Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Nominal Runway Width

A

148 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Minimal Runway Width

A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind (dry runway)

A

38 kt (gust included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind

wet runway

A

33 kt (gust included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind

contaminated runway

A

10 kt (gust included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff/landing

A

10 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max wind for pax door door operation

A

65 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation

A

40 kt (or 50 kt if the aircraft nose is into the wind, or if the doors are on the leeward side).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FWD and AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds….

A

65 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Max flap/slat speeds:

Config 1

A

230 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max flap/slat speed:

Config 1+F

A

215 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max flap/slat speed:

Config 2

A

200 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Max flap/slat speed:

Config 3

A

185

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max flap/slat speed:

Config Full

A

177

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max speed with gear extended- VLE

A

280 kt/M 0.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max speed gear may be extended- VLO Extension

A

250 kt/M 0.60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max speed gear may be retracted- VLO Retraction

A

220 kt/M 0.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Max tire speed

A

195 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Max speed for windshield wipers

A

230 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Max speed cockpit window

A

200 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Min height for use of autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode

A

100 ft AGL or 5 seconds after takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Min height for use of the autopilot on an ILS approach with CAT3 SINGLE/DUAL displayed on the FMA

A

50 ft below DA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Min height for use of the autopilot during:

-straight in non-precision approach

A

250 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Min height for use of the autopilot on an ILS approach with CAT1 displayed on the FMA

A

160 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Min height for use of the autopilot during: | -circling approach
500 AGL
26
Min height for use of the autopilot during: | -Go-around (AP or FD engagement)
100 ft AGL
27
Min height for use of the autopilot during: | -All other phases
500 ft AGL
28
What must the FCU altitude be set to when in OPEN DES or DES mode on approach?
At or above MDA, or 500 ft, whichever is highest
29
What approaches cannot be used in NAV or NAV and APP NAV and FINAL APP mode
ILS, LOC, LOC B/C, LDA
30
A navaids approach may be performed in NAV, APP NAV, or FINAL APP provided that:
- AP or FD is used and, - if GPS PRIMARY is available: Reference navaid may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, with operational approval -if GPS PRIMARY is not available: Reference navaid and corresponding airborne equipment are serviceable, tuned and monitored
31
RNAV (GNSS) approaches may be preformed provided that...
-GPS PRIMARY is available
31
NAV mode may be used in the terminal area provided...
- GPS PRIMARY is available, or - HIGH accuracy is displayed, and appropriate RNP is checked or entered on MCDU, or - FMS navigation is cross-checked with navaid raw data
33
Max operating altitude for use of flaps/slats
20,000 ft
34
While engine-out, it is prohibited to use the autopilot to preform non-precision apps in what modes? (319 aircraft only)
FINAL APP, NAV V/S, or NAV/FPA
35
Fuel: Min fuel quantity for takeoff
3,307 lbs
36
Fuel: Prior to takeoff, if WING TK LO LVL warning is displayed on ECAM...
Takeoff is prohibited
37
Fuel: What order of tanks do we burn fuel
Center tank then wing tanks
38
Fuel: Takeoff on center tank is...
Prohibited
39
Hydraulic: Normal operating pressure
3000 psi +/- 200
40
Max brake temp for takeoff (brake fans, if installed, off)
300 *C
41
May the APU be started and operated if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed?
Yes, maintenance action is required within next 10h of APU operation
42
APU: Starter duty cycle
3 starter duty cycles, wait 60 mins before attempting 3 more cycles
43
Can we use APU bleed air for wing anti-icing?
No
44
Engines: Max EGT for takeoff and go-around
950 *C for 5 mins | 10 mins only in case of engine failure
45
Engines: Max EGT for MCT
915 *C
46
Engines: Max EGT for starting
725 *C
47
Engines: Max continuous oil temp
140 *C
48
Engines: Max transient oil temp (15 mins)
155 *C
49
Engines: Min oil temp for starting
-40 *C
50
Engines: Min Oil Quantity
9.5 qt + 0.5 qt/hr
51
What is T MAX FLEX?
ISA +53 °C -the max allowable flex temperature so that thrust reduction does not exceed 25% of the full rated takeoff thrust
52
During Flex takeoffs, the assumed temp must not be lower than...
The flat rating temp or the current OAT
53
Can we takeoff at reduced thrust on a contaminated runway?
No
54
Can we takeoff at reduced thrust with any inoperative item that affects performance?
Yes, as long as we still meet all performance requirements after the penalty has been applied.
55
Engines: Starter duty cycle
A standard auto start includes up to 3 start attempts, is considered 1 cycle 4 consecutive cycles with 20 sec pause between each, 15 min cooling period after 4th cycle -no running engagement of the starter when N2 is above 20%
56
Engines: When is reverse thrust not permitted?
- In flight - To back up the aircraft - Max reverse should not be used below 70 kt (idle reverse is permitted to aircraft stop)
57
Flight Maneuvering Load Limits: | Clean Configuration
-1g to +2.5g
58
Flight Maneuvering Load Limits: | Slats or Flaps extended
0g to +2g
59
Max Runway Slope
+/- 2%
60
Max Takeoff Altitude
9,200 ft
61
What 3 contaminated runway conditions is takeoff not recommended?
- wet ice - water on top of compacted snow - dry snow or wet snow over ice
62
Vmo/Mmo
350 kts / 0.82 Mach
63
Max Cabin Differential Pressure
9 psi
64
Max Negative differential pressure
-1 psi
65
Safety relief valve setting
8.6 psi
66
Max continuous load per TR
200 A
67
Max degrees with handwheel?
75*
68
Max degrees during pushback?
95*
69
At what N speed will the APU automatically shut down?
107% (ECAM display)
69
APU Bleed: Max altitude to assist engine start
20,000 ft
69
APU Bleed: Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack)
20,000 ft
71
Engines: Min oil temp for takeoff
-10 *C
73
APU Bleed: Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack)
15,000 ft
74
When is dispatch to/from narrow runways not allowed?
- nose wheel steering inop | - one or more brake inop
76
Limitation on speed for a turn during taxi when taxi weight is above what weight?
Do not exceed 20kts during turn when above 167,550 lbs
77
Narrow Runway Ops- Diversion to a 148ft wide runway is recommended in case of:
- Rudder jam - Rudder pedal jam - Yaw damper system fault - Rudder travel limit system fault - All failures leading to loss of the nose wheel steering