Lecture Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define arteries

A

LARGE, branching vessels that take blood AWAY from the heart

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2
Q

Define arterioles

A

SMALL, branching vessels with HIGH resistance

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3
Q

How can arterioles control blood pressure?

A

by changing their diameter, thus resistance

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4
Q

Define capillaries

A

the site of exchange between blood & tissue

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5
Q

Define venules

A

small converging vessels

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6
Q

Where do WBCs exit?

A

venules

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7
Q

Define veins

A

large converging vessels that take blood TO the heart

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8
Q

Where is 2/3 of the blood held?

A

within the veins

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9
Q

Where does gas exchange occur, thus causing the blood to become deoxygenated?

A

capillaries

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10
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

RBCs

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11
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

WBCs

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12
Q

What transports oxygen & carbon dioxide?

A

RBCs (erythrocytes)

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13
Q

What defends the body against pathogens?

A

WBCs (leukocytes)

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14
Q

What are important in blood clotting?

A

platelets

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15
Q

What is serum?

A

plasma without proteins

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16
Q

What is the most important protein in plasma?

A

albumin

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17
Q

What is blood flow driven by?

A

blood pressure
moves from high to low pressure

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18
Q

Where is there SERIES flow?

A

within the cardiovascular system

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19
Q

Where is there PARALLEL flow?

A

within one specific circuit

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20
Q

How does O2 get into the blood?

A

through the pulmonary circuit (in capillaries)
O2 diffuses from alveoli into the blood

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21
Q

What side of the heart carries OXYGENATED blood?

A

left

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22
Q

What side of the heart carries DEOXYGENATED blood?

A

right

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23
Q

What causes valves to open?

A

pressure change

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24
Q

What do valves do?

A

prevent back flow of blood

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25
Q

What do AV valves have that semilunar valves don’t?

A

chorde tendineae

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26
Q

What cells provide the rhythm to heartbeat?

A

pacemaker cells

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27
Q

What conduct the action potentials initiated by pacemaker cells?

A

conduction fibers

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28
Q

Which node is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA node

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29
Q

Which node has a FAST firing rate?

A

sinoatrial (SA) node

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30
Q

Which node has a SLOW firing rate?

A

atrioventricular (AV) node

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31
Q

Where is the sinoatrial (SA) node found?

A

in the RIGHT atrium

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32
Q

Where is the atrioventricular (AV) node found?

A

between the ventricle & atrium

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33
Q

A gap junction is used for what?

A

electrical coupling

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34
Q

What makes up intercalated disks?

A

desmosomes

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35
Q

Intercalated disks are used for what?

A

resisting mechanical stress

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36
Q

What causes the slow firing rate of the AV node?

A

AV nodal delay

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37
Q

Do the ventricles or the atria contract first?

A

atria

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38
Q

Removal of what from the cytosol allows cardiac muscle to relax?

A

calcium

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39
Q

A slowed conduction through the AV node would result in what?

A

2nd degree heart block

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40
Q

A loss of conduction through the AV nodes would result in what?

A

3rd degree heart block

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41
Q

When atrial & ventricular contractions become independent, what kind of heart block is that?

A

3rd degree heart block

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42
Q

Extra systole is caused by what?

A

a premature atrial contraction (PAC)

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43
Q

Define systole

A

ventricular CONTRACTION

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44
Q

Define diastole

A

ventricular RELAXATION

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45
Q

When do AV valves open?

A

when ATRIAL pressure is GREATER than ventricular pressure

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46
Q

When do semilunar valves open?

A

when VENTRICULAR pressure is GREATER than arterial pressure

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47
Q

What phase of the cardiac cycle does aortic pressure change?

A

phase 3 (ventricular ejection)

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48
Q

During what phases of the cardiac cycle is ventricular volume CONSTANT?

A

phase 2 (ventricular contraction)
phase 4 (ventricular relaxation)

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49
Q

What causes the dicrotic notch during aortic diastole?

