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VAP > Locomotion > Flashcards

Locomotion Flashcards

1
Q

What aspect of the equine limb is most prone to injury?

A

Palmar aspect- subject to tremendous strain

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2
Q

What is the important difference in carpus between horse and dog stance?

A

Dog can overextend carpus and horse stands with straight carpus

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3
Q

What is the colloquial name of MCIII in equine forelimb?

A

Cannon bone

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4
Q

How many proximal sesamoid bones are there in equine forelimb?

A

2

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5
Q

What is the colloquial name for phalanx 1 in equine forelimb?

A

Long pastern

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6
Q

What is the colloquial name for phalanx 2 in equine forelimb?

A

Short pastern

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7
Q

What is the colloquial name for phalanx 3 in equine forelimb?

A

Coffin/pedal bone

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8
Q

What is the colloquial name for the distal sesamoid bone in equine forelimb?

A

Navicular

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9
Q

What is the colloquial name for the equine metacarpophalangeal joint?

A

Fetlock joint

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10
Q

What is the colloquial name for the equine proximal interphalangeal joint?

A

Pastern joint

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11
Q

What is the colloquial name for the equine distal interphalangeal joint?

A

Coffin joint

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12
Q

Which phalangeal joint has a capsule at the front?

A

DiPj (coffin joint)

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13
Q

List the collateral ligaments in the palmar aspect of the equine forelimb? (4)

A

MCPj collateral ligament, PiPj collateral ligament, DiPj collateral ligament, short collateral ligament of PSB

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14
Q

What is the function of collateral ligaments in palmar aspect of equine forelimb?

A

Keep movement in sagittal plane as much as possible

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15
Q

What is the function of the axial and abaxial palmar ligaments between P1 and 2 of equine forelimb?

A

Prevent overextension of palmar joint

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16
Q

What is the other name for interosseus in horse?

A

Suspensory ligament

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17
Q

Where does suspensory ligament of horse originate?

A

Proximally on palmar proximal MCIII

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18
Q

Where does suspensory ligament of horse insert?

A

Via proximal sesamoid bones

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19
Q

Where do the cruciate ligaments in the equine manus insert and originate?

A

proximal sesamoids and P1

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20
Q

where does the straight ligament insert and originate in the equine manus?

A

P1 to P2

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21
Q

where does the short ligament insert and originate in the equine manus?

A

proximal sesamoids to P1, deep to the cruciate ligament

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22
Q

where is the inter-sesamoidean ligament in the equine manus?

A

between the proximal sesamoid bones

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23
Q

What is the distal scutum?

A

Cartilage that protects collateral ligament of navicular

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24
Q

What is the navicular bursa?

A

Bubble of fluid between navicular bone and tendons

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25
Q

What is the distal attachment of the navicular to P3?

A

Impar ligament

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26
Q

where does the common digital extensor tendon insert in the equine?

A

P3

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27
Q

What is a method of management of navicular disease?

A

Palmar digital neurectomy severs nerves so horse can’t feel navicular pain anymore

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28
Q

What is the mechanical theory of navicular disease?

A

Damaged by repeated compression and grinds against P2

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29
Q

What is the vascular theory of navicular disease?

A

Navicular receives blood supply from many little meshes of arteries- may be compromised in disease

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30
Q

What is the role of the suspensory ligament in the stay mechanism?

A

Prevents overextension of MCPj?

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31
Q

What is the role of the palmar ligaments in equine stay mechanism?

A

Prevents overextension of PiPj

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32
Q

What is the role of the carpal check ligament to DDFT in the equine stay mechanism?

A

Prevents DiPj overextension- allows all weight to be transferred off muscle at times

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33
Q

What is the role of the radial check ligament to SDFT in the equine stay mechanism?

A

Prevents PiPj overextension- snaps tight when leg is at full extension, prevents muscle strain

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34
Q

What is the role of the fibrous old pronators in the equine elbow?

A

Act like additional collateral ligaments that resist intermediate position of elbow joint

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35
Q

What muscle slings the forelimb onto the trunk?

A

Serratus ventralis

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36
Q

What happens to serratus ventralis as species get larger?

A

Becomes more fibrous

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37
Q

What connects the biceps to extensor carpi radialis?

In horse

A

Lasertus fibrosus

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38
Q

What bones does lasertus fibrosus connect?

A

The scapula and the cannon bone

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39
Q

What does lasertus fibrosus prevent?

A

Flexion of shoulder

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40
Q

Where is the additional insertion of the suspensory ligament in the equine hindlimb?

A

Tarsal 4

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41
Q

What does the accessory ligament from the pelvis to proximal femur prevent?

A

Abduction

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42
Q

How does the equine stifle lock?

A

Medial patellar ligament hooks over medial trochlear ridge of femur, locks when pulled medially, unlocks when pulled laterally

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43
Q

how many tendons does the patella have?

A

3

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44
Q

How is extension of the hock linked to extension of the stifle?

A

SDF contains a fibrous band from the femur to tuber calcis on tarsus called peroneus tertius

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45
Q

what is peroneus tertius?

A

a fibrous band of SDF from the femur to the tuber calcis

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46
Q

What are hooves/claws/nails?

A

Epidermal outgrowths with a keratin sole and wall and a thickened skin pad

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47
Q

What protects the uterus and fetal membranes from the hoof?

A

The hoof slipper (perinychium)

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48
Q

What are the sensitive tissues of the hoof/claw?

A

Bone, hypodermis, dermis (corium) and epidermis

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49
Q

What is the insensitive tissue in the hoof?

A

Keratin horn that surrounds the sensitive tissue

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50
Q

How is horn produced?

A

Secreted by finger-like papillae around top of hoof wall and on sole, which point in direction horn grows

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51
Q

What is sole horn produced by?

A

Solar papillae

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52
Q

What is wall horn produced by?

A

Coronary papillae

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53
Q

What is the superficial shiny layer of wall horn produced by

A

Perioplic papillae (proximal)

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54
Q

Why are perioplic papillae a narrower band?

A

Produce thinner layer

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55
Q

How does wall horn migrate?

