Lecture 5.1 Highlights Flashcards

1
Q

What is one lab you should always measure the change of?

A

Hemoglobin

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2
Q

What leads to the release of unconjugated bilirubin? Why?

A

1) RBC lysing
2) The bili wasn’t able to be conjugated through normal delivery to the liver

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3
Q

Hemolysis leads to an increase in what? What should you check?

A

Check the reticulocyte count; it will be high in chronic blood loss

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4
Q

Intravascular and extravascular hemolysis both can cause increased ________________ and decreased __________

A

unconjugated bilirubin; haptoglobin

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5
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis:
1) What part of the RBC is defective?
2) What does this do to the cell?

A

1) Membrane
2) Spherical, non-deformable

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6
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis:
1) Is caused by mutations in either one of two proteins; what are they?
2) What do these mutations do?
3) What happens to affected RBCs?

A

1) Ankyrin or spectrin
2) Cytoplasm released until surface to volume ratio is decreased forming a sphere
3) Destroyed by macrophages in the spleen

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7
Q

How is hereditary spherocytosis (which causes extravascular hemolysis) treated?

A

Splenectomy

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8
Q

Sickle cell is caused by a single amino acid substitution leading to valine in place of glutamate at 6th amino acid position on the _____________

A

beta hemoglobin

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9
Q

Sickle cell causes Hg____ to be turned into Hg____

A

HgA; HgS

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10
Q

Sickle cell: Under _________ conditions, cells with this mutation undergo _____________ change, which is irreversible

A

hypoxic; sickled structural change

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11
Q

Sickle cell: Each sickle-forming episode leads to influx of calcium which leads to K and H20 loss and damages ____________

A

membrane skeleton

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12
Q

Sickled cells _____________ easily and become stuck in ______________

A

hemolyze; microvasculature

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13
Q

HgA and HgF: By _____________ of age gamma-globin is gradually replaced with beta-globin

A

six months

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14
Q

HgF is a combination of ______________ and alpha-globin

A

gamma-globin

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15
Q

When is the onset of sickle cell Sx?

A

6 months old

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16
Q

Sickle Cell vasoocclusive crises in body are characterized by what?

A

Pain

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17
Q

Thalassemias are disorders associated with what?

A

Imbalance in production of alpha or beta globin

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18
Q

Thalassemias causes the formation of hemoglobin molecules that have what?

A

An abnormal number of alpha or beta globins

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19
Q

Why are Thalassemias a problem?

A

The alternate hemoglobins do not bind oxygen efficiently and can be lethal

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of alpha thalassemia?

A

Deletion(s) of one or both alpha globin genes

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21
Q

There are _____ different genes for alpha globin, and thus _____ alleles

A

two; 4

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22
Q

1) What is the most common cause of beta thalassemia?
2) How many genes and alleles are involved?

A

1) Single-base pair substitutions that result in proteins that have either reduced activity, altered activity, or no activity at all
2) One gene with two alleles

23
Q

Beta Thalassemia:
Decreased ______________ production leads to in imbalance in globin synthesis and the precipitation of _______________.

A

beta-globin; excess chains

24
Q

Alpha chains don’t form their own tetramers; what do they do instead?

A

Accumulate in the cell and form a Heinz Body

25
Q

Beta thalassemia: patients suffer from _______________ due to dietary intake which cannot be accommodated by functional RBCs

A

iron overload

26
Q

1) Carriers of one beta-thalassemia allele are clinically well, and have what condition?
2) Who would have a different version of this condition?

A

1) Thalassemia minor
2) In regions of the world where beta-thalassemia is common (malaria belt) individuals may be homozygous recessive or compound heterozygotes for two different beta-thalassemia alleles and have thalassemia major

27
Q

What is a condition characterized by severe anemia and the need for lifelong medical management?

A

Beta thalassemia

28
Q

Beta thalassemia major: Prominent cheekbones and protrusion of upper jaw result from ______________________ in bones of skull and face

A

expansion of marrow cavity

29
Q

G6PD produces no symptoms until patients are exposed to environmental factors that increase what? Give examples

A

Oxidant stress (e.g., infectious agents, certain drugs and food, severe stress)

30
Q

1) What type of anemia is G6PD?
2) Who does it affect?

