Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

How many chromosomes are there in humans? How many pairs?

A
  • 46 chromosomes
  • 22 matching pairs with matching genes (autosomes)
  • 1 pair of sex chromosomes (may match XX, or differ XY)
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2
Q

Changes in the number of chromosomes can cause genetic disease. Give examples:

A
  • Down’s syndrome - an extra chromosome 21
  • Sex chromosome duplication or deletion - Turner’s XO, Klinefelter’s (XXY or XXYY).
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3
Q

Gross structural changes in chromosomes can lead to genetic disease. What is translocation?

A

part of one chromosome is translocated onto another.
If it is a balanced translocation, no genetic info is lost- no clinical effect.

6% of children with Down’s have a translocation rather than trisomy 21.

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4
Q

Gross structural changes in chromosomes can lead to genetic disease. What is deletion? Give an example.

A

loss of a portion of a chromosome.
* cri-du-chat syndrome - deletion of short arm of chromosome 5.

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5
Q

Single gene abnormalities can be inherited via autosomal dominant inheritance. What is autosomal dominant inheritance? What are the features? Give examples:

A
  • Heterozygotes have the disease (Aa)
  • 50% of pregnancies of an affected individual are affected.
  • Usually equally affects males and females
  • the expression of the gene may vary e.g. marfans, neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, myotonic dystrophy.
  • others: achondroplasia, PKD, Ehlers Danlos, FAP, Huntington’s disease, hyperlipidaemia type II, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, heretitary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, peutz-jeghers, retinoblastoma, von hippel-lindau, osteogenesis imperfecta, alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency.
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6
Q

Single gene abnormalities can be inherited via autosomal recessive inheritance. What is autosomal recessive inheritance? What are the features? Give examples:

A
  • disease only manifests in the homozygote
  • therefore the faulty gene must be inherited from both parents
  • the risk of an affected (homozygote) pregnancy when both parents are carriers is 1 in 4 (25%)
  • risk of having a carrier (heterozygote) child is 50%
  • risk of having a genotypical child is 25%.
  • Usually equal males and females
  • Affected individuals will have unaffected children unless their partner is a heterozygote. An affected parent, with a genotypical partner - all the children will be carriers.
  • e.g sickle cell disease, thalassaemias, CF, albinism, ataxic telangiectasia, CAH, cystinuria, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, Lipid storage disease: tay-sachs, gaucher, niemann-pick, PKU, wilson’s disease.
  • Autosomal dominant traits generally tend to be less severe than autosomal recessive traits, and conditions which are lethal in early childhood more likely to be autosomal recessive, for example Tay-Sachs disease which is usually fatal by five years of age.
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7
Q

Single gene abnormalities can be inherited via sex-linked inheritance. What is sex-linked inheritance? What are the features? Give examples:

A
  • most are X-linked recessive. Inherited from the mother, and affect MALE offspring.
  • A heterozygote mother carrying the X-linked gene: if she has a boy - there is a 50% chance of them having the disease. If she has a girl, there is a 50% chance of them being a carrier
  • An affected father, having a child with an unaffected mother with two normal X chromosomes: Sons will be unaffected, daughters will all be carriers.
  • e.g. fragile X syndrome, haemophilia, red-green colour blindness, Duchenne’s and Becker muscular dystrophy, G6PD deficiency, androgen insensitivity syndrome, retinitis pigmentosa, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
  • Female carriers of X-linked disorders sometimes exhibit symptoms of that disorder - if their normal X chromosone is ‘inactivated’ - symptoms are similar/milder.
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8
Q

How do mitochondrial disorders lead to genetic disease? give examples

A
  • mitochondria have their own DNA (mtDNA)
  • thousands of mitochondria in each cell
  • affect males and females equally
  • mutations in mtDNA can only be inherited through an affected female. We inherit mitochondrial DNA from mothers only (via the oocyte). Men cannot pass the mtDNA mutations onto their children in the sperm.
  • So the disease is always passed through the female family line
  • e.g. Lebers optic atrophy (central scotoma, loss colour vision, rapid blindness age 30), MELAS (stroke like episodes), MERRF (myoclonus epilepsy), Kearns-Sayre (retinitis pigmentosa)
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9
Q

What is karyotyping?