A

Secondary sensitive laminae crawl down primary sensitive laminae by repeatedly breaking and reforming desmosomes

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56
Q

What does the white line mark?

A

Where the sensitive/insensitive interface reaches the distal surface, the junction of the wall and sole

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57
Q

What are the 3 causes of laminitis mentioned?

A

Endocrine (obesity etc.), sepsis (lowers pH), continual pressure from supporting limb (e.g. lameness in other foot)

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58
Q

What in the hoof stores elastic potential energy when the horse bears weight?

A

The heel by splaying abaxially

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59
Q

What is the frog?

A

A hinge which allows the sole of hoof to widen

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60
Q

what is the Latin term for the frog of the hoof?

A

cuneus ungulae

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61
Q

What are the ungual cartilages in juvenile horses?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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62
Q

As the horse ages what do the ungual cartilages become?

A

Fibrocartilage, then ossify as side bones

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63
Q

What is the digital cushion?

A

A thickened wedge of hypodermis palmar to P2 and P3

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64
Q

What is the pedal pump theory?

A

The digital cushion is full of veins, so when compressed when foot lifted encourages venous return

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65
Q

What are the differences between the horse and donkey hoof?

A

Donkey hooves are more upright, more cylindrical than conical, more U than C shapes, shorter frog and the broken forward stance is a normal variant

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66
Q

What are the differences between the horse and ox hoof?

A

Ox sole and heel-bulb are both weight bearing, no digital cushion, thin hypodermis, thicker abaxial wall, lateral 4 bears more weight than medial 3, more extensive region of coronary papillae and no secondary laminae

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67
Q

What are the differences between the horse hoof and dog claw?

A

Dog has furred epidermis, and hairless epidermis in nail-bed, laminar dermis with thin epidermal coating on P3 and a large crumbly sole

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68
Q

What are the differences between the horse hoof and cat claw?

A

The cat has a huge P3 which is retracted passively by axial and abaxial dorsal elastic ligaments

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69
Q

How many pads do carnivores have in forelimb?

A

5 digital, 1 metacarpal, 1 carpal

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70
Q

How many pads do carnivores have in hindlimb?

A

4 digital, 1 metatarsal, 0 tarsal

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71
Q

What is the equivalent of a carpal pad in the ungulate?

A

Chestnut

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72
Q

what is the equivalent of a digital pad in the ungulate?

A

frog/bulb

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73
Q

What is the equivalent of a metapodial pad in the ungulate?

A

Ergot

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74
Q

What is the pelvis composed of?

A

Pelvic girdle, sacrum and first 3 vertebrae

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75
Q

What does the pelvic girdle comprise?

A

2 coxal (hip) bones which articulate ventrally at the pelvic symphysis

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76
Q

What is the pelvic symphysis?

A

An immovable joint between the 2 coxal bones that is cartilage in young animals and bone in adults

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77
Q

What 3 smaller bones form each coxal bone?

A

The ileum, the ischium and the pubis

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78
Q

What is the ileum?

A

The largest component of the coxal bone, forms wing of pelvis

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79
Q

What is the ischium?

A

The most caudal component of the coxal bone, forms caudal ventral pelvic floor

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80
Q

What is the pubis?

A

The smallest component of the coxal bone, forms cranial ventral pelvic floor

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81
Q

What is the acetabulum?

A

Where the femur articulates into the hip

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82
Q

What is the femur?

A

The largest of the long bones

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83
Q

What is the largest and most complex joint in the body?

A

The stifle

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84
Q

What is the overall motion of the stifle?

A

Overall works like a hinge

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85
Q

What 2 joints is the stifle composed of?

A

The femoropatellar joint and the femorotibial joint

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86
Q

What articulates at the femoropatellar joint?

A

Trochlea of femur and the patella

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87
Q

Which joint has the most extensive joint cavity?

A

Femoropatellar

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88
Q

What articulates at the femorotibial joint?

A

Femoral condyles, proximal tibial head and articular menisci

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89
Q

what produces the 2 synovial sacs in the stifle joint?

A

menisci

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90
Q

What is the patella?

A

Largest sesamoid bone in the body, articulates with femoral trochlea

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91
Q

What is the role of the patella?

A

Facilitates pull of quadriceps femoris over the stifle

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92
Q

How many patellar ligaments do carnivores, pigs and small ruminants have?

A

1

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93
Q

How many patellar ligaments do horses and oxen have?

A

3

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94
Q

Which is thinner the tibia or fibula?

A

The fibula

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95
Q

Which species have unfused tibias and fibulas?

A

Carnivores and pigs

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96
Q

What is the tibial tarsal bone called?

A

The talus

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97
Q

What is the medial bone of the proximal row of tarsal bones?

A

The talus (tibial)

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98
Q

What is the lateral bone of the proximal row of tarsal bones?

A

The calcaneus (fibular)

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99
Q

What is the fibular tarsal bone called?

A

Calcaneus

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100
Q

Which tarsal bone has a trochlea and why?

A

Talus, to articulate with tibia

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101
Q

which is the largest tarsal bone?

A

calcaneus

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102
Q

what is the lever for the Achilles tendon?

A

tuber calcis on calcaneus

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103
Q

What tendons make up the Achilles tendon?

A

Gastrocnemius, SDFT, biceps femoris, semitendonosus

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104
Q

Which tarsal joint has the greatest range of movement?

A

The tibiotarsal joint

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105
Q

What articulates at the tibiotarsal joint?

A

The trochlea of the tibial tarsal bone and distal tibia

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106
Q

What sort of joint is the tibio-tarsal joint?

A

Hinge joint

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107
Q

What sort of joint is the intertarsal joint?

A

A gliding joint with very little movement

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108
Q

Which species have all 7 tarsal bones?

A

Carnivores and pigs

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109
Q

Which tarsal bones are fused in horses?

A

1st and 2nd

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110
Q

Which tarsal bones are fused in oxen?

A

2nd and 3rd, 4th and central

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111
Q

Which limb bud forms first, forelimb or hindlimb?

A

Forelimb

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112
Q

What elements of the limb does the limb bud contain?

