Lecture 8.1 highlights Flashcards

* = also MJ slide

1
Q

Vulvitis:
1) Reactive _____________ in response to exogenous stimulus.
2) List 5 sexually transmitted infections that can cause it.
3) What is 1 complication?

A

1) inflammation
2) HPV, HSV, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia, Treponema pallidum
3) Bartholin’s cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1) What condition is characterized by epithelial thickening and pruritis?
2) What condition involves Thinning and hardening of the epidermis?

A

1) Lichen Simplex Chronicus
2) Lichen Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Carcinoma of the Vulva: What are the 2 main categories? Which is more common?

A

1) HPV-related
2) Non-HPV related: more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Carcinoma of the Vulva:
What are the 2 categories of causes? Give an example of one of them and list its risk factors

A

1) HPV related (least common)
2) Non-HPV related: dVIN : differentiated vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
-Age (older) & H/o reactive epithelial changes (lichen sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Paget’s Disease of the Vulva: What are the 2 different locations of each? What are the risks?

A

1) Extramammary: vulva; usually no association w/ carcinoma
2) Breast: almost always associated w/ underlying carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vaginitis:
1) Is characterized by _______________-.
2) Often caused by _________________.
3) Can also be caused by _____________; when this is the cause, ____________ will be visible on microscopy.

A

1) Discharge (leukorrhea)
2) Candida albicans
3) Trichomonas vaginalis; Flagellated protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Malignant Neoplasms of the Vagina:
1) Which kind is described as a Vaginal epithelial neoplasia? [hint: almost always HPV-assoc.]
2) Which is rare and usually secondary to to diethylstilbestrol (DES)?
3) Who are Sarcoma Botryoides usually found in?

A

1) SCC
2) Clear Cell Adenocarcinoma
3) Children <5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Premenarchal:
1) What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding?
2) What are 2 other causes?

A

1) FB (foreign body)
2) -Sexual Abuse
-Precocious puberty (usually last stage of menarche)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Reproductive stage of life:
1) What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding?
2) What is another cause?

A

1) Pregnancy
- 1st trimester bleed
-2ND and 3rd trimester bleed
2) Abnormal uterine bleeding (PALM COEIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Post menopausal: MC cause of vaginal bleeding?

A

Vaginal atrophy + intercourse
(make sure to prove it’s not endometrial cancer/hyperplasia tho)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Average ages of menarche and menopause?

A

11; 51

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1) List potential causes of premenarchal bleeding
2) List 2 potential causes of reproductive stage bleeding
3) List 2 potential causes of postmenopausal bleeding

A

1) FB, sexual Abuse, precocious puberty (usually last stage of menarche)
2) Pregnancy (MC)
Abnormal uterine bleeding (PALM COEIN)
3) Vaginal atrophy + intercourse
-Endometrial cancer/ hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain the PALM COIEN mnemonic

A

Polyp: endometrial polyp
Adenomyosis: endometrial glands present in uterine musculature
Leiomyoma: “fibroid” noncancerous neoplasm
Malignancy: reproductive cancer
Coagulopathy: PT/INR, CBC
Ovulation dysfxn: FSH:LH imbalance
Idiopathic: ask about IUD
Endometrial (other): dx of exclusion
NOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vaginal atrophy?
1) Vaginal atrophy is associated with what 2 main things?
2) What 2 things are often pale and reduced in size?
3) What may be narrowed?
4) What happens to the vaginal walls?

A

1) Pale, dry, shiny vulvar tissue + loss of adipose tissue.
2) Prepuce and clitoris.
3) Introitus may narrowed .
4) Lack rugae and may be pale and/ or erythematous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2nd / 3rd Trimester Vaginal Bleeding: What are 3 causes? Specify if each is painful

A

1) Abruption: painful
2) Previa: painless
3) Uterine rupture: painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: there can be cases of abruption with no vaginal bleeding when placenta remains attached with hematoma forming behind it

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the 5 infections (all of which are often STD) that can cause cervicitis

A

1+2) Chlamydia & Neisseria gonorrhea
3) Trichomonas Vaginalis
4) HSV 2*
5) Certain HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

*Cervical Neoplasia:
1) What is causative?
2) What are the high risk types of this?

A

1) HPV
2) 16, 18, 31, 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What precedes cancer by years to decades?

A

SIL (Squamous intraepithelial lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Endometritis:
1) What are the most common causes of pelvic inflammatory disease?
2) What occurs during PID?
3) What are some other causes of endometritis?