A

Direct microscopic visualisation of the chromosomes, suitable for detecting very large, or whole chromosome deletions or copies, e.g. Down Syndrome.

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10
Q

What are the symbols for male, female, affected individuals, deceased in a genetic pedigree?

A
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11
Q

Which genetic condition causing learning disability is associated with increased risk of Hep B carrier status?

A
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Due to immunological defect - more likely to become chronic carriers if infected with HepB virus.
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12
Q

Women of which ancestry are at greatest risk of carrying a breast cancer, BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations?

A

Jewish: 5–10 times more likely to carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations than women in non-Jewish populations.

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13
Q

Which endocrine condition should doctors be vigilant for in Turner’s syndrome?

A

Hypothyroidism
* one-third of all women with Turner’s syndrome will develop a thyroid disorder.
* Usually it is hypothyroidism, specifically Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
* It is easily treated with thyroid hormone supplement.
* There is also an increased risk of diabetes mellitus.

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14
Q

Which genotype results in sickle cell trait?

A
  • sickle cell trait results from inheriting:
  • one gene for abnormal Hb S
  • one gene for normal Hb A
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15
Q

Which genotype results in homozygous sickle cell disease?

A
  • both genes are for the abnormal Hb S
  • they are therefore Hb SS
  • called sickle cell anaemia
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16
Q

Which genotype results in heterozygous sickle cell disease?

A
  • results from inheriting:
  • one gene for Hb S
  • one gene for another abnormal variant
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17
Q

Screening for bowel cancer via colonoscopy is recommended from what age in those at risk?

A
  • from age 40 - high risk
  • from age 55 - moderate risk
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18
Q

Risk of Down’s Syndrome increases with maternal age, what are the risks from age 20,30,35,40,45?

A
  • 20yrs 1 in 1500
  • 30yrs 1 in 800
  • 35yrs 1 in 270
  • 40yrs 1 in 100
  • 45 yrs 1 in 50

remember by starting at risk of around 1/1000 at 30 years then divide denominator by 3 (3x more common) every extra 5 years of age.

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19
Q

What are the 3 genetic causes of Down’s? How common is each?

A
  • trisomy 21- due to nondisjunction 92%
  • robertsonian translocation t(14:21) 6%
  • mosaicism 2%
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20
Q

What is the incidence of Down’s syndrome?

A
  • 1 in 1000 live births.
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21
Q

What are the clinical features of Down’s syndrome?

A

face:
* upslanting palpebral fissures
* epicanthic folds
* protruding tongue
* small low-set ears
* flat face.

  • flat occiput
  • single palmar crease
  • hypotonia
  • congenital heart defects
  • duodenal atresia
  • hirschprung’s disease
  • learning disability
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22
Q

What are the cardiac complications of Down’s syndrome?

A
  • atroventricular septal defects (endocardial cushion defect)
  • VSD
  • tetralogy of fallot
  • PDA
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23
Q

What are the later complications of Down’s syndrome?

A
  • subfertility
  • learning difficulties
  • short stature
  • repeated resp infections, hearing impairment from glue ear
  • ALL
  • hypothyroidism
  • atlantoaxial instability
  • vision: strabismus, cataracts, blepharitis, glaucoma
  • Life expectancy reduced, 50% live to >60years
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24
Q

What is the chromosomal disorder causing Turner’s syndrome? What is the incidence?

A
  • 1 in 2000 female births
  • Due to only one X chromosome, or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. 45, XO
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25
Q

What are the clinical features of Turner’s syndrome?

A
  • short stature
  • shield chest, widely spaced nipples
  • webbed neck
  • ptosis, nystagmus
  • bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of aorta (15%) - increased risk aortic dilatation and dissection. Regular monitoring.
  • primary amenorrhoea - rudimentary/absent ovaries
  • cystic hygroma (usually pre-natal diagnosis)
  • lymphoedema of feet
  • hypothyroidism - increased autoimmune disease (esp, thyroiditis and Crohn’s)
  • horseshoe kidney
  • normal lifespan
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26
Q

What is the chromosomal abnormality in Klinefelters syndrome? What are the clinical features?