A

Precursors of skeletal elements (limb and limb girdle bones) and tendon sheaths

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113
Q

What elements of the limb migrate into the limb bud?

A

Muscles and blood vessels

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114
Q

What is the blade of the scapula formed from?

A

Dermomyotome

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115
Q

What mediates proximo-distal differentiation of the limb bud?

A

The apical ectodermal ridge releasing morphogens

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116
Q

What does progressively earlier ablation of the apical ectodermal ridge cause?

A

Loss of progressively more proximal elements: autopod= normal, zeugopod= late, stylopod= early

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117
Q

What generates the cranio-caudal orientation of the limb?

A

The zone of polarising activity lying caudally

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118
Q

What is the result of grafting a zone of polarising activity onto the cranial edge of a limb bud?

A

mirror image duplication

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119
Q

What is polydactyly?

A

Extra digits

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120
Q

What is syndactyly?

A

Fusion of digits

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121
Q

What is a common cause of polydactyly?

A

Ectopic medial expression of ZPA-related genes

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122
Q

What is the mechanism of bone formation in most of the trunk and limbs?

A

Endochondral ossification

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123
Q

What forms the model for cartilage?

A

Mesenchymal condensation

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124
Q

What does blastemal condensation form?

A

Large, tightly packed mesenchyme cells

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125
Q

what is chondrification?

A

when cells differentiate into chondrocytes

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126
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

chondrocytes at the centre stop dividing and swell- this is interstitial growth. the connective tissue around the model is compressed into perichondrium, and the inner surface is chondrogenic

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127
Q

What happens in early mineralisation?

A

central chondroblasts start to mineralise matrix and perichondrial cells become osteoblasts forming a cylindrical cortical bone collar and compact bone is produced

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128
Q

What is vascular invasion?

A

Osteoblasts accompany vessels through cortical bone, osteoblasts lay down primary spongiosa (eventually forms cancellous bone)

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129
Q

What happens to further lengthen the diaphysis after vascular invasion?

A

Chondrocytes proliferate, more hypertrophy, marrow cavity enlarges

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130
Q

What causes the diaphysis to thicken at epiphysis end?

A

Traction on periosteum leaves thin discs of cartilage between epiphyses and diaphysis

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131
Q

What causes most pre and post-natal growth?

A

Growth plates

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132
Q

How many growth plates are in most long bones and vertebral centra?

A

2 (one at each end)

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133
Q

Which bones only have one growth plate?

A

Accessory carpal bone and fibular tarsal bone (calcaneus)

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134
Q

How do growth plates close?

A

They are bridged by bone and perforated by vessels

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135
Q

What are the layers of developing bone in growth plates?

A

Reserve cartilage (hyaline), proliferation (columns form), maturation (stop dividing and swell), hypertrophy and calcification, cartilage degeneration, osteoblast invasion, osteogenic zone

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136
Q

Which equine bones only have 1 growth plate remaining by birth?

A

MCIII, MTIII, P1 and P2

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137
Q

What types of growth plates are there?

A

In compression (proximal radius), in tension (proximal ulnar), flake epiphyses (iliac crest), evolutionary relics (scapula, pelvis)

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138
Q

What are particularly susceptible to angular limb deformity? (2)

A

Fast growing animals like giant breeds and fast growing bones like ulna, tibia

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139
Q

What is the longest bone in the dog?

A

The ulna

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140
Q

Where do joints form in development?

A

In pre-existing gaps between blastemal condensations

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141
Q

What muscles come from the ectoderm? (4)

A

Piloerector, mammary glands, iris, ciliary body (from neural crest)

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142
Q

What muscles come from the splanchnic mesoderm? (4)

A

Gut, bronchial, urinary smooth muscle, cardiac striated muscle

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143
Q

What muscles come from the myotome of the somitic mesoderm? (5)

A

Dorsal spinal muscles, ventral spinal muscles, body wall muscles, diaphragm muscle, limb muscles

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144
Q

What modern subclass of chordates probably swims similarly to pre-vertebrates?

A

Cephalochordates

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145
Q

How do cephalochordates swim?

A

Gel-like cellular notochord resists compression, is flexed laterally by segmental somitic muscles

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146
Q

Why did early tetrapods have fused vertebral elements?

A

Spine had to be very robust to resist torsional strain of footfalls

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147
Q

What are the spinal movements?

A

Sagittal plane flexion and extension, frontal plain flexion, axial rotation

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148
Q

What is the neural spine on a vertebra?

A

The dorsal spinous process

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149
Q

What are the spines that stick outwards on the vertebrae called?

A

Transverse processes

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150
Q

What is the hole in the vertebra called?

A

The vertebral canal

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151
Q

What does the nerve pass through in a vertebra?

A

The caudal vertebral notch

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152
Q

What do the vertebrae form from?

A

The sclerotome (medial part of somite)

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153
Q

what sort of development forms the vertebrae?

A

endochondral development

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154
Q

What are the regions of the spine?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal

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155
Q

Where is the cervical region of the spine?

A

Cranial to ribs

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156
Q

Where is the thoracic region of the spine?

A

Articulating with the ribs

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157
Q

Where is the lumbar region of the spine?

A

Between the ribs and sacrum

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158
Q

Where is the sacrum?

A

Articulates with the pelvis at sacroiliac joint

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159
Q

Which regions of the spine are very mobile?

A

Cervical and caudal

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160
Q

Which region of the spine is responsible for frontal plane movement?

A

The thoracic region

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161
Q

Which region of the spine is responsible for sagittal plane movement?

A

The lumbar region

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162
Q

How many cervical vertebrae do all domestic species have?

A

7

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163
Q

Which mammals don’t have 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

Manatees and sloths

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164
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae do dogs, cats and ruminants have?

A

13

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165
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae do pigs have?

A

14/15

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166
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have?

A

18/19 (17 in Arabs)

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167
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae do rabbits have?

A

12/13

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168
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do dogs and cats have?

A

7

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169
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do ruminants have?

A

6

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170
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do pigs have?

A

6/7

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171
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do horses have?