A

back flow of blood causing an increase in pressure

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50
Q

During aortic diastole how do the aortic valves behave?

A

they are closed

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51
Q

During aortic systole how do the aortic valves behave?

A

they are open

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52
Q

What is the lowest pressure?

A

diastolic pressure

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53
Q

What is the highest pressure?

A

systolic pressure

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54
Q

Define EDV

A

end diastolic volume
the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole

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55
Q

Define ESV

A

end systolic volume
the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of systole

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56
Q

How can you calculate stroke volume?

A

EDV - ESV

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57
Q

Define SV

A

stroke volume
the volume of blood ejected from the ventricle with each beat

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58
Q

Define EF

A

ejection fraction
fraction of EDV ejected during a heart beat

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59
Q

How do you calculate ejection fraction (EF)?

A

SV / EDV
found as a percent!

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60
Q

What does ejection fraction (EF) reflect?

A

cardiac function

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61
Q

What is the normal range for ejection fraction (EF)?

A

50% - 70%

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62
Q

What causes the first (soft) thump of the heart beat?

A

AV valves closing

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63
Q

What causes the second (loud) thump of the heart beat?

A

semilunar valves closing

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64
Q

What phases of the cardiac cycle can you hear heart beats?

A

phases 2 & 4

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65
Q

Define CO

A

cardiac output
the volume of blood pumped from the heart per MINUTE

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66
Q

How do you calculate CO (cardiac output)?

A

SV x HR
measured in L/min
or mean arterial pressure/total resistance

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67
Q

How can you control cardiac output?

A

regulate HR and SV

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68
Q

How can the sympathetic nervous system affect CO?

A
  1. increase sympathetic activity
  2. epi binds to B1 receptors in SA node
  3. increase opening of Ca2+ & Na+ channels
  4. increase rate of depolarization
  5. increase HR & CO
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69
Q

How can the parasympathetic nervous system affect CO?

A
  1. increase parasympathetic activity
  2. norepi or acetylcholine bind to muscarinic receptors in SA node
  3. open K+ channels & close Ca2+ channels
  4. decrease rate of depolarization
  5. decrease HR & CO
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70
Q

What hormones can increase CO?

A

epinephrine & glucagon increase HR & CO

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71
Q

What primary factors affect SV?

A
  1. ventricular contractility
  2. EDV (preload)
  3. afterload (increasing this decreases SV)
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72
Q

What factors affect EDV (preload)?

A
  1. filling time
  2. atrial pressure
  3. venous pressure
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73
Q

What factors affect afterload?

A
  1. blood pressure in aorta during ejection
  2. aortic valvlar stenosis
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74
Q

What does increasing afterload cause on SV?

A

increasing afterload, increases resistance, DECREASES stroke volume

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75
Q

The circulatory system is what kind of system?

A

a closed system

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76
Q

What is the typical mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A

93 mm Hg

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77
Q

What is the typical mean central venous pressure (CVP)?

A

0 mm Hg

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78
Q

Which circuit, systematic or pulmonary, has the greatest resistance?

A

systematic

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79
Q

What is the biggest effector of resistance?

A

RADIUS

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80
Q

Define vasoconstriction

A

decreased radius
thus increased resistance

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81
Q

Define vasodilation

A

increased radius
thus decreased resistance

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82
Q

In the vessel wall, what do endothelial cells do?

A

line inner layer of blood vessels

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83
Q

In the vessel wall, what does smooth muscle do?

A

contract or relax to change blood flow

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84
Q

In the vessel wall, what does connective tissue do?

A

line the outside of blood vessels

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85
Q

What determines systolic pressure?

A

elastic arteries

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86
Q

What determine diastolic pressure & tissue perfusion?

A

arterioles

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87
Q

What are the properties of elastic arteries?

A

high elasticity
low compliance

88
Q

How do you calculate compliance?

