Lecture Exam 2 - Chapter 16 and 19 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

Define: Sensation

A

conscious or subconscious awareness of a change in the environment (internal or external).

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2
Q

Define: Perception

A

conscious awareness and interpretation of sensation.

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3
Q

Know the order of events in the process of sensation.

A

1) Stimulation of a sensory receptor. 2) Transduction of the stimulus - the sensory receptor transduces (converts) the stimulus with a graded impulse. 3) Generation of a nerve impulse. 4) Integration of the sensory input (interpretation of information in the cerebral cortex).

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4
Q

Know the classification of sensory receptors according to: microscopic features.

A

1)Free nerve endingins - bare dendrites associated with pain, thermal, tickle, itch, and some touch 2)Encapsulated nerve endings - dendrites enclosed in a connective tissue capsule for pressure, vibration, and some touch sensation. 3) Separate cells - receptor cells synpase with first-order sensory neurons. Located in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and taste buds of the tongue.

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5
Q

Know the classification of sensory receptors according to: receptor location.

A

1) Exteroceptors - on or near external service of body and responsive to external signals. 2) Interoceptors - in blood vessels, visceral organs, muscles, nervous system - monitor internal environment. 3) Proprioceptors - in muscles, tendons and joints, inner ear - give information about the position of the body.

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6
Q

Know the classification of sensory receptors according to: type of stimulus detected.

A

1) Mechanoreceptors - detect stretch,touch, pressure, vibration. 2) Thermoreceptors - detect temperature. 3) Nociceptors - detect pain. 4) Photoreceptors - detect light. 5) Chemoreceptors - detect chemicals (taste, smell, blood acidity). 6) Osmoreceptors - detect osmotic pressure of body fluids.

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7
Q

Know how sensory receptors we have discussed fit into classifications.

A

Gustatory receptors, photoreceptors, and hair cells in the inner ear are all separe cells. hair cells in inner ear are proprioceptors and mechanoreceptors. gustatory receptors are exteroceptors and chemoreceptors photoreceptors are exteroceptors and photoreceptors.

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8
Q

Know the types of sensory receptors in the skin.

A

Nociceptors, Messiner corpuscles (corpuscle of touch), Type 1 mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc), Type 2 mechanoreceptor (Ruffini corpuscle), hair root plexus, and lamellated corpuscle.

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9
Q

Name 4 different types of somatic sensation.

A

Tactile Sensations (including pressure, itch and tickle Thermal sensations (hot and cold) Pain sensations (via nociceptors) Proprioceptive sensations

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10
Q

Are sensory receptors capable of adaptation? What does this mean?

A

Sensory receptors adapt - the receptor potential decreases with a constant stimulus. Adaptation may be: rapid e.g. receptors associated with touch, pressure slow e.g. receptors associated with pain, body position.

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11
Q

What is meant by the term “final common pathway”?

A

Lower motor neurons extend from the brain stem or spinal cord to skeletal muscles. These lower motor neurons are called the final common pathway because many regulatory mechanisms converge on these peripheral neurons.

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12
Q

What parts of the brain control body movement?

A

– motor portions of cerebral cortex • initiate & control precise movements – basal ganglia help establish muscle tone & integrate semivoluntary automatic movements – cerebellum helps make movements smooth & helps maintain posture & balance

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13
Q

What are the 4 neural circuits that participate in the control of movement?

A

Four distinct neural circuits (somatic motor pathways) participate in control of movement by providing input to lower motor neurons: – Local circuit neurons are located close to lower motor neuron cell bodies in the brain stem and spinal cord. – Local circuit neurons and lower motor neurons receive input from upper motor neurons. – Neurons of the basal ganglia provide input to upper motor neurons. – Cerebellar neurons also control activity of upper motor neurons.

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14
Q

Where are the basal nuclei and what are their roles in movement?

A

The basal nuclei are paired masses of gray matter in each cerebral hemisphere The circuit from the cerebral cortex to basal nuclei to thalamus to cortex seems to function in initiating and terminating movement. – basal nuclei also suppress unwanted movements – basal nuclei may influence aspects of cortical function including sensory, limbic, cognitive, and linguistic functions. • Damage to the basal nuclei results in uncontrollable, abnormal body movements, often accompanied by muscle rigidity and tremors. Control large automatic movements of skeletal muscles

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15
Q

What diseases are known to be the result of damage to the basal nuclei?