A
  • Polysomy: XXY or XXYY
  • Male appearance
  • often undetected until infertility in adult life
  • gynaecomastia (increased risk breast Ca)
  • reduced facial hair, reduced libido
  • small, firm testes
  • assoc hypothyroidism, DM, asthma
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27
Q

What is the chromosomal abnormality in Edward’s syndrome? What are the clinical features?

A
  • trisomy 18
  • face: low set malformed ears, receding chin, protruding eyes, cleft palate
  • fingers cannot be extended, index finger overlaps
  • short sternum
  • umbilical/inguinal hernias
  • rocker bottom feet
  • rigid body, flexed limbs
  • developmental delay
  • life expectancy 10 months - heart defects
28
Q

What is the chromosomal abnormality in Patau’s syndrome? What are the clinical features?

A

Trisomy 13 - rare
* small head and eyes
* cleft lip/palate
* flexion contractures of hands/polydactyly
* brain malformation
* heart malformation
* PKD
* life expectancy - 1 month

29
Q

What is the chromosomal abnormality in cri-du-chat syndrome? What are the clinical features?

A
  • deletion of short arm of chromosome 5. -rare
  • microcephaly, marked epicanthic folds, moon-face, abnormal cat-like cry
  • developmental delay
  • usually fatal by 1 year.
30
Q

What is the genetic abnormality in Fragile X syndrome? What are the clinical features? How can it be diagnosed antenatally?

A
  • tri-nucleotide repeat disorder on the X chromosome.
  • learning difficulties
  • Large low set ears
  • Long thin face
  • high arched palate
  • Large jaw
  • facial asymmetry
  • large testes
  • assoc autism/adhd
  • Features in females who whave one fragile X and one Normal X - range from normal to mild 50% have learning difficulty
  • Consider in any child with developmental delay.
  • Chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis - restriction endonuclease digestion and southern blot analysis (looking for number of CGG repeats)
31
Q

What is microarray comparative genomic hybridisation?

A

A molecular test to check for smaller chromosomal losses or gains, e.g. children with learning disability, autism, developmental delay or dysmorphism

32
Q

What are Targeted polymerase chain reaction tests?

A

Molecular tests to detect specific, known pathogenic variants, e.g. hereditary haemochromatosis or Fragile X syndrome. Also used for the detection of specific mutations in certain cancer cells to guide treatment

33
Q

What are gene panel tests?

A

Sequencing of one or more genes known to be associated with the disease in question. As every position of the gene is checked against the reference genome, this will detect all known pathogenic variants as well as new ones, previously undescribed, which are then assessed for pathogenicity

34
Q

What is whole exome sequencing?

A

Sequencing of the coding parts (the exons) of all the genes in the human genome. Currently limited clinical use due to large amounts of data generated, but may be used to assess children for whom other tests have not established a diagnosis

35
Q

What is whole genome sequencing?

A

Sequencing of the entire genome, including the non-coding areas. Has been used in research, such as the 100,000 Genomes Project, and is used clinically for assessing viral and bacterial genomes and some cancer genomes. UK plans to sequence a further 5 000 000 whole genomes within the next 5 years

36
Q

What is Huntington’s disease? What are the symptoms?

A
  • Inherited neurological condition
  • autosomal dominant
  • trinucleotide repeat disorder CAG
    *progressive, incurable
  • death 20 years from symptom onset
  • usually onset after age 35: with:
  • chorea
  • personality change - irritability, intellectual impairment
  • dystonia
  • saccadic eye movements.
  • testing can identify before symptoms occur- but no cure. defer until child can consent.
  • antenatal testing should be offered if any family Hx (mother has choice)
37
Q

What are trinucleotide repeat disorders? Give some examples

A
  • genetic conditions caused by an abnormal number of repeats (expansions) of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides.
  • These expansions are unstable and may enlarge
  • this may lead to an earlier age of onset in successive generations - a phenomenon known as anticipation
  • In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also noted
  • e.g: Fragile X (CGG), Huntington’s (CAG), Friedrich’s ataxia (GAA), myotonic dystrophy (CTG)
38
Q

What is the difference between Friedrich’s ataxia and ataxia telangiectasia?

A
  • friedrich’s is the most common inherited ataxia
  • trinucleotide repeat
  • presents in adolescence
  • with gait and limb ataxia, loss of propriocepition, pyramidal weakness, dysarthria. Kyphoscoliosis.
  • HOCM occurs in most patients -cause of death
  • DM in 10%
  • chairbound within 15 yrs, die in 40s.
39
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis? What are the clinical features?

A
  • autosomal dominant genetic condition
  • but 60% occur spontaneously - new mutations.
  • formation of hamartomas in many organs: brain, skin, kidneys
  • usually presents in childhood with angiofibromas on the skin, epilepsy (cortical tubers), and developmental delay.
  • skin changesL facial angiofibromas, ash leaf areas of depigmentation, shagreen patches - thickened skin over sacrum and back, ungual fibromas.
40
Q

What is neurofibromatosis? What is the difference between type 1 and type 2?

A
  • NF1 and NF2 - both autosomal dominant
  • NF2 rarer
  • neurofibromas: benign tumours arising from the peripheral nerve sheath
  • cafe au lait patches usually seen in 1st year
  • dermal neurofibromas appear after puberty
  • NF2 - risk of hearing loss
41
Q

What is cystic fibrosis and what causes it?

A
  • autosomal recessive disorder
  • most common inherited disorder in the UK (1 in 2500)
  • causes increased viscocity of secretions
  • due to a defect in the CFTR gene (chromosome 7) - codes a cAMP-regulated chloride channel.
  • 1 in 25 adults carry the gene
  • most common in caucasians
42
Q

Which organisms may colonise CF patients?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Burkholderia cepacia
  • Aspergillus
43
Q

What are the presenting features of CF?

A
  • picked up in newborn screening (but some missed) - 5% diagnosed after age 18.
  • neonatal period (around 20%): meconium ileus, less commonly prolonged jaundice
  • recurrent chest infections (40%)
  • malabsorption (30%): steatorrhoea, failure to thrive
  • other features (10%): liver disease, short stature
    diabetes mellitus
    delayed puberty
    rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools)
    nasal polyps
    male infertility, female subfertility
44
Q

How is CF diagnosed?

A
  • screening
  • if clinical suspicion - refer to paeds. Positive sweat test on 2 occasions = diagnostic.
45
Q

How is CF managed?

A
  • MDT approach - CF centre best
  • treatment of lung disease - exercises, physio, ABX, mucolytics
  • nutrition - high calorie and high fat diet, pancreatic enzyme supplements, vitamin supplements
  • avoid other CF patients - cross infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • lung transplantation - chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is a CI.
46
Q

What is hereditary haemochromatosis? What are the presenting features?

A
  • common autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption - results in iron accumulation- deposits in heart, liver, pancreas, joints, pituitary
  • mutations in the HFE gene (chromosome 6)
  • more common in males, females present later
  • often asymptomatic early on, then non specific lethargy, arhtralgia (often hands)
  • incidental high ferritin, or genetic screening of relatives
  • hepatomegaly +/- cirrhosis
  • skin pigmentation ‘bronze’
  • DM
  • E.D, testicular atrophy (pituitary dysfunction)
  • dilated cardiomyopathy - signs of HF
47
Q

How is suspected haemochromatosis investigated? How is it managed?

A
  • tsats >50%
  • raised ferritin >500 and raised iron
  • Low Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
  • Refer if above tests positive
  • LFTs checked, molecular genetic testing, MRI
  • liver biopsy now only if suspected hepatic cirrhosis
  • testing family members for HFE gene mutation
  • venesection 1st line - transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l
  • desferrioxamine may be used second-line
  • venesection returns life expectancy to normal
48
Q

What is Wilson’s disease? What causes it and what are the presenting features? How is diagnosis confirmed? How is it managed?

A
  • autosomal recessive disorder - defective biliary copper excretion - accumulation of copper in liver, brain, kidney, cornea.
  • onset symptoms age 10-25 years
  • liver (hepatitis/cirrhosis) or neurological disease (basal ganglia degeration) - parkinsonism
  • kayser-fleischer rings - green-brown rings in iris
  • genetic testing confirms
  • penicillamine - chelates copper.
  • liver transplant - if acute liver failure.
49
Q

What causes sickle cell disease?

A
  • sickle cell Haemoglobin (HbS) - an autosomal recessive inherited mutation of haemoglobin
  • can be heterozygous (HbAS) = sickle cell trait
  • homozygous (HbSS) = sickle cell disease
  • heterozygous with HbS and other Hb C, D, E

Clinical severity varies
Sickle cell trait protects against malaria - highest prevalance in sub-saharan Africa. Sickle cell trait usually asymptomatic.

50
Q

How is sickle cell disease diagnosed?

A
  • neonatal blood spot screening (5d)- allows penicillin prophylaxis PO to be started.
  • prenatal diagnosis- amniocentesis/CVS/fetal blood
  • antenatal haemoglobinopathy - sickle cell & thalassaemia- screening for pregnant women. If women is a carrier for haemoglobinopathy - father offered screening.
  • Pre-op screening in high risk groups
  • FBC and film - low Hb, high reticulocyte count. Sickled erythrocytes
  • Hb analysis by electrophoresis - confirms diagnosis.
51
Q

How does sickle cell disease present?

A
  • can begin 3-6mths age (HbF falling)
  • anaemia, jaundice, growth restriction
  • susceptible to encapsulated bacteria infections - pneumococcus, HiB, MenC. (pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years, annual Flu vaccine)
  • sickle crisis: vaso-occlusive (painful), aplastic crisis, sequestration crisis, acute chest syndrome (vaso-occlusion in lungs).
  • Vaso-occlusive crises pecipitated by: dehydration, infection, deoxygenation (high altitude), cold, anaesthesia.
  • aplastic crises - parovirus infection, BM suppression.
52
Q

What is the mechanism behind sickle cell disease?

A
  • HbS - undergoes liquid crystal formation as it becomes deoxygenated. Causes sickling of affected red blood cells - shortens red cell survival -> haemolytic anaemia and aggregation of sickled cells.
  • this leads to: tissue infarction - causes tissue damange and pain e.g. stroke
  • and sequestration in the spleen, liver, lungs - sudden anaemia. Hyposplenism due to sickling and consequent auto-splenectomy.
53
Q

How can painful sickle crises be managed at home?

A
  • avoid exposure to cold, avoid fever, dehydration, stress.
  • simple oral analgesia (if needing strong opioid - 2ry care), increased fluid intake, warmth, rest
  • start with paracetamol/ibuprofen then codeine/weak opioid.
  • Look for cause - eg infection
  • Admit if severe pain, respiratory compromise, fever.Transfusion needed if severe anaemia/ lung or CNS complications.
54
Q

How is sickle crisis managed in hospital?

A
  • opiates
  • IV fluids
  • oxygen
  • ABX if infection
  • blood transfusion - severe anaemia
  • exchange transfusion - stroke, acute chest syndrome, splenic sequestration crisis

Specialist may start hydroxycarbamide to prevent crises

55
Q

What is thalassaemia? What are the 2 main types?

A
  • autosomal recessive inherited disorder
  • disorder of production of alpha or beta globin chains of haemoglobin
  • HbA - the most common form of adult haemoglobin has two alpha chains and two beta chains.
  • leads to reduced Haemoglobin in red cells ->anaemia
  • Beta globin gene defects - cause Beta Thalassaemia
  • Alpha globin gene defects cause alpha Thalassaemia.
56
Q

Which thalassaemia patients are usually asymptomatic? How can this be picked up on routine bloods?