A

change in volume / change in pressure

89
Q

The heart is what kind of pump?

A

discontinuous pump

90
Q

The role of elastic artery is what?

A

hydraulic filter
expand as blood enters then recoils during diastole

91
Q

Define compliance

A

how well something can stretch

92
Q

Define elasticity

A

how well something can recoil after being stretched

93
Q

How are compliance & elasticity related?

A

inversely

94
Q

What can affect pulse pressure?

A

SV and compliance

95
Q

Which arm is the best to use when measuring blood pressure?

A

left arm

96
Q

What is the first sound, during compression, that you hear when manually taking blood pressure?

A

systolic pressure

97
Q

What is the second sound, after release, that you hear when manually taking blood pressure?

A

diastolic pressure

98
Q

What serve for regional blood flow?

A

arterioles

99
Q

High metabolic activity (large amounts of metabolic byproducts) causes what?

A

vasodilation

100
Q

What are the metabolic factors?

A

CO2
K+
H2
organic acids

101
Q

Define active hyperemia

A

increases blood flow in response to increased metabolic activity

102
Q

Define reactive hyperemia

A

increased blood flow in response to a pervious reduction in blood flow
(blockage then blockage released)

103
Q

What does an increase in transmural pressure cause in blood vessels?

A

vasoconstriction

104
Q

Stretch of a vessel induces what?

A

contraction

105
Q

What happens to blood vessels during exercise?

A

vasodilation

106
Q

In order to cause vasoconstriction in smooth muscle, what does norepi bind to?

A

alpha adrenergic receptors

107
Q

What happens to blood vessels when alpha adrenergic receptors get bound to?

A

vasoconstriction

108
Q

What happens to blood vessels when beta 2 receptors get bound to?

A

vasodilation

109
Q

What releases epinephrine?

A

adrenal medulla

110
Q

What releases vasopressin?

A

posterior pituitary

111
Q

What does vasopressin cause?

A

vasoconstriction

112
Q

What does angiotensin II cause?

A

vasoconstriction

113
Q

Define continuous capillaries

A

SMALL gaps between endothelial cells

114
Q

Define fenestrated capillaries

A

LARGE gaps between endothelial cells that form fenestrations

115
Q

Define discontinuous capillaries

A

FULL gaps between the basal membranes of endothelial cells

116
Q

What kind of capillary is most common?

A

continuous

117
Q

How do gasses & lipophilic molecules move across capillaries?

A

free diffusion

118
Q

How do small lipophobic solutes move across capillaries?

A

pass through cleft or cell-cell junction

119
Q

How do large lipophobic solutes move across capillaries?

A

transcytosis (bound to transport vesicles)

120
Q

What pressures pull H2O in (absorption)?

A

capillary osmotic & interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressures

121
Q

What pressures force H2O out (filtration)?

A

capillary hydrostatic & interstitial fluid osmotic pressures

122
Q

Define hydrostatic pressure

A

the pressure of fluid exerted against capillary wall

123
Q

Where does filtration occur?

A

arterioles, capillary, & venuoles

124
Q

When does absorption occur?

A

immediately after a hemorrhage or arteriolar constriction in capillaries

125
Q

What do venules do?

A

connect capillaries to veins

126
Q

Veins function as a blood reservoir, which means…?

A

they expand with little pressure change

127
Q

Do veins or arteries have higher compliance?

A

veins
arteries have higher elasticity

128
Q

When skeletal muscles contract, what happens to veins?

A

veins get squeezed which increases their pressure & sends blood towards the heart

129
Q

How does inspiration affect venous pressure & return?

A

decreases pressure in thoracic cavity
increases pressure in abdominal cavity
increases venous pressure
increase venous return

130
Q

How does increasing venomotor tone (through sympathetic stimulation) affect venous compliance, pressure, & return?