A

6

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172
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do rabbits have?

A

6/7

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173
Q

How many fused sacral vertebrae do dogs and cats have?

A

3

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174
Q

How many fused sacral vertebrae do ruminants have?

A

5

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175
Q

How many fused sacral vertebrae do pigs have?

A

4

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176
Q

How many fused sacral vertebrae do horses have?

A

5

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177
Q

How many fused sacral vertebrae do rabbits have?

A

3

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178
Q

What movement does the C1-skull joint produce?

A

Nodding

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179
Q

What movement does the C1-C2 joint produce?

A

Head shake

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180
Q

What sort of joint is the C1-skull joint?

A

Hinge

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181
Q

What sort of joint is the C1-C2 joint?

A

Pivot

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182
Q

What parts of C1 are incorporated into C2?

A

The centrum and neural spine

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183
Q

What is the C1 centrum in C2 called?

A

The dens or odontoid process

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184
Q

What is C1 called?

A

The atlas vertebra

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185
Q

What is C2 called?

A

The axis vertebra

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186
Q

In C1 where does the nerve exit from?

A

The lateral foramen

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187
Q

What are the characteristics of C3-C7?

A

Short neural spines, 2-pronged transverse processes

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188
Q

What is different about C6 to the other cervical vertebrae?

A

Large ventral laminae for longus colli muscle (flexor) to attach

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189
Q

Which cervical vertebra does the vertebral artery bypass?

A

C7

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190
Q

Where does the vertebral artery pass through in vertebrae?

A

The transverse foramina

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191
Q

What are the characteristics of the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Long neural spines and short transverse processes which articulate with ribs

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192
Q

What does the rib articulate with?

A

Transverse processes and centrum of thoracic vertebrae (capitulum)

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193
Q

What happens caudally to the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Blend into lumbar vertebrae

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194
Q

Which is the final thoracic vertebra with its neural spine pointing caudally?

A

Diaphragmatic vertebra

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195
Q

Which thoracic vertebra has a neural spine pointing cranially?

A

Anticlinal vertebra

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196
Q

What is a defining characteristic of the lumbar vertebrae?

A

Long transverse processes

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197
Q

Which way are the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae directed in large animals?

A

Laterally

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198
Q

Which way are the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae directed in small animals?

A

Ventro-cranio-laterally

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199
Q

Why do lumbar vertebrae have inter-transverse synovial articulation?

A

Region with lots of muscle mass so extra support (could also be for support when rearing for horses)

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200
Q

What is lost in the caudal vertebrae moving caudally?

A

Neural spines and arches, then minor, articular and transverse processes, until only centrum left

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201
Q

Why do carnivore Cd 4-7 vertebrae have haemal arches?

A

to protect the ventral caudal artery

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202
Q

Which joint is the site for epidural analgesia?

A

The S-Cd1 joint (first mobile joint after sacrum)

203
Q

What are most intervertebral joints composed of?

A

2 planar synovial joints between articular facets, one unusual symphysis between centra (intervertebral disc)

204
Q

What is the intervertebral disc made up of?

A

Cartilaginous cranial and caudal endplates fused with annulus fibrosus attached to nucleus pulposus by transitional zone

205
Q

What gives the intervertebral disc its blood supply?

A

The endplates via diffusion

206
Q

Where is the intervertebral disc thinnest?

A

on its dorsal end

207
Q

What is the annulus fibrosus?

A

Develops from sclerotome, is interwoven collagen fibres running concentrically with a coating of proteoglycan to smooth movement of collagen fibres over each other and resist tension and torsion

208
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus?

A

A vestige of the notochord, mostly proteoglycan so massive water content to give shock absorbing capacity and resist compression

209
Q

Between which vertebrae is there no disc?

A

C1 and C2

210
Q

Which vertebrae have no synovial joints

A

Caudal vertebrae

211
Q

What is the difference in the overall spine in oxen and horses?

A

Straighter and less mobile, longer processes, interlocking facets

212
Q

In which species is there still some movement at the lumbosacral joint?

A

Horses

213
Q

Which ligament runs over the top of the spinal column?

A

The supraspinous ligament

214
Q

Which ligaments run between the neural spines of vertebrae?

A

The interspinous ligaments

215
Q

Which ligaments run from the ventral aspect of the caudal arterial process to the lamina?

A

Interarcuate ligament

216
Q

Which ligament runs through the vertebral canal from dens to Cd1?

A

The dorsal longitudinal ligament

217
Q

Which ligament runs between the transverse processes?

A

Intertransverse ligament

218
Q

Which ligament runs along the bottom of the spinal column from T5 to S1

A

Ventral longitudinal ligament

219
Q

Which ligament is between rib heads in thoracic region?

A

Intercapital ligament

220
Q

What is the nuchal ligament?

A

Elastic extension of supraspinous ligament to cranial neck/head

221
Q

Which species are the nuchal ligament quite extensive in?

A

Large, e.g. horse

222
Q

Which species are the nuchal ligament absent in?

A

Pig and cat

223
Q

What are the hypaxial flexor muscles that run along the top of the spine? (3)

A

Sternocephalicus, longus colli, sublumbar muscles

224
Q

What does sternocephalicus flex?

A

The neck

225
Q

What does longus colli flex?

A

The neck

226
Q

What are the hypaxial flexor muscles that run ventrally? (2)

A

Scalenus and rectus abdominis

227
Q

What are the epaxial extensor muscles?

A

Splenius, transversospinales, longissimus, iliocostalis

228
Q

What region of the spine does transversospinales cover?

A

All of the spine

229
Q

What region of the spine does longissimus cover?

A

Ilium to skull

230
Q

What region of the spine does iliocostalis cover?

A

Ilium to first rib

231
Q

What is the secondary function of sacrospinales?

A

Can flex in the frontal plane

232
Q

What are the subdivisions of transversospinales? (6)

A

Spinales, semispinalis, multificius, rotatores, interspinales, intertransversarii

233
Q

What extrinsic muscles does the tail have?

A

Sagittal flexor and extensor muscles: medial, lateral, dorsal and ventral sacrocaudalis

234
Q

what are the intrinsic muscles in the tail?