A

1) Most common: N. gonorrhea or C. trich
2) Neutrophilic infiltrate in the superficial endometrium
3) Retained products of conception
Foreign body (IUD)
Ascending infection of GI tract flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1) Growth of endometrium into the myometrium is called what?
2) Endometrial glands and stroma located outside of the uterus are called what?

A

1) Adenomyosis
2) Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nonneoplastic Disorders of the Endometrium: What are 2 of these?

A

Adenomyosis and endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1) What is adenomyosis the growth of?
2) What is endometriosis?

A

1) Endometrium into the myometrium
2) Endometrial glands and stroma located outside of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false: Tissue is both displaced and abnormal in endometriosis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Regurgitation Theory of endometriosis? (most favored)

A

Menstrual backflow through fallopian tubes leads to implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

*Proliferative lesions: List 2 types

A

1) Endometrial Hyperplasia
2) Endometrial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*What results from unopposed endogenous or exogenous estrogen?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

*What type of carcinoma can cause post menopausal bleeding?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All causes of Endometrial Hyperplasia equate to ___________ exposure

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

*Endometrial Carcinoma: What are the 2 major types? Give the major points of each

A

1) Endometrioid carcinoma: estrogen excess
2) Serous carcinoma: TP53
-common Sx: most menopausal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Salpingitis:
1) What does it almost always result from?
2) What are the S/Sx?
3) What may it lead to increased risk of?

A

1) Infections resulting from PID (like G and C)
2) Fever, lower abdominal/pelvic pain, masses, distended tubes
3) Tubal ectopic or sterility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe the pathophys of PCOS in 5 steps

A

1) GnRH released rapidly and daily instead of cyclically
2) LH goes up and FSH goes down
3) Ovary makes more testosterone
4) Hirsutism and acne
5) Inhibited ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the genetic mechanism of PCOS appear to act upon in recent studies? Explain

A

Body’s insulin receptors
-phosphorylation > insulin resistance develops

34
Q

Ovarian tumors: Most common malignant type (90%) is what? What age group is it more common in?

A

Epithelium; >40

35
Q

Placenta stops growing at week ~_____

36
Q

What are 2 things that decrease SVR in pregnancy?

A

1) Progesterone
2) Placental growth

37
Q

Cardiovascular: Increase in Volume in pregnancy
1) What system further compensates for falling SVR?
2) When does it match the pace of falling SVR?

A

1) RAAS
2) After week 26

38
Q

What is most directly related to stroke volume?

39
Q

*Does increased blood volume have symptoms?

A

Yes
(more fluid leads to daytime pedal edema and nocturia)

40
Q

1) How much does the blood pressure change in pregnancy?
2) Why do we care?

A

1) Diastolic BP decreases beginning week 7 and reaches maximal decline of about 10mmHg by about week 26.
2) Bc we may misdiagnose hypotension.

41
Q

How much does HR increase in pregnancy?

A

By about 10-20 BPM over baseline

42
Q

*True or false: Mild anemia is common in pregnancy

43
Q

If anemia is normal in pregnancy, how low is too low?

A

Shouldn’t fall below 10.5

44
Q

Hypercoagubility:
*1) Estrogen regulates gene transcription in the liver, telling it to make more of which clotting factors and fewer what?
2) What does estrogen regulate? What does this tell them to do?

A

1) Factors 2, 7, 9, 10 and fewer protein C and S
2) Gene transcription in epithelial cells, telling them to make more fibrinogen!

45
Q

*1) What happens to creatinine in pregnancy?
2) What type of infection are pregnant pts more at risk for?

A

1) Decreased creatinine
2) UTI

46
Q

*List 3 GI changes that can occur in pregnancy

A

1) Constipation
2) GERD
3) Gallbladder disease

47
Q

*List 3 skin changes that can occur in pregnancy

A

1) Hyperpigmentation
2) Palmar erythema
3) Spider angiomata

48
Q

Weight gain in pregnancy should be due to what 4 things?

A

Amniotic fluid, placenta, fetus, maternal adipose stores

49
Q

*What are the 2 types of molar pregnancy?

A

1) Incomplete (partial) mole
2) Complete mole

50
Q

List 2 old teratogenic drugs

A

1) Thaliomide
2) Diethylstilbestrol

51
Q

Diethylstilbestrol led to the children of mothers who took it getting what?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

52
Q

1) What is an issue associated with Warfarin?
2) Give 3 examples

A

1) Unsafe in pregnancy
2) Brachydactyly; shortening of lower extremities; dots on growth plate (stippled epiphyses)

53
Q

List epileptic medications that are unsafe in pregnancy

A

1) Valproate
2) Phenytoin
3) Phenobarbital
4) Topiramate
5) Carbamazepine (not always stopped though)
6) Levetiracetam and Lamotrigine (must be monitored)

54
Q

1) What can ACE/ARB (for HTN) cause?
2) List 3 antibiotics that cannot be used in pregnancy
3) What acne med can cause teratomas?