A

Parkinson disease and Huntington disease result from damage to the basal nuclei.

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16
Q

How does the cerebellum modulate movement?

A

The cerebellum is active in both learning and performing rapid, coordinated, highly skilled movements and in maintaining proper posture and equilibrium. • The four aspects of cerebellar function – monitoring intent for movement, – monitoring actual movement, – comparing intent with actual performance, and – sending out corrective signals • Damage to the cerebellum is evidenced by ataxia and intention tremors.

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17
Q

What area of the brain regulates sleep and wakefulness?

A

Sleep and wakefulness are integrative functions that are controlled by the reticular activating system. Arousal, or awakening from a sleep, involves increased activity of the RAS. When the RAS is activated, the cerebral cortex is also activated and arousal occurs. The result is a state of wakefulness called consciousness.

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18
Q

What is the difference between NREM and REM sleep? What happens in each of these sleep phases?

A

Normal sleep consists of two types: – non-rapid eye movement sleep (NREM) and – rapid eye movement sleep (REM)

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19
Q

How do you define learning?

A

Learning is the ability to acquire new knowledge or skills through instruction or experience.

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20
Q

How do you define memory? What are the differences between immediate, short-term and long-term memory?

A

Memory is the process by which that knowledge is retained over time. Memory occurs in stages over a period and is described as immediate memory, short term memory, or long term memory. – Immediate memory is the ability to recall for a few seconds. – Short-term memory lasts only seconds or hours and is the ability to recall bits of information; it is related to electrical and chemical events. – Long-term memory lasts from days to years and is related to anatomical and biochemical changes at synapses.

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21
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: amnesia

A

• Amnesia refers to the loss of memory • Anterograde amnesia is the loss of memory for events that occur after the trauma; the inability to form new memories. • Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memory for events that occurred before the trauma; the inability to recall past events.

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22
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: phantom pain

A

• Phantom pain is the sensations of pain in a limb that has been amputated. • Brain interprets nerve impulses arising in the remaining proximal portions of the sensory nerves as coming from the nonexistent (phantom) limb. • Another explanation is that the neurons in the brain that received input from the missing limbs are still active.

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23
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: spinal cord injury

A

Spinal cord injury can be due to damage in a number of ways e.g compression or transection. Location and extent of damage determines the type and degree of loss in neural abilities. Multiple causes e.g. tumor, herniated disc, clot, trauma.

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24
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: paralysis

A

Paralysis – monoplegia is paralysis of one limb only – diplegia is paralysis of both upper or both lower – hemiplegia is paralysis of one side – quadriplegia is paralysis of all four limbs

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25
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: cerebral palsy

A

• Loss of motor control and coordination • Damage to motor areas of the brain – infection of pregnant woman with rubella virus – radiation during fetal life – temporary lack of O2 during birth • Not a progressive disease, but irreversible

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26
Q

Know major features and potential causes of the following: Parkinson’s disease

A

• Parkinson’s disease is a progressive degeneration of CNS neurons of the basal nuclei region due to unknown causes that decreases dopamine neurotransmitter production. – Environmental toxins may be the cause in some cases • Neurons from the substantia nigra do not release enough dopamine onto basal nuclei – tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movement) or hypokinesia (decreasing range of movement) – may affect walking, speech, and facial expression

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27
Q

How is blood classified as a tissue?

A

liquid connective tissue

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28
Q

What are the transport functions of blood?

A

Transports oxygen to the cells of body and carbon dioxide from body cells to lungs. Carries nutrients to GI. Carries hormones from endocrine glands to target tissues. Transports heat to surface of skin to dissipate. Transports toxic substances to liver and waste products to kidneys, sweat glands. Transports immune cells to sites of injury or pathological invasion.

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29
Q

What are the regulatory functions of blood?

A

Helps maintain homeostasis of all body fluids. Helps regulate pH through buffers. Helps adjust body temperature. Helps maintain water content of cells by maintaining balance of dissolves ions and proteins.

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30
Q

What are the protective functions of blood?

A

Capacity to clot allows protection against excessive loss due to injury. White blood cell protect against disease - immune functions. White blood cells produce proteins such as antibodies, interferons and complement - all important in immunity.