A

increasing venomotor tone, decreases compliance, increases pressure & return

131
Q

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

A

to collect & return things to circulation
act as a defense system against foreign bodies

132
Q

What are the determinants of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A

HR, SV, resistance

133
Q

Define HYPOtension

A

inadequate blood flow

134
Q

Define HYPERtension

A

too much blood flow
is a stressor for heart & blood vessels

135
Q

During hypotension, how does MAP compare to normal?

A

it is LESS than normal

136
Q

During hypertension, how does MAP compare to normal?

A

it is MORE than normal

137
Q

Long-term regulation of MAP regulates what?

A

blood volume

138
Q

Short-term regulation of MAP regulates what?

A

CO & resistance

139
Q

Define external respiration

A

exchange of O2 & CO2 between the atmosphere & body tissues

140
Q

Define internal respiration

A

use of O2 in mitochondria to produce CO2

141
Q

What zone is there no gas exchange?

A

conducting zone

142
Q

What is the purpose of the conducting zone?

A

functions as a “dead space”
purpose is to deliver air

143
Q

What zone is there gas exchange?

A

respiratory zone

144
Q

What are the structures of the thoracic cavity?

A

lungs, chest wall, intrapleural space

145
Q

What are the bones in the chest wall?

A

rib cage, sternum, thoracic vertebrae

146
Q

What are the respiratory muscles in the chest wall?

A

internal & external intercostals, diaphragm

147
Q

Elastic forces of the lungs & chest wall work to do what?

A

EXPAND the chest wall & collapse the lung

148
Q

At the end of exhalation, what is the intrapleural space pressure?

A

-4 mm Hg

149
Q

During a pneumothorax, what is the intrapleural pressure?

A

0 mm Hg

150
Q

At the end of exhalation, what is the atmospheric pressure?

A

0 mm Hg

151
Q

At the end of exhalation, what is the intra-alveolar pressure?

A

0 mm Hg

152
Q

At the end of exhalation, what is the transpulmonary pressure?

A

4 mm Hg

153
Q

How do alveolar pressure & atmospheric pressure compare during inspiration?

A

atmospheric pressure is GREATER than alveolar pressure

154
Q

How do alveolar pressure & atmospheric pressure compare during expiration?

A

atmospheric pressure is LESS than alveolar pressure

155
Q

What alters the driving force of airflow?

A

changes in alveolar pressure

156
Q

Greater surface tension in alveoli creates higher resistance to what?

A

alveolar expansion

157
Q

What 2 factors affect surface tension?

A

surfactant & alveolar size

158
Q

Smaller alveoli have more of what compared to larger alveoli?

A

more surface tension, thus more surfactant to decrease the surface tension & even out the pressure

159
Q

Why is total resistance in small airways lower?

A

because they run in parallel

160
Q

Which airway generations have higher resistance?

A

first 8 generations, larger airways

161
Q

How does FEV1 / FVC look for obstructive diseases?

A

lower FEV1 / FVC due to restricted expiration
below 80%

162
Q

How does FEV1 / FVC look for restrictive diseases?

A

same or increased as FEV1 can be normal but FVC is DECREASED
above 80%

163
Q

Example of obstructive disease

A

COPD or asthma

164
Q

Example of restrictive disease

A

fibrosis

165
Q

What is the normal FEV1 / FVC?

A

80%

166
Q

What is minute volume?

A

the total amount of air that flows in & out within a minute

167
Q

How do you calculate minute volume (MV)?

A

tidal volume (TV) x breaths per min

168
Q

Define alveolar ventilation

A

the amount of fresh air that enters the alveoli each minute
OR
volume of air reaching gas exchange areas per minute

169
Q

How do you calculate alveolar ventilation (Va)?

A

breaths per min x (TV - dead space volume)

170
Q

How do you calculate partial pressure of a gas?

A

% gas x sum of total gases in mixture

171
Q

Which gas is more soluble in water than O2?

A

CO2

172
Q

What are the 2 places gas exchange occurs?

