulin.
  • fasting glucose >7 1st line: immediate short acting insulin (+/-metformin) and diet & exercise changes.
  • check HbA1c to see if pre-existing T2DM
50
Q

What should be included in the routine maternal 6wk post-natal check?

A
  • any probs in pregnancy/delivery
  • current problems, ask about: persistent vaginal loss, bladder/bowel control, sex problems.
  • feeding
  • contraception
    Exam/Ix:
  • weight
  • BP
  • exam: abdo: uterus should not be palpable. Check tear/episiotomy wound if present. Vaginal exam if persistent bleeding or pain.
  • delay cervical smear until 12wks post-partum
  • Check FBC, if anaemic postnatally
  • fasting blood glucose check if had GDM, or HbA1c at 13wks
    *Screen for depression
51
Q

When is contraception needed after childbirth?

A

from 21 days (earliest ovulation)

52
Q

What is the lactational amenorrhoea method?

A

Natural infertility if:
* <6months post-partum
* amenorrhoeic
* fully breast feeding day (4 hourly) and night (6 hourly)

98% effective.

53
Q

Which contraception methods can be used for postpartum women who are breastfeeding?

A

Cu-IUD or LNG-IUS
* can be inserted <48hrs Postpartum
* or from 4 wks postpartum

Progesterone only contraception
* can be started at any time

Combined hormonal contraception (COCP, patch, ring)
* can be started after 6wks

54
Q

Which contraception methods can be used for postpartum women who are not breastfeeding?

A

Cu-IUD or LNG-IUS
* can be inserted <48hrs Postpartum
* or from 4 wks postpartum

Progesterone only contraception
* can be started at any time

Combined hormonal contraception (COCP, patch, ring)
* can be started after 3 wks if no risk fx for VTE
* can be started after 6wks if risk fx for VTE: immobility, transfusion at delivery, BMI >30, postpartum haemorrhage, caesarean delivery, pre-eclampsia, or smoking

55
Q

Which medications are contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

LAMBAST mothers taking these drugs +3C’s:
L-ithium
A-amiodarone
M-ethotrexate
B-enzos
A-spirin
S-ulphonamides (co-trimoxazole, suphonylureas- gliclazide)
T-etracyclines (doxycycline)

3C’s: carbimazole, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin