Long Term Control of BP, Oedema and Dehydration Flashcards

1
Q

Why must ECF volume and osmolality be maintained?

A

Volume:

  • to maintain BP
  • important for tissue perfusion and function
  • maintained by adjusting total body content of NaCl

Osmolality:

  • to maintain cell volume
  • important for cell function
  • maintained by adjusting total body H20 content
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2
Q

Describe how the ECF volume is controlled

A
  • changes in ECV is sensed by carotid sinus, aortic arch, renal afferent arteriole, or atria
  • activates hormonal transducers (RAAS, SNS, ANP, AVP (arginine vasopressin))
  • short term: exerts effects in the heart and blood vessels to adjust BP
  • long term: exert effects on the kidney causing Na+ excretion
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3
Q

Describe how ECF osmolality is controlled

A
  • changes in plasma osmolality sensed by hypothalamic osmoreceptors
  • activates hormonal transducers (AVP and thirst)
  • exerts effects on the kidney to cause renal H20 excretion
  • exerts effects on brain to cause drinking behaviour resulting in H20 intake
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4
Q

What level is extrarenal Na+ output?

A
  • usually negligible
  • unless large fluid loss such as:
  • GI tract (vomiting and dairrhoea)
  • skin (excessive sweating, burns)
  • causes kidneys to respond by reducing Na+ excretion
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5
Q

What is effective circulating volume?

A
  • functional blood volume
  • reflects extent of tissue perfusion in specific regions
  • changes in ECV paralelel to changes in total ECF volume
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6
Q

In what circumstances will changes in ECF not be parallel to ECF volume?

A
  • in disease states
  • congestive heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis
  • total ECF grossly expanded (oedema/ascites)
  • but ECV is low so increasing Na+ retention
  • can exacerbate systemic congestion as there is a mismatch in Na+ intake and excretion
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7
Q

Describe volume expansion

A
  • when Na+ persists in face of impaired Na+ excretion
  • body retains isosmotic fluid
  • expansion of plasma fluid volume and interstitial fluid compartment
  • in severe cases, interstitial volume increase so severe that subepidermal tissues swell (causes pitting oedema)
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8
Q

Describe volume contraction

A
  • excessive loss of Na+ into urine

- dramatic shrinkage of ECF volume

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9
Q

What states cause a shrinkage of ECF volume?

A
  • hypovolaemic shock
  • prolonged use ot diuretics
  • osmotic diuresis in poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • recovery phase after AKI/urinary obstruction
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10
Q

Describe the RAAS mechanism

A
  • angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I by renin
  • angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
  • angiotensin II acts on AT1 receptors
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11
Q

What is renin and its function?

A
  • proteolytic enzyme released by granular cells in juxtaglomerular apparatus
  • cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
  • cleared by plasma
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12
Q

Where is the angiotensin converting enzyme found?

A

vascular endothelium in lungs and renal afferent and efferent arterioles

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13
Q

Describe the effect that angiotensin II has

A
  • increases vasoconstriction and TPR in vascular smooth muscle cells of blood vessels
  • increases release of ADH, reabsoprtion of H20 in kidneys, and ECV
  • increases stimulation of secretion of aldosterone from adrenal glands, Na+ reabsorption and ECV in renal tubules of kidney
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14
Q

Describe the sympathetic NS mechanism

A
  • enhanced activity of renal sympathetic nerves directly causes:
  • increased vascular resistance
  • increased Na+ reabsorption by tubule cells
  • indirectly causes:
  • enhanced renin release from granular cells
  • together decrease GFR and enhance Na+ reabsorption
  • increases Na+ retention and ECV
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15
Q

Describe the arginine vasopressin (AVP) mechanism

A
  • ADH
  • released by posterior pituitary in response to increases in extracellular osmolality
  • promotes water reabsorption in distal nephron
  • also released in response to large reductions in ECV (eg. haemorrhage)
  • also causes vasoconstriction and increases renal Na+ retention
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16
Q

Describe the ANP mechanism

A
  • released by atrial myocytes in response to stretch
  • increases GFR and renal blood flow
  • inhibits Na+ transport in inner medullary collecting duct
  • decreases renin release
  • inhibits aldosterone release from adrenals
  • decreases AVP release
    (promotes natriuresis diuresis)
17
Q

Describe the action of osmotic diuretics and give an example

A
  • mannitol
  • modifies content of filtrate
  • freely filtered across glomerulus, but cannot be reabsorbed along tubules
  • mainly affects PCT and descending loop of Henle
  • the presence of solutes that cannot be reabsorbed reduces passive H20 absorption
  • increases H20 excreted
  • small secondary increase in Na+ excretion
  • for acute renal failure
18
Q

Describe the action of loop diuretics and give examples

A
  • eg. furosemide, bumetanide
  • inhibits NKCC in thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
  • causes a reduction in reabsorption of Na+, K+ and Cl-
  • used in treatment of hypertension where renal function is impaired
  • thiazides preferred when renal function preserved
19
Q

Describe the action of thiazide diuretics and vie examples

A
  • eg. bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
  • inhibit NCC
  • reduces Na+ and Cl- reabsorption
  • also causes vasofilation
  • 2nd/3rd line treatment of hypertension
20
Q

Describe the action of K+ sparing diuretics and give examples

A
  • powerful antihypertensive in combination with loop/thiazide diuretics
  • aldosterone antagonists (eg. spironolactone and epleronone): competitively inhibit mineralcorticoid receptor
  • ENaC inhibitors (eg. amiloride, triamterence): block epithelial Na+ channel
  • reduces driving force for K+ secretion in CT
  • combined with loop diuretics to prevent hyperkalaemia