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Anatamy and Physiology > Lecture Test 3 > Flashcards

Lecture Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

List the functions of the skeletal system.

A 
Support
Mineral storage
Lipid storage
Blood cell production
Protection
Leverage (force of motion)
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2
Q

Shapes of bones

A 
Flat: skull
Long: femur
Irregular: vertebrae
Sesamoid: patella
Short: carpals/tarsals
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3
Q

What is the composition of bone matrix? What substance comprises
about two thirds of the matrix? What percentage do cells contribute?

A

Bone matrix is 2/3
Collagen: Ca(PO4)2 is 1/3
Cells contribute 2%

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4
Q

What is the histological difference between compact bone and spongy
bone? Which one has osteons (Haversian systems)? Which one
bone marrow?

A

Osteons (Haversian system): compact bone (looks like bulls eye)
Bone marrow: spongy bone (looks spiky with spaces)

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5
Q
  1. What is the difference between endochondral and intramembranous
    ossification? Which type is most common in humans?
A

Endo: in cartilage, develops first as hyaline cartilage then ossifies into bone. Most common in humans.
Intra: dermal ossification, gives rise to clavicle and mandible

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6
Q
  1. What effect does exercise have on bone?
A

Increases bone density and mass

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7
Q
  1. How do bones grow in length? What two hormones control growth at the epiphyseal plate?
A

Length is added at the epi plates where cartilage is laid down then later changes into bone.
Hormones: HGH and thyroxine

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8
Q

How do appositional growth and bone remodeling take place?</p>

A

Must break down bone with osteoclast then rebuild with osteoblast to widen or repair bone

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9
Q

How does bone deposition and bone destruction vary throughout life?

A

Early life: deposition exceeds destruction
Age 20-40: deposition equals destruction
Age 40+: destruction exceeds deposition

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10
Q

For what mineral is the skeleton the primary reservoir? What two
hormones control the blood level of this mineral?

A

Calcium, regulated by parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

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11
Q

How do osteopenia and osteoporosis differ?

A

Osteopenia: Naturally occurring bone loss with age. Does not effect function.
Osteoporosis: Severe, abnormal bone loss. Affects normal function of bone.

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12
Q

Name the two major divisions of the skeletal system and the major
components of each.

A

Axial Appendicular
Skull Pectoral girdle
Vertebrae Upper extremities (arms)
Sternum Pelvic girdle
Ribs Lower extremities (legs)

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13
Q

Define Sutures

A

Immovable joints in the skull: saggital, coronal, lambdoidal, squamous

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14
Q

Define Paired Cranial Bones

A

Parietal and temporal

all other cranial bones are unpaired

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15
Q

Define Unpaired Facial Bones

A

mandible and vomer

all others are paired

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16
Q

4 Skull Bones containing Paranasal Sinuses

A

Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Maxillary
Frontal

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17
Q

Define Fontanelles

A

Cranial openings in newborns aka “soft spots”

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18
Q

Be able to distinguish the five types of vertebrae.

A 
7 cervical
12 thoracic (facets for ribs)
5 lumbar (bear most weight)
sacrum and coccyx (fused)
Hole = transverse process
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19
Q

What are the four normal curvatures of the vertebral column and when
do they develop?
What are the names for and location of the abnormal curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

Normal Abnormal
Primary: during fetal life Scoliosis: lateral curvature
Secondary: when learn to walk Kyphosis: cervical curvature
Lordosis: lumbar curvature

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20
Q

What Forms the Ankle

A

Medial malleolus of tibia and

Lateral malleolus of fibula

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21
Q

What Forms the Brest bone

A

Sternum

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22
Q

What Forms the Chin

A

mandible

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23
Q

What Forms the Collar Bone

A

clavicle

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24
Q

What Forms the Forehead

A

frontal

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25
Q

What Forms the Heel

A

calcanus

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26
Q

What Forms the Knee Cap

A

patella

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27
Q

What Forms the Nasal Septum

A

Perpendicular plate of ethmoid

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28
Q

What Forms the Shoulder Blade

A

scapula

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29
Q

What Forms the Toes and Fingers

A

phalanges

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30
Q

How does the pelvis of a female differ from that of a male? Why?

A

Female: rounder opening, sacrum flatter, angle at pubis greater than 90 degrees
Male: heart-shaped opening, sacrum more curved inward, angle at pubis less than 90 degrees
CHILD BEARING!!!

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31
Q

According to the functional classification of joints, how would a suture
between two cranial bones be classified? Structurally, these joints are
classified as ________________________.

A

Functional: Synarthrosis (immovable)

Note: amphathrosis (slightly movable), diathrosis (freely movable)

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32
Q

Name the six joints classified as synovial joints? How would they be
classified according to the functional classification of joints?

A

Gliding Ball and socket
Pivot Ellipsoid
Hinge Saddle
Classified as diarthrosis.