A

continuation of transversospinales

235
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Concave-convex hinge, 2 synovial joints

236
Q

What is the costo-vertebral joint?

A

2 synovial joints aligned to swing rib laterally, cranially, ventrally

237
Q

What is the sacro-iliac joint?

A

A central synovial joint with very strong ligaments and some sagittal plane rotation

238
Q

What is the cranial boundary of the abdominal cavity?

A

Diaphragm

239
Q

What is the dorsal boundary of the abdominal cavity?

A

lumbar vertebrae and fascia

240
Q

what is the caudal boundary of the abdominal cavity?

A

pelvis

241
Q

what is the ventro-cranial border of the abdominal cavity?

A

the sternum

242
Q

What is the lateral boundary of the abdominal cavity?

A

caudal ribs

243
Q

What 3 muscles make up the lateral wall of the abdomen?

A

External abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique and transversus abdominis

244
Q

Which direction do the fibres of EAO run?

A

Dorso-cranially to ventro-caudally

245
Q

Which direction do the fibres of internal abdominal oblique run?

A

dorso-caudally to ventro-cranially

246
Q

Which direction do the fibres of transversus abdominis run?

A

transverse direction

247
Q

where does rectus abdominis run along?

A

the ventral midline

248
Q

what direction do fibres of RA run?

A

cranio-caudal direction from rib 1 + sternum to prepubic tendon

249
Q

what is the insertion of the abdominal muscles?

A

linea alba

250
Q

where does the falciform ligament lie?

A

within the abdominal cavity ventrally

251
Q

at the cranial end of the abdomen which muscles are deep to RA?

A

TA and IAO

252
Q

in the middle of the abdomen which muscle(s) are deep to RA?

A

TA

253
Q

At the caudal end of the abdomen which muscles are deep to RA?

A

None of them

254
Q

What lines the abdominal cavity?

A

Parietal peritoneum

255
Q

What covers abdominal organs?

A

Visceral peritoneum

256
Q

Where does parietal peritoneum develop from?

A

lateral plate mesoderm

257
Q

where does visceral peritoneum develop from?

A

splanchnic mesoderm

258
Q

what do the peritoneal membranes produce?

A

peritoneal fluid to lubricate movement

259
Q

what is the name of the potential space between the 2 peritoneal membranes?

A

peritoneal cavity

260
Q

what is the role of the abdominal muscles?

A

supportive and movement (respiratory, sneezing, coughing, vomiting, defacation)

261
Q

What are the differences in the equine abdomen?

A

Shorter, substantial aponeurosis, well developed tunica flavia, heave line (not normal to be visible), paralumbar fossa

262
Q

What does the aorta split into caudally?

A

internal and external iliac arteries

263
Q

How many epigastric arteries are there?

A

4 (caudal/cranial, deep/superficial)

264
Q

What do the superficial epigastric arteries run deep to?

A

Tunica flavia

265
Q

What do the deep epigastric arteries run inside?

A

Rectus sheath

266
Q

What is the innervation of the abdomen?

A

Spinal nerves from spinal chord run in ventral branches from spinal cord

267
Q

What is the femoral canal/ring?

A

Gap between insertion of EAO on ileum ring and concavity of ileum

268
Q

What passes through the femoral canal/ring?

A

The femoral nerve

269
Q

What forms the inguinal canal?

A

Progressive ends of muscles and a slit in EAO/thickening of fascia transversalis creates flat canal

270
Q

What is the inguinal ligament?

A

Thickened caudal border of EAO

271
Q

What structures pass through the inguinal canal?

A

Genitofemoral nerve, external pudendal artery and vein, caudal superficial epigastric artery and vein, in males spermatic cord and cremaster muscle

272
Q

What does a female have between the deep and superficial inguinal ring?

A

Vaginal process

273
Q

What is a hernia?

A

A breach of abdominal musculature

274
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

A region of skin supplied by a single nerve

275
Q

What direction is dorsal?

A

Towards the back

276
Q

What direction is ventral?

A

Towards the belly

277
Q

What direction is cranial?

A

Towards the front

278
Q

What direction is caudal?

A

Towards the back end

279
Q

What direction is rostral?

A

Towards the head

280
Q

What direction is dorsal below the hock?

A

top of paw

281
Q

What direction is palmar?

A

sole of paw

282
Q

What direction is cephalic in embryos?

A

Towards the front end

283
Q

What direction is caudal in embryos?

A

Towards the back end

284
Q

What is axial?

A

Near the axis in limbs

285
Q

What is abaxial?

A

Away from the axis in limbs

286
Q

How are digits numbered?

A

From medial to lateral

287
Q

What direction is distal?

A

Away from body

288
Q

What direction is proximal?

A

Toward body

289
Q

What are the aspects of the eyeball?

A

Anterior (front) and posterior (back)

290
Q

What is a stylopod?

A

One big bone in limb

291
Q

What is a zeugopod?

A

Two bones in limb

292
Q

What is an autopod?

A

Less than or equal to 5 digits

293
Q

What is evolution?

A

Change in animal species and speciation over time

294
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The mechanism of evolution

295
Q

What happens in natural selection?

A

Advantageous characteristics are propagated in later generations due to increased reproductive success

296
Q

What is the only valid way of classifying animals?

A

Cladistics

297
Q

What does a clade contain?

A

All the descendants of a single ancestral species

298
Q

How are descendants of an ancestral species defined?

A

By having one or more shared, derived, novel characteristics inherited from ancestral species

299
Q

What characteristics are used in cladistics?

A

Morphological or molecular characteristics

300
Q

What is convergent evolution?

A

When animals evolve similarly without common ancestors as they fill similar niches

301
Q

What are amniotes?

A

Species that can reproduce away from water

302
Q

What are the criteria for domestication? (4)

A

Flexible diet, rapid growth, breed in captivity, good disposition

303
Q

What is archaeological evidence for domestication? (5)

A

No local wild ancestors, skewed sex and age distribution, remains near settlements, husbandry-related tools, artistic representations

304
Q

What is morphological evidence of domestication? (9)

A

Smaller, reduced weaponry (horns), shorter hair, smaller brain, neoteny, richer colours, shorter muzzle, fat deposits, smaller sense organs

305
Q

What is neoteny?