A

1) Teratomas
2) Bactrim, Fluoroquinolone, Tetracycline
3) Isotretinoin

55
Q

During implantation, the trophoblast gives off the cytotrophoblast, which further gives off ________________ which “eats” its way into endometrium

A

synctiotrophoblast

56
Q

1) Define gestational HTN numerically
2) Define preeclampsia without
3) Preeclampsia: what is the ratio if positive?

A

1) 140/90 after wk 20
2) 140/90 after week 20 + proteinuria
3) Protein to creatinine ratio: positive if > 0.3
More than 300 mg protein on 24-hour collection

57
Q

How is preeclampsia with diagnosed?

A

Sustained readings of 160/110 + any one:
1) Platelets < 100
2) AST or ALT 2x UNL
3) RUQ or epigastric pain
4) Cr > 1.1 or 2x baseline
5) Pulmonary edema
6) HA or vision changes

58
Q

1) HELLP = Preeclampsia + what?
2) What is eclampsia?

A

1) Elevated Liver Enzymes AND Low Platelets
2) Preeclampsia + Seizure

59
Q

Alloimmunization: Fertilization between Rh-negative ______ and an Rh-positive __________

A

female; male

60
Q

In order for Mom’s immune system to become primed against Rhesus antigen, she must be ___________

61
Q

1) Alloimmunization can lead to what?
2) When do you give rhogam?
3) When does rhogam do its job?

A

1) Fetal anemia
2) If Dad is Rh positive or unknown
3) Before mom’s immune system ever recognizes the antigen cells

62
Q

*Define TORCH

A

Toxoplasmosis
“Other”
Syphilis
Rubella
CMV
HSV

63
Q

1) What are the most infectious stages of syphilis?
2) When would a fetus get it?

A

1) Primary and Secondary stages
2) Through placenta after 16 weeks

64
Q

Which condition has less of a TORCH presentation, because it’s usually contracted at delivery?

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

65
Q

Varicella: Is mom vaccinated or unvaccinated?

A

Mom is unvaccinated with no history of infxn

66
Q

What are the two main types of diabetes? (we are not talking abt diabetes insipidus here)

A

1) Diabetes Meletus
2) Gestational diabetes

67
Q

How is pregestational diabetes diagnosed?

A

HgbA1C obtained before conception that shows elevation

68
Q

*125

A

Post-prandial: Postprandial hyperglycemia and insulinemia
Pre-prandial: Pre-prandial hypoglycemia

70
Q

*Macrosomia is a potential complication of what?

A

Hyperglycemia in pregnancy

[Macrosomia = big baby]

71
Q

128

A

All diabetes in pregnancy:
Last 20 weeks
Increases risk of eclampsia spectrum, placental abruption, pre-term delivery
Cardiac defects

72
Q

129

A

Treat with glucagon to oppose insulin and dextrose to support baby while insulin levels are high

73
Q

Ectopic pregnancy
132

A

1) Chronic salpingitis with scarring is a major risk factor for tubal ectopic pregnancy.
2) Emergency: Rupture of an ectopic pregnancy may result in exsanguination and death.

74
Q

Breast cancer is most commonly detected by screening or by ____________ of a mass in younger women and in unscreened older women

75
Q

1) What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
2) What does it present as?
3) Does it change?

A

1) Fibroadenoma of the Breast
2) Solitary, discrete, movable masses
3) May enlarge late in menstrual cycle and during pregnancy

76
Q

The lifetime risk of developingbreastcancer for an American woman is 1 in ____

77
Q

*True or false: only small percentage of breast cancer is inherited.

78
Q

*About 12% of allbreastcancers are caused by identified germline mutations;___________ and _____________ genes account for one-half of the cases associated with single-gene mutations

A

BRCA1andBRCA2

79
Q

139*

A

Estrogen receptor (ER)
Progesterone receptor (PR)
Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER 2)

81
Q

What happens to each of the following cardiovascular factors in pregnancy?
1) Systemic vascular resistance
2) HR
3) Blood volume and preload

A

1) Goes DOWN
2) Goes UP (a little)
3) Blood volume goes UP, so Preload goes UP

82
Q

What happens to each of the following cardiovascular factors in pregnancy?
1) Stroke volume
2) Cardiac output
3) BP

A

1) Goes UP
2) Gradually goes UP
3) Falls to 26 weeks, then it gradually (and nearly) returns to baseline