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33
Q

Define abduction-adduction

A 
add = toward
ab = away
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34
Q

Define circumduction

A

Circular motion without rotation

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35
Q

Define dorsiflexion-plantar flexion

A 
dorsi = toes point up
plantar = toes point down
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36
Q

Define elevation-depression

A 
elev = jaw closing
depress = jaw opening
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37
Q

Define eversion-inversion

A 
ever = out
inver = in
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38
Q

Define flexion-extension

A 
flex = decrease angle
exten = increase angle
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39
Q

Define Opposition

A

thumb

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40
Q

Define Pronation-Supination

A

Radius and Ulna

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41
Q

Define Protraction-Retraction

A 
pro = jaw out
retrac = jaw closed
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42
Q

Define Rotation

A

turning around an axis.

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of muscle tissue and what functions do
muscles perform in the body?

A

CHARACTERISTICS FUNCTIONS
Contractibility Skeletal movement Maintain body position
Excitability Support soft tissues Guard openings
Extensibility Maintain body temperature Store nutrients

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44
Q
  1. What is the smallest functional unit of a striated muscle fiber?
45
Q

A Band

A

made up of think filaments

46
Q

Actin

A

thin filaments

47
Q

Cisternae

A

Concentrte Calcium and release calcium into the sarcomers

48
Q

Endomysium

A

surrounds individual muscle fibers, contains capillaries and nerve fibers. Contains myosatellite (stem) cells that repair damage.

49
Q

Epimysium

A

Exterior collagen layer that separates muscle from surrounding tissues.

50
Q

Fasicle

A

Bundle of Fibers

51
Q

Fiber

A

Muscle Fibers

52
Q

I Band

A

Made up of thin Filaments

53
Q

M Line

A

Midline of sarcomere, center of A Bands

54
Q

Myofilament

A

Bundles of protein filaments, make up myofibrils

55
Q

Myosin

A

think filaments

56
Q

Perimysium

A

surrounds muscle fiber bindles, contains blood vessels and nerve supply to fasicles

57
Q

Sarcomere

A

contractile units of muscle, the structural units of myofibrils

58
Q

Sarcolemma

A

cell membrane of a muscle fiber

59
Q

Sarcoplasma

A

cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

60
Q

Sacroplasmic Reticulum

A

membranous structure surrounding each myofibril, helps transmit AP to myofibril

61
Q

Think Filament

62
Q

Thin Filament

63
Q

Transverse (T) Tubules

A

Transmit action potential through cell

64
Q

Z Line

A

Limits of sarcomere, short contract

65
Q

Of what specific protein are the thick filaments composed? The thin
filaments

A

Thick-myosin

Thin- Actin

66
Q

What substance is the “key” that unlocks the active site on the actin so
so that the myosin heads can bind?

67
Q

As the thin filaments slide past the thick filaments during contraction,
what portion of the sarcomere also shortens?

68
Q

What is the role of the T tubules in muscle contraction?

A

Transmit action potential
Allow entire muscle fiber to contract simultaneously
Enhance communication between muscle fibers during contraction

69
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction and what are its component parts?

A

Location of neural stimulation.
Axon end at Synaptic terminal. The stimulus passes to the motor end plate. The space between the synaptic terminal and motor end plate is called the Cleft.

70
Q

What happens when an action potential arrives at the synaptic knob?
What neurotransmitter substance is released?

A

Stimulus occurs, there’s a latent period before contraction starts, the contraction occurs then relaxation.

71
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Muscle Twitch

A

muscle receives a stimulus

72
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Letent Period

A

before contraction starts after stimulus occurs

time required for the release of CA2+

73
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Period of Contraction

A

the time during actual muscle contraction

74
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Period of Relaxation

A

the time during which CA2+ are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport.

75
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Graded Muscle Response

A

contractions of whole muscles and can vary in terms of strength and degree of contraction.

76
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Wave Summation

A

stimulating a muscle cell before it has relaxed from a previous stimulus. causes contractions to build on one another producing a wave pattern.

77
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Incomplete Tetanus

A

each stimulus causes a contraction to be initiated when the muscle has only partly relaxed from the previous contraction.

78
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Complete Tetanus

A

stimuli to a particular muscle are repeated so fast that decrease of tension between stimuli cant be detected.

79
Q

Define the Muscle relate to contraction Treppe

A

the gradual increase in muscular contraction following fast repeated stimulation.

80
Q

What is a motor unit? How does the size of a motor unit affect the
precision of movement?

A

1 motor neuron and ALL the muscle fibers it innervates within the same muscle

fewer fibers = more precise control
more fibers = less precise control

81
Q

What is the difference between isotonic and isometric exercise?
Which type do we use when performing physical exercises such as situps or pushups

A

ISOTONIC=Muscle changes length, most physical exercise
ISOMETRIC=Muscle tension increases but does not change length
(same meter, same length)

82
Q

What is muscle tone and what is responsible for this condition?
Why is it important?

A

State of partial contraction of muscle.
Keeps muscles healthy
Prevents atrophy
Maintains posture

83
Q

What role do the following play in providing energy for muscle
contraction?