A
  • heterozygotes for alpha or beta thalassaemia (thalassaemia trait)
  • homozygotes for alpha+ thalassaemia
  • may have a mild anaemia with low MVC and MCH (microcytic and hypochromic)
  • suspect if MCV disproportionately low, ferritin normal, no response to iron.
57
Q

How does beta thalassaemia major present? What is the treatment?

A
  • Beta o/ Beta o = homozygotes
  • most detected at neonatal blood spot screening
  • profound anaemia from age 3 months
  • excess alpha chains precipitate - red cell destruction in bone marrow and spleen.
  • causes marrow proliferation - bony deformity - skull bossing, thinning long bones, splenomegaly.
  • failure to thrive
  • regular transfusions - can grow & develop normally
  • but iron accumulates - chelating agents increase survival
  • stem cell transplant curative

MDT specialist care

58
Q

What is haemophilia, how is it inherited? What are the presenting features?

A
  • x-linked recessive disorder of coagulation
  • but 1 in 3 results from new mutation (no family history)
  • haemophilia A: deficiency of factor VIII
  • Haemophilia B: deficiency of factor IX
  • haemarthroses
  • haematomas
  • prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma
  • Bloods: prolonged APTT. Bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal
59
Q

How is haemophilia treated?

A
  • specialist centre
  • transfusion of factor VIII or IX if bleeding.
  • prophylaxis - TXA after minor ops
  • desmopressin - stimulates factor VIII
60
Q

What are the inherited thrombophilias? How should they be managed?

A
  • factor V leiden (most common)
  • prothrombin gene mutation
  • deficiencies: antithrombin III, Protein C, protein S
  • autosomal dominant inheritance
  • All patients with known thrombophilia or previous VTE - consider short-term thromboprophylaxis at times of increased VTE risk.
  • Asymptomatic family members found to have a thrombophilic genotype - the risk of long-term anticoagulation outweighs the benefits. Consider short-term prophylaxis to cover periods of high VTE risk.
  • Patients with ≥2 spontaneous VTEs - consider indefinite anticoagulation.
61
Q

How is PKD inherited? How are family members screened?

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • most common inherited kidney disease
  • 1 in 1000 caucasians
  • abdo USS screening for relatives
62
Q

What are the features of PKD?

A
  • cysts develop in kidney causing decrease in kidney function - common cause of CKD
  • hypertension
  • haematuria
  • flank pain
  • palpable kidneys
  • recurrent UTIs

Extra-renal:
* liver cysts - hepatomegaly
* berry aneurysms - SAH
* CVS - MV prolapse, aortic dissection

Refer renal.

63
Q

What is Alport syndrome?

A
  • genetic condition - X-linked in 80%
  • congenital sensorineural deafness
  • haematuria, proteinuria, renal failure, lens abnormalities. Renal failure in males by 30s. Females less severely affected.
  • transplantation - does not recur.
64
Q

What is PKU? How does it present?

A
  • phenylketonuria
  • autosomal recessive genetic condition
  • defect in an enzyme - leads to high levels of phenylalanine (an amino acid present in many foods)
  • baby appears normal at birth but then get developmental delay, learning difficulties, seizures
  • picked up on bloodspot screening
  • fair hair, blue eyes
  • musty odour of urine & sweat
  • dietary restrictions needed.
65
Q

Which conditions are picked up on neonatal blood spot screening?

A
  • congenital hypothyroidism
  • cystic fibrosis
  • sickle cell disease
    And 6 autosomal recessive inherited metabolic conditions:
  • phenylketonuria
  • medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
  • maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  • isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
  • glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
  • homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU)
66
Q

What are the inherited muscular dystrophies? How are they inherited?

A
  • x-linked recessive
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) - severe form. progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years. Calf psuedo hypertrophy. Gower’s sign. 30% learning difficulties
  • Becker muscular dystrophy: develops after age 10 , learning difficulty much less common.
67
Q

What is Hunter’s syndrome, how is it inherited?

A
  • X-linked recessive - seen in males.
  • inherited lysosomal storage disease
  • type A. -severe (death by 30s). Type B - milder.
  • learning disability, deafness, pebble ivory skin lesions