A

Juvenile characteristics in adult

306
Q

What are the 3 fundamental elements of development?

A

Pattern, specialisation, growth

307
Q

What is the first stage of development after fertilisation?

A

Cleavage stages

308
Q

What is the ball of cells formed in the cleavage stage called?

A

A morula

309
Q

What is the first specialisation in embryo development?

A

Trophoblast and inner cell mass

310
Q

What is the blastocoel?

A

Fluid filled cavity between the ICM and trophoblast

311
Q

What does the trophoblast develop into?

A

Placental membranes

312
Q

What is the blastocyst?

A

The embryo when the ICM, trophoblast and blastocoel are present

313
Q

What does the ICM subdivide into?

A

Hypoblast and epiblast

314
Q

Which layer of the ICM develops into the embryo?

A

Epiblast

315
Q

What does the hypoblast develop into?

A

Extra embryonic membranes

316
Q

What is the amniotic cavity?

A

A second fluid-filled cavity formed between the epiblast and trophoblast

317
Q

What 2 pieces of evidence prove that instructions for the definitive body aren’t present before gastrulation?

A
  1. Early embryos can be split and as long as both parts contain some ICM will each form perfectly formed animal (monozygotic twins)
  2. Can remove cells or transplant cells between blastocysts- produces chimera of cells from transplanted and recipient blastocysts
318
Q

What is acquired in gastrulation?

A

A body axis with a head and tail; inside out specialisation with 3 basic germ layers; left-right axis

319
Q

What are the 3 germ layers formed in gastrulation?

A

Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

320
Q

Where is gastrulation initiated?

A

In primitive streak

321
Q

What is the inner germ layer?

A

Endoderm

322
Q

What is the middle germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

323
Q

What is the outer germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

324
Q

What is the central end of the primitive streak called?

A

The primitive pit/Hensen’s node

325
Q

What determines which germ layer epiblast cells become?

A

Proximity to trophoblast

326
Q

What determines whether cells will be cranial or caudal?

A

Proximity to Hensen’s node: closer=cranial

327
Q

What do ectoderm cells develop into? (3)

A

CNS, PNS, epidermis

328
Q

What do mesoderm cells develop into? (8)

A

Muscles, bones, kidneys, reproductive system, blood, vascular system, peritoneal linings, dermis

329
Q

What do endoderm cells develop into? (6)

A

Lining of intestines and associated organs (liver+pancreas), lining of lungs and respiratory tract, thymus, parathyroid

330
Q

What are the subdivisions of the mesoderm? (4)

A

Notochord, paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm

331
Q

What will the notochord form?

A

Spinal cord

332
Q

What will the paraxial mesoderm develop into?

A

Ribs and muscles

333
Q

What will the intermediate mesoderm develop into?

A

Kidneys and gonad

334
Q

What will the lateral plate mesoderm form?

A

Blood, peritoneum, etc.

335
Q

What protein induces specialisation of ectoderm cells in neural tube formation?

A

Sonic hedgehog

336
Q

What evidence is there that the notochord conveys information to ectoderm to induce neural tube formation? (2)

A
  1. Transplantation of second notochord leads to duplicated neural tube
  2. Any ectoderm transplanted next to notochord will be induced to form neural tissue
337
Q

How many points of closure of the neural tube are there?

A

5

338
Q

What dog breed has genetic predisposition to spinal dysraphism?

A

Weimaraner dogs

339
Q

What are the types of animal movement?

A

Powered and unpowered rolling, slithering, legged

340
Q

What phases do limbs undergo?

A

Protraction and retraction

341
Q

What is flexion?

A

If the flexor angle is less than 180 degrees and decreasing

342
Q

What is extension?

A

If the flexor angle is increasing

343
Q

What are the 4 major equine gates?

A

Walk, trot, canter, transverse gallop

344
Q

What is the fastest endurance gait for horses?

A

Trot

345
Q

What is a 1 beat gait?

A

Stotting/pronking

346
Q

What are 2 examples of unusual 2 beat gaits?

A

Pace and bound

347
Q

What is an example of a 3 beat gait that isn’t canter?

A

Half bound

348
Q

What are 2 examples of unusual 4 beat gaits

A

Rotating gallop and tölt

349
Q

What are specialisations for increased efficiency of movement? (2)

A

Erect rather than sprawling stance, limb movement restricted to sagittal plance by collateral ligaments and muscles- no wasteful sideways movement

350
Q

How are limbs specialised to increase stride length? (4)

A

Unguligrade means limbs are longer; mobile scapula; suspended plane; sagittal plane spinal flexion

351
Q

How is a low distal mass achieved?

A

Loss of distal bones and digits, proximal muscle bunching, flexion of all joints during protraction

352
Q

What is a plantigrade stance?

A

Walking on feet from hock down to toes

353
Q

What is a digitigrade stance?

A

Walking on digits

354
Q

What is an unguligrade stance?

A

Walking on toe

355
Q

Where are the most dramatic forelimb differences between species seen?

A

Distal to carpus

356
Q

what is the most proximal bone of the forelimb?

A

scapula

357
Q

what is the range of movements of the scapula?

A

protraction, retraction, compression, extension, rotation

358
Q

What domestic species still have clavicles?

A

Cats and rabbits

359
Q

What sort of joint is the shoulder joint?

A

Ball and socket joint

360
Q

What is the range of movement of the shoulder joint?

A

Flexion and extension

361
Q

What is the name of the joint between the scapula and humerus?

A

shoulder joint

362
Q

what does the shoulder joint not have?

A

collateral ligaments

363
Q

what ligamental muscles support the shoulder joint?

A

infraspinatus laterally, subscapularis medially

364
Q

what is the name of the joint between the humerus, radius and ulna?

A

elbow joint

365
Q

which is the main weight bearer the radius or ulna?