A

1) Hemolytic anemia
2) 1 in 10 Black males

31
Q

Peripheral blood smear shows RBC with precipitates of denatured globin, aka what?

A

Heinz bodies/ bite cells

32
Q

List 4 diagnostic criteria for iron deficiency anemia

A

1) Transferrin saturation low
2) Total iron-binding capacity HIGH
3) Ferritin low
4) Microcytic red cells

33
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease:
1) Inflammatory _________ increases hepatic _________
2) What does this block?
3) What else is occurring?
4) Will ferritin be high or low?

A

1) cytokines; hepcidin
2) Hepcidin blocks iron from being added to RBCs
3) Chronic inflammation blunts EPO synthesis
4) High

34
Q

There’s a high risk for folate deficiency in what two groups?

A

Poor nutrition and pregnant women

35
Q

B12 anemia is accompanied by __________ symptoms

A

neurologic

36
Q

B12 deficiency (megaloblastic): The anemia may be improved with the administration of folate, but what won’t?

A

Neurological symptoms will not, and may even worsen

37
Q

Aplastic Anemia:
1) What causes it?
2) What are half the cases?
3) What makes up the other half?
4) What are 3 Sx that can be seen in labs?

A

1) Suppression of multipotent myeloid stem cells
2) Idiopathic
3) Exposure [to myelotoxic agents]
4) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia

38
Q

Alpha thalassemia:
1) Once _______________ alpha-globin chains are lost, the cell experiences a vitally low amount of alpha-globin, so the remaining beta-globin pairs into a tetramer
2) This leads to formation of what in adults and what in infants?

A

1) Three or more
2) Its own tetramer beta-4 in adults, and gamma-4 in infants

39
Q

Alpha thalassemia: What do tetramer beta-4 and gamma-4 have in common?

A

Both have high affinity for oxygen, so they won’t let it go

40
Q

Give 2 examples of Alpha Thalassemia

A

1) Hb H (Beta 4) disease
2) Hydrops fetalis, Hb Bart’s (y4)

41
Q

True or false: Alpha chains don’t form their own tetramers

A

True; they accumulate in the cell and form a Heinz Body

42
Q

Beta Thalassemia pts suffer from ____________ overload due to dietary intake which cannot be accommodated by functional RBCs

43
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease
1) Iron is actually being _________ so ferritin is high
2) Therefore, iron is not _________ so TIBC is low
3) The MCV remains _________ and the cells are not hypochromic

A

1) stored
2) desired
3) normal

44
Q

1) What is bone marrow failure and pancytopenia caused by in aplastic anemia?
2) What are the two main causes?

A

1) Suppression of multipotent myeloid stem cells
2) Idiopathic + exposure

45
Q

List 3 Sx of aplastic anemia

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia

46
Q

Define polycythemia

A

Polycythemia (erythrocytosis): the result of an abnormal increase in red blood cell number

47
Q

Clonal proliferation of myeloid stem cells causes what?

A

Primary polycythemia (polycythemia vera)

48
Q

1) What hormone is involved with secondary polycythemia’s erythroid bone marrow hyperplasia?
2) What is usually the cause?
3) Give examples of causes

A

1) Erythropoietin
2) Prolonged hypoxia
3) Living at high altitudes, anoxia secondary to chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, renal carcinoma

49
Q

List 4 Sx of polycythemia vera

A

1) Hypertension
2) Dark red or flushed face
3) Headaches
4) Pruritis

50
Q

What is a risk of polycythemia vera?

A

Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT),

51
Q

Name something that causes lymphadenitis with the etiology of Bartonella hensale

A

Cat-Scratch Disease (most common in axilla and neck)

52
Q

What happens in leukemia?

A

Bone marrow is infiltrated with malignant cells

53
Q

Bleeding disorders:
1) TTP is caused by what?
2) What causes Hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

1) Acquired or inherited deficiencies of ADAMTS 13
2) Deficiencies of complement regulatory proteins