A

lungs & capillaries (terminally tissues)

173
Q

As the length of the capillary increases, what increases & what decreases?

A

PO2 increases
PCO2 decreases

174
Q

Which way does O2 diffuse?

A

from blood to cells

175
Q

Which way does CO2 diffuse?

A

from cells to blood

176
Q

What is gas diffusion rate determined by?

A

surface area
pressure gradient
membrane thickness (inversely related)

177
Q

PO2 in arterial blood

A

100 mm Hg

178
Q

PCO2 in arterial blood

A

40 mm Hg

179
Q

What relationship determines alveolar PO2 & PCO2?

A

rate of alveolar ventilation relative to the rate of O2 use & CO2 production

180
Q

Define hyperpnea

A

an increase in ventilation to meet an increase of metabolic demands
(body is using more O2, producing more CO2, increase ventilation, increase blood flow to accommodate)

181
Q

Define dyspnea

A

labored/ difficulty breathing

182
Q

Define apnea

A

temporary stop of breathing

183
Q

Define tachypnea

A

rapid, shallow breathing

184
Q

Define hypoxia

A

low O2 to the tissues

185
Q

Define hypoxemia

A

low O2 in the BLOOD

186
Q

Define hypercapnia

A

too much CO2 in the blood

187
Q

Define hypocapnia

A

low CO2 in the blood

188
Q

Define hyperventilation

A

ventilation exceeds CO2 production
arterial PO2 increases
arterial PCO2 decreases

189
Q

Define hypoventilation

A

CO2 production exceeds ventilation
arterial PO2 decreases
arterial PCO2 increases

190
Q

How is the majority of O2 transported by blood?

A

bound to Hb (hemoglobin)

191
Q

The amount of O2 dissolved in plasma is determined by what?

A

alveolar PO2

192
Q

Define oxyhemoglobin

A

O2 bound to all sites of Hb

193
Q

Define deoxyhemoglobin

A

O2 is not bound to all sites of Hb

194
Q

Define carbaminohemoglobin

A

CO2 bound to Hb

195
Q

Define carboxyhemoglobin

A

CO bound to Hb

196
Q

How many O2 binding sites does Hb have?

A

4

197
Q

Define capacity

A

the max amount something can hold
dependent on Hb concentration

198
Q

Define content

A

the actual amount something is holding

199
Q

How do you calculate blood oxygen content?

A

capacity x % (as a decimal) filled

200
Q

When completely saturated, how much O2 does 1g of Hb carry?

A

1.34 ml O2

201
Q

Normal blood Hb levels

A

12-16 g/dL

202
Q

In arterial blood, how saturated is Hb?

A

above 95%

203
Q

In venous blood, how saturated is Hb?

A

75%

204
Q

How is the affinity of Hb for O2 affected?

A

by temp, pH, PCO2

205
Q

What (other than increasing temp, PCO2 & decreasing pH) can lower O2 to Hb binding affinity?

A

presence of 2,3-DPG & CO

206
Q

How is the majority of CO2 transported in the blood?

A

through plasma bicarbonate

207
Q

What are the 2 respiratory control centers?

A

medulla & pons

208
Q

What part of the medulla controls expiration?

A

VRG (ventral respiratory group)

209
Q

What part of the medulla controls inspiration?

A

DRG (dorsal respiratory group)

210
Q

What in the pons regulates the medulla?

A

PRG (pontine respiratory group)

211
Q

What controls the firing pattern & frequency of the neurons of the VRG & DRG?

A

central pattern generator (CPG)

212
Q

What do peripheral chemoreceptors do?

A

respond directly & indirectly to PCO2 & PO2 changes

213
Q

What do central chemoreceptors do?

A

respond indirectly to PCO2 changes ONLY

214
Q

pH is inversely related to what?

A

PCO2

215
Q

PO2 in venous blood

A

40 mm Hg

216
Q

PCO2 in venous blood

A

46 mm Hg