A

radius

366
Q

what are the names of the proximal carpal bones? (M to L)

A

radial, intermediate, ulnar, accessory

367
Q

what are the names of the distal carpal bones? (M to L)

A

first, second, third, fourth

368
Q

In what species are all carpal bones present?

A

pigs

369
Q

in which species is the 1st carpal bone missing or very small?

A

horses

370
Q

in which species are the radial and intermediate carpal bones fused?

A

carnivores

371
Q

in which species is the 1st carpal bone absent and the 2nd and 3rd fused?

A

Ox

372
Q

How many joints does the carpus comprise?

A

3

373
Q

what is the antebrachiocarpal joint called in horses?

A

radiocarpal joint

374
Q

which carpal joint has the greatest range of motion?

A

antebrachiocarpal joint

375
Q

what sort of joint is the antebrachiocarpal joint?

A

hinge

376
Q

what sort of joint is the intercarpal joint?

A

hinge

377
Q

what sort of joint is the carpometacarpal joint?

A

gliding joint

378
Q

what does the accessory carpal bone in horses articulate with? (2)

A

radius and ulnar carpal bone

379
Q

what species has some reduction of the 1st digit (dew claw)?

A

dog

380
Q

which species has an absent 1st digit, and smaller 2nd and 5th digits compare to 3rd and 4th?

A

pig

381
Q

which species has an absent 1st and 2nd digit, common MC bone for 3rd and 4th and 5th represented by tiny MC bone?

A

ruminant

382
Q

which species has an absent 1st and 5th digit, reduced 2nd and 4th digit only represented by small metacarpal bones?

A

horse

383
Q

what are sesamoid bones?

A

small bones lying within or next to tendons or muscles

384
Q

what is the function of sesamoid bones?

A

ensure the pull of muscles/tendons transmitted smoothly around bends

385
Q

what is the carpus called in horse?

A

knee

386
Q

what is the MCPj called in horse?

A

fetlock joint

387
Q

what is the region between the fetlock and hoof called in the horse?

A

pastern

388
Q

what is the DIPj called in the horse?

A

coffin/pedal joint

389
Q

what is the femorotibial joint known as in the horse?

A

the stifle

390
Q

when does somitogenesis start?

A

during neural tube closure prior to embryonic folding

391
Q

where do somites develop from?

A

paraxial mesoderm

392
Q

what do somites give rise to

A

the axial skeleton and dermatomes

393
Q

where does the first sign of segmentation in somitogenesis occur?

A

in cervical regions- spreads caudally

394
Q

which somite cells will form bones of the axial skeleton?

A

those closest to the neural tube as the receive the most signal

395
Q

what are bones of the axial skeleton formed from?

A

sclerotome

396
Q

what 2 layers do somite cells further from the neural tube separate into?

A

myotome and dermatome

397
Q

what does myotome give rise to?

A

muscles of the main body (some cells migrate into limbs for limb musculature)

398
Q

what will dermatome give rise to?

A

dermis

399
Q

how many sclerotomes contribute to 1 vertebra?

A

2

400
Q

what will happen if somite is transplanted more cranially?

A

will make structures appropriate to original site

401
Q

which gene family is required for correct somite programming?

A

Hox genes

402
Q

what is cervical vertebral instability?

A

abnormalities in the structure of the vertebrae, the ligaments that connect, or the disks between them

403
Q

what is cervical vertebral instability know as?

A

wobbler syndrome

404
Q

in which species of dog are cervical vertebral instability most common? (2)

A

Great Danes and Doberman Pinschers

405
Q

what are hemivertebrae?

A

abnormal bony developments of 1 or more vertebrae

406
Q

what does hemivertebrae severity depend on?

A

what part of the spinal cord is affected and whether there is compression of the spinal cord

407
Q

what causes the kinked tail in screw-tailed dog breeds?

A

hemivertebrae in the tail region

408
Q

what gives rise to the septum transversum?

A

thickening of mesoderm

409
Q

what forms the gut tube?

A

endoderm

410
Q

what process creates the gut tube and main body cavities?

A

ventral folding

411
Q

what is the precursor of the diaphragm?

A

septum transversum

412
Q

what is the most serious type of hernia?

A

diaphragmatic

413
Q

what is the chondrin matrix of cartilage made of?

A

sulphated mucopolysaccharide gel and type 2 collagen fibres

414
Q

what is the function of collagen in the cartilage?

A

resists tension

415
Q

what is the function of mucopolysaccharide gel in the cartilage?

A

resists compression

416
Q

what is cartilage produced by?

A

chondroblasts

417
Q

what is cartilage often surrounded by?

A

perichondrium- flattened connective tissue layer

418
Q

what are the types of cartilage? (4)

A

hyaline skeletal, elastic skeletal, fibrocartilage skeletal, articular

419
Q

what are the characteristics of hyaline skeletal cartilage?

A

simplest type, may mineralise in old age

420
Q

what are the characteristics of elastic skeletal cartilage?

A

contains elastin fibres

421
Q

what are examples of hyaline skeletal cartilage? (2)

A

upper respiratory tract, ventral ribs

422
Q

what are examples of elastic skeletal cartilage? (2)

A

external ear, upper respiratory tract

423
Q

what are the characteristics of fibrocartilage skeletal cartilage?

A

tougher, often sheets, alternating layers of hyaline cartilage and collagen

424
Q

what are examples of fibrocartilage skeletal?

A

intervertebral discs, symphyses, scuta, labra, menisci, discs

425
Q

what are the characteristics of articular cartilage?

A

complex, partly fibrous/partly hyaline, collagen fibres mostly arranged radially to resist compression in region closest to bone

426
Q

what is the matrix of bone composed of?

A

1/3 type 1 collagen, 2/3 hydroxyapatite with adsorbed calcium carbonate

427
Q

what cells are involved in bone formation and destruction?

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

428
Q

what are the classifications of bones by location?

A

axial, appendicular, cranial, postcranial

429
Q

what are the classifications of bones by morphology?

A

long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoids

430
Q

what are the classifications of bones by embryology?

A

somatic, visceral, sesamoids

431
Q

what is the epiphysis?