31
Q

What is the pH of normal blood?

A

pH between 7.35-7.45.

32
Q

What is the blood volume of an average adult?

A

Blood volume 5-6 litres in average-sized adult. Represents about 8% of total body mass.

33
Q

What are the Components of Blood?

A

Blood consists of plasma and formed elements (cells and platelets).

34
Q

When blood is centrifuged what is present in the layer called the “buffy coat”?

A

Buffy coat = white blood cells and platelets

35
Q

What proportion of plasma is water?

A

91.5% water

36
Q

Name 3 major classes of plasma proteins and describe their functions.

A

Albumins - transport proteins for several steroid horomones and for fatty acids. Globulins - antibodies (immunoglobulins) help attack viruses and bacteria. Alpha and beta globulins transport iron, lipids, and fat-soluble vitamins. Fibrinogen - plays essential role in blood clotting

37
Q

What other solutes (besides the major classes of plasma proteins) are present in blood?

A

Electrolytes, nutrients, gases, regulatory substances, waste products

38
Q

What does the term hematocrit mean? Why is the hematocrit higher in men than in women?

A

Hematocrit of 45 means that 45% of the volume of blood is rbc’s. Normal range for females = 38-46% Normal range for males = 40 -54%

39
Q

Where are blood cells formed a) during development b) in the adult?

A

In early embryo - occurs in yolk sac. Later in development - occurs in liver, spleen, thymus and lymph nodes. Last 3 months before birth - red bone marrow primary site. After birth occurs in red bone marrow.

40
Q

Know all the details of the information present in Fig.19.3 - Origin, development, and structure of blood cells

A

Reference - Table 19.3

41
Q

What is a plurpotent stem cell?

A

These stem cells can develop (differentiate) into mature blood cell types.

42
Q

What are the two major lineages that differentiate from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells?

A

Myeloid stem cells. Lymphoid stem cells.

43
Q

What are progenitor cells?

A

Progenitor cells are formed from myeloid stem cells. Some progenitor cells are called CFU’s - colony forming units. CFU-E (produces rbc’s - erythrocytes) CFU-Meg (produces megakaryocytes - the precursors for platelets) CFU-GM (produces neutrophils and macrophages).

44
Q

What does CFU stand for?

A

Colony Forming Unit

45
Q

What cells are produced from CFU-Es, CFU-Megs and CFU-GM’s?

A

CFU-E (produces rbc’s - erythrocytes) CFU-Meg (produces megakaryocytes - the precursors for platelets) CFU-GM (produces neutrophils and macrophages).

46
Q

What is the name of a nucleated erythrocyte (RBC)?

A

Proerythroblasts from from the Myeloid stem cell. After they have finished synthasizing necessary proteins, they eject the nucleus to become reticulocytes and from there evolve into mature RBCs.

47
Q

What is the name of the precursor cell for platelets?

A

Megakaryocyte

48
Q

What is the name for a monocyte once it has migrated into tissue?

A

Monocytes become macrophages

49
Q

What is the name for a B-lymphocyte once it has migrated into tissue?

A

B-lymphocytes become plasma cells

50
Q

Know the function and site of production of: Erythropoietin.

A

Erythropoietin - increases no. of rbc’s Produced by kidney.

51
Q

Know the function and site of production of: Thrombopoietin.

A

Thrombopoietin - stimulate platelet (also called thrombocytes) formation from megakaryocytes. Produced by liver

52
Q

What is a cytokine?

A

Large class of small glycoproteins - originally identified for their roles as hematopoietic growth factors (stimulating wbc differentiation). Cytokines now known to regulate wide variety of cells. Particularly important in processes such as inflammation.

53
Q

Why do red blood cells contain hemoglobin? What is Hemoglobin?

A

Red blood cells contain hemoglobin to carry oxygen to the tissues. Hemoglobin consists of a protein called globin and a non-protein pigment called heme.

54
Q

What ion is responsible for combining with oxygen in the hemoglobin molecule?

A

Each heme ring contains an iron ion (Fe2+) Which can combine with one oxygen molecule. Since each hemoglobin molecule has 4 heme rings this means one hemoglobin molecule can carry 4 oxygen molecules in the blood.

55
Q

How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule carry?