  • ADP
  • ATP
  • Aerobic Metabolism
  • Creatine Phosphate
  • Glycolysis
A

ADP, ATP, Creatinine, Phosphate=Involved in energy production

Glycolysis=Anaerobic, glycogen is stored in muscle to make ATP

84
Q

How does a muscle obtain energy during peak activity?

A

Uses glycolysis during peak activity

85
Q

What cause muscle fatigue? Why is it said to create an “oxygen debt”?

A

Strenuous exercise creates unusual oxygen demand as ATP production tries to keep up with demand, causes lactic acid build up.

86
Q

How do cardiac muscle and smooth muscle differ from skeletal
muscle? (See Table 9.4, page 273.) Why are these two types of
muscle tissue said to have the property of automaticity?
Skeletal muscles are striated and Voluntary

A

Cardiac muscles= Striated and Involuntary
Smooth muscles= Not striated and Involuntary does have Actin and Myosin but not arranged in rows in the sarcomeres so is not striated

Does not require conscious control to function normally

87
Q

Define Antagonist in reference to muscle

A

opposite movement

e.g. flex and extend of forearm - the biceps and triceps are antagonists

88
Q

Define Insertion in reference to muscle

A

More moveable part of bone (usually proximal to body)

89
Q

Define Origin in reference to muscle

A

Least moveable part (usually distal to body)

90
Q

Define Prime Mover in reference to muscle

91
Q

Define Synergist in reference to muscle

A

Smaller muscles the assist the prime mover

92
Q

Be able to recognize examples of the various ways in which muscle
names are derived

A 
Tricep= 3 heads
Biceps= 2 heads
93
Q

Be able to locate major muscles as to the general region of the body
in which they are found and recognize in general what their actions
might be

A

Quadricpes femoris=Rectis femoris, Vastus Lateralis, Vastus Medialis, Vastus Intermedius
Region=Thigh
General Actions= flex and extend

94
Q

What are the two major divisions of the nervous system and how are
they further subdivided?

A

2 Divisions = Sensory and Motor
Sensory is divided into Somatic and Visceral
Motor is divided into Somatic and Autonomic

95
Q

Name the three parts of a neuron and give the functions of each.

A
  1. Dendrite: impulses go in
  2. Axon: impulses go out
  3. Soma: cell body
96
Q

Differentiate among the four structural types of neurons (anaxonic,
bipolar, multipolar, and unipolar) and state where (in general)
they are located in the body

A

Just know Multipolar is several dendrites and 1 axon

97
Q

What are the three functional classes of neurons?

A
  1. Motor
  2. Sensory
  3. Interneurons
98
Q

Name and briefly state the function of the four types of neuroglia
found in the CNS

A

Ependymal cells
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia

99
Q

What type of glial cells are responsible for producing a complete
myelin sheath around the axons of the PNS?

A

Schwann cell

100
Q

What factors are responsible for maintaining the resting membrane
potential of a nerve cell?

A

sodium concentration positive on the outside negative on the inside.

101
Q
  1. List the steps involved in the generation of an action potential
A

Just know first step is increased permeability of the membrane to SODIUM

102
Q

Differentiate between saltatory conduction and continuous conduction
and indicate which one is faster

A

Saltatory=fastest because it is myelinated and skips from node to node
Continous=(unmyelinated = continuous and slower)

103
Q

What are the main parts of a synapse and how are neurons able to
communicate at a synapse

A

pre-synaptic = transmitter sub
post-synaptic = neuron= receptor
uses Neuro Transmitter Substance

104
Q
  1. List the meninges of the CNS in order from outside to inside
A

Dura mater = outside
Arachnoid mater = middle
Pia mater = inside

105
Q

Describe in general the organization of the spinal cord, particularly
how the dorsal and ventral roots unite to form a spinal nerve. Which root is for motor information and which is for sensory information?

A

Spinal Cord Dorsal Root=sensory
white Matter= outside Note: when dorsal and ventral roots
gray matter= inside leave the spinal cord together they
(vice versa in brain) are mixed
Ventral Root=completely motor

106
Q
  1. What is the cauda equina?
A

the roots at the bottom of the spinal cord

107
Q
  1. Define a nerve plexus and name the four nerve plexuses found in the
    body. Damage to which one might result in respiratory distress?
A

-Cervical plexus affects breathing

108
Q
  1. List the five elements of a simple reflex arc. (Fig. 12-13, page 377)
    What is the minimum number of neurons involved?
A
  • Receptor - detects change
    -Sensory neuron
  • Interneuron (association neuron)
  • Motor neuron
  • Effexor/effector
    (skeletal, cardio, smooth, muscle or glands)
109
Q

What is Babinski’s reflex and what is its significance?

A
  • the big toe moves toward the top of the foot and the other toes fan out after the sole is firmly stroked
  • It’s normal in infants, but indicates spinal cord damage in adults

Anatamy and Physiology (10 decks)

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