A

the ends of long bones

432
Q

what sort of bone is the epiphysis?

A

cancellous

433
Q

what is the diaphysis of long bone?

A

the shaft

434
Q

what is bone called when the epiphysis meets the diaphysis?

A

metaphysis

435
Q

what is the periosteum?

A

the outer layer of bone, toughest part

436
Q

what lines the marrow cavity?

A

the endosteum

437
Q

how are the Haversian canals connected?

A

oblique Volkmann’s canals

438
Q

what is each osteon made up of?

A

concentric cylinders of matrix interspersed with lacunae

439
Q

what are trabeculae?

A

spicules in cancellous bone

440
Q

what are the types of marrow?

A

red and yellow

441
Q

what fracture plane does tension create?

A

transverse

442
Q

what fracture plane does torsion create?

A

helical

443
Q

what is a synostosis?

A

a joint made up of bone

444
Q

what is a synchondrosis?

A

a joint where 2 bones are joined (fused) by cartilage

445
Q

what is a symphysis?

A

a joint where 2 bones are joined by fibrocartilage

446
Q

what is a syndesmosis?

A

a fibrous only attachment

447
Q

what is a gomphosis?

A

the fibrous tooth socket and tooth connection

448
Q

what is the other term for diarthroses?

A

synovial joints

449
Q

what are synovial joints?

A

more mobile joints with specialised fluid and cartilage

450
Q

what is the alternative name for a ball and socket joint?

A

enarthrosis

451
Q

what is the alternative name for an ellipsoidal joint?

A

condylar

452
Q

what is the alternative name for a saddle joint?

A

sellar

453
Q

what is the alternative name for a hinge joint?

A

ginglyus

454
Q

what is the alternative name for a pivot joint?

A

trochoid

455
Q

what is the alternative name for a sliding joint?

A

arthrosis

456
Q

what is the most mobile type of joint?

A

ball and socket joint

457
Q

how many axes of movement does a ball and socket joint have?

A

3

458
Q

how many axes of movement does an ellipsoidal joint have?

A

2

459
Q

how many axes of movement does a saddle joint have?

A

2

460
Q

how many axes of movement does a hinge joint have?

A

1

461
Q

how many axes of movement does a pivot joint have?

A

1

462
Q

what is an amphiarthrosis?

A

1 symphysis and 2 diarthroses

463
Q

what are the 2 types of cell in synovial membrane?

A

secretory type B synoviocytes and phagocytic type A synoviocytes

464
Q

what does synovial membrane secrete?

A

synovial fluid

465
Q

what are the functions of synovial fluid? (2)

A

lubricant, nutrients and gases diffuse into fluid from synovial membrane and capsule, fluid then nutrifies and aerates articular cartilage

466
Q

what underlies the synovial membrane?

A

areolar connective tissue

467
Q

what is outside the areolar connective tissue?

A

thick white fibrous capsule

468
Q

what is the role of collagen in articular cartilage?

A

resists tension

469
Q

what is the role of proteoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

attracts water so resists compression

470
Q

what does the joint capsule provide?

A

structural support for joint, lots of nerves which allows proprioception and respiratory reflexes

471
Q

what are discs and menisci?

A

additional fibrocartilaginous ingrowths which separate joint into 2 compartments

472
Q

what are labra?

A

fibrocartilaginous lips/extensions to a joint surface

473
Q

what are bursae?

A

small synovial spaces between bones and tendon/muscle/skin

474
Q

what is osteoarthritis?

A

when the joint degenerates beyond the ability of natural intrinsic repair mechanisms

475
Q

what are the types of muscle?

A

skeletal striated, cardiac striated, smooth muscle

476
Q

what is the range of a muscle?

A

how much it can contract

477
Q

what is the force of muscle contraction proportional to?

A

the number of myofibrils in parallel

478
Q

what is the range of a muscle parallel to?

A

number of sarcomeres in series

479
Q

what is the simplest type of muscle?

A

strap

480
Q

what direction are the fibres in a constrictor muscle?

A

same direction as the ring

481
Q

what direction are the fibres in a dilator muscle?

A

opposite to the ring

482
Q

what is an extrinsic muscle?

A

limb to limb

483
Q

what is an intrinsic muscle?

A

within limb

484
Q

what is the epimysium?

A

the outermost layer of connective tissue around muscle

485
Q

what is the perimysium?

A

the middle layer of connective tissue around fascicle

486
Q

what is the endomysium?

A

the inner layer of connective tissue around muscle fibres

487
Q

what is a fascicle?

A

a bundle of muscle fibres surrounded by perimysium

488
Q

what is the prime mover in antagonistic pairs?

A

the agonist

489
Q

what do antagonistic pairs allow?

A

smooth, controlled movements

490
Q

what is a synergist?

A

a muscle which prevents the action of other muscles from being impaired

491
Q

what are the 2 types of synergist?

A

capsular and ligamentar

492
Q

what is the role of capsular muscles?

A

stabilise joint capsules

493
Q

what is the role of ligamentar muscles?

A

constrains movement

494
Q

what is the convention of polyarticular muscles?

A

act at the most distal joint they cross

495
Q

what is torque?

A

the ability of a force (muscle) to cause rotation of a mass (limb segment) about a pivot (joint)

496
Q

what are tendons?

A

strong fibrous connection at ends of muscles to bone (continuation of epi-, peri- and endomysia)

497
Q

what are the 2 types of tendon?

A

funicular and aponeurotic

498
Q

what is a funicular tendon?

A

a cord-like tendon

499
Q

what is an aponeurotic tendon?

A

a sheet-like tendon

500
Q

what are the functions of tendons? (4)

A

direct muscular force, store and release EP, absorb sudden forces, amplify rapid movements

501
Q

what is the other name for scuta and retinacula?

A

annular ligaments

502
Q

what is the function of scuta and retinacula?

A

decrease the perpendicular distance of muscle from pivot which decreases torque

503
Q

what are the functions of sesamoid bones? (3)

A

prevent tendons form flattening and reduce friction, increase perpendicular distance from pivot so increase torque

504
Q
A

VAP (10 decks)

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