A

4

56
Q

Why is the half-life of a red blood cell very short?

A

Since red blood cells have no nucleus they cannot repair themselves.

57
Q

Under what circumstances may we need to make more red blood cells than usual?

A

More red blood cells are made when low levels of oxygen are detected in blood e.g. at high altitude during anemia or lack of iron.

58
Q

How do white blood cells get to sites of injury?

A

Mechanism exists to attract immune cells to tissues - called chemo-attraction. Chemo-attraction mediated by class of cytokines called chemokines. As a result of chemokines being released in the tissue where there is injury or infection wbc’s attracted to the endothelial cell wall of the capillaries. The wbc’s stick to the wall of the capillary due to action of specialized proteins called adhesion molecules. Two important classes of adhesion molecules are integrins and selectins.

59
Q

What are platelets?

A

Megakaryoblasts transform into megakaryocytes which fragment. • Each fragment, enclosed by a piece of cell membrane, is a platelet (thrombocyte).

60
Q

What lineage do platelets differentiate from?

A

Thrombopoietin stimulates myeloid stem cells to produce platelets. • Myeloid stem cells develop into megakaryocyte-colonyforming cells that develop into megakaryoblasts (Figure 19.2). • Megakaryoblasts transform into megakaryocytes which fragment. • Each fragment, enclosed by a piece of cell membrane, is a platelet (thrombocyte).

61
Q

What cell is the precursor for platelets?

A

megakaryocytes

62
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Basically, when serum and plasma are separated from the blood, plasma still retains the fibrinogen that helps in clotting while serum is that part of the blood that remains after this fibrinogen is removed. Plasma makes up 55% of blood. Serum contain 6-8% of the proteins that make up blood. 1. Plasma is the part of the blood that contains both the serum and clotting factors. 2. Serum is the part of the blood that remains once the clotting factors like fibrin have been removed. 3. Plasma contains the clotting factors and water, while serum contains proteins like albumin and globulins

63
Q

What is hemostasis and how do platelets contribute to this process?

A

HEMOSTASIS (STOPPAGE OF BLEEDING) Platelets help stop blood loss from damaged vessels by forming a platelet plug. Their granules also contain chemicals that promote blood clotting.

64
Q

What is a blood clot?

A

clot is a gel consisting of a network of insoluble protein fibers (fibrin) in which formed elements of blood are trapped.

65
Q

What are the steps in platelet plug formation?

A

Steps in the process – (1) platelet adhesion (2) platelet release reaction (3) platelet aggregation

66
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in blood clotting?

A

• Normal clotting requires adequate vitamin K – fat soluble vitamin absorbed if lipids are present – absorption slowed if bile release is insufficient • Required for synthesis of 4 clotting factors by hepatocytes – factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X • Produced by bacteria in large intestine

67
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Function of RBCs

A

Hemoglobin within RBCs transports most of the oxygen and part of the carbon dioxide in the blood

68
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Function of WBCs or Leukocytes

A

Combat pathogens and other foreign substances that enter the body

69
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Neutrophils

A

Phagocytosis. Destruction of bacteria with lysozyme, defensins, and strong oxidants, such as superoxide anion, hydrogen peroxide, and hypochlorite anion. 60-70% of all WBCs

70
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Eosinophils

A

Combat the effects of histamine in allergic reactions, phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, and destroy certain parasitic worms. 2-4% of all WBCs

71
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Basophils

A

Liberate heparin, histamine, and serotonin in allergic reactions that intensify the overall inflammatory response 0.5-1% of all WBCs

72
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Lymphocytes (T-cells, B cells, and natural killer cells)

A

Mediate immune responses, including antigen-antibody reactions, B cells develop into plasma cells, which secrete antibodies. T cells attack invading viruses, cancer cells, and transplanted tissue cells. Natural killer cells attack a wide variety of infectious microbes and certain spontaneously arising tumor cells. 20-25% of all WBCs

73
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Monocytes

A

Phagocytosis (after transforming into fixed or wandering macrophages). 2-8% of all WBCs

74
Q

Know the information present in Table 19.3. Focus on the “Functions” column rather than the “Characteristics” column – Platelets (Thrombocytes)

A

Form platelet pluc in hemostasis; release chemicals that promote vascular spasm and blood clotting.