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Histology Exam 2 > Lecture 7:a.Hematopoiesis & Bone Marrow; b.Thymus > Flashcards

Lecture 7:a.Hematopoiesis & Bone Marrow; b.Thymus Flashcards

1
Q

Which organs are primary lymphoid organs (2)? What cells do they produce?

A
  • Thymus = T cells
  • Bone marrow = B cells
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2
Q

Which organs and tissue are secondary lymphoid organs and tissues (5)?

A
  • Diffuse lymphatic tissue (e.g. GALT)
  • Lymphatic nodules
  • tonsils
  • Lymph nodes
  • Spleen
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3
Q

Where are T cells found?

A

Thymus

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4
Q

Where are B cells found?

A

Bone marrow and gut associated lymphatic tissues (GALT) in humans

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5
Q

After birth, where does hemopoiesis occur?

A

occurs only in red bone marrow and lymphatic tissues

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6
Q

Explain the 3 phases/stages of fetal hemopoiesis

A
  • 1st phase: Embryonic yolk sac = formation of blood islands (RBCs only)
  • 2nd phase:liver: red and some WBCs
  • 3rd phase: Bone marrow = RBCs and WBCs, also spleen and lymphatic organs
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7
Q

What are the two types of bone marrow? Which one is active and inactive? What do they produce?

A
  • Red marrow = active, produce blood cells
  • Yellow marrow = inactive, produce fat cells
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8
Q

What makes up red marrow (3)?

A
  1. stroma (reticular cells) = produce fibers, contain fibroblasts and macrophages
  2. blood-forming cords (hematopoietic cord)
  3. endothelial-lined sinusoids (discontinuous capillaries)
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9
Q

Newborns have which type of bone marrow?

A

red

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10
Q

Where are lymphocytes formed?

A

formed in red bone marrow and in the lymphatic tissues

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11
Q

Explain steps of bone marrow aspiration(3)

A
  1. needle inserted into hip bone (preferred anatomical site)
  2. small amount of bone marrow obtained
  3. aspirate is spread on a glass slide
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12
Q

Explain steps of bone marrow core biopsy (3)

A
  1. intact bone marrow is obtained by a small incision in the skin
  2. biopsy needle is inserted into bone using a corkscrew movement to obtain a solid piece of bone marrow
  3. biopsy is used to diagnose and stage different types of cancer or monitor the results of chemotherapy
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13
Q

Which cells are the last cell capable of mitosis (endomitosis)?

A

Megakaryoblasts = chromosome replication

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14
Q

Under hormone stimulation by ______ causes a megakaryoblast to become a megakaryocyte (platelet-producing).

A

thrombopoietin

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15
Q

Where do platelets originate in adults?

A

red bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of mature megakaryocytes

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16
Q

List stages of erythrocyte lineage (erythropoiesis) (6)

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A
  1. Proerythroblast
  2. Basophilic erythroblast
  3. Polychromatophilic erythroblast (last mitosis)
  4. Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts aka normoblast
  5. Reticulocyte
  6. Erythrocyte
    “Powerful Businesses Pollute Our Reeling Environment”

All blasts are still mitotically active and can further differentiate

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17
Q

RBCs develop from the multipotential ______ stem cell in bone marrow under the influence of ____ and some cytokines.

A
  • myeloid
  • erythropoietin
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18
Q

What are the major changes during the process of erythrocyte maturation (6)?

A
  • Cell volume decreases
  • Nucleoli diminish in size until they become invisible under LM
  • Nuclear diameter decreases
  • Chromatin becomes increasingly dense = thickened and reduced in size and finally extruded from the cell
  • Cytoplasmic basophilia (ribosomes) decrease while acidophilia (hemoglobin) simultaneously increases
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19
Q

How many days does it take RBCs to develop?

A

7 days

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20
Q

How many days do RBCs circulate in the blood?

A

120 days

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21
Q

What occurs when a proerythroblast transitions to an erythrocyte (2)?

A
  1. increase in cytoplasmic hemoglobin concentration
  2. decrease in nuclear volume and an increase in chromatin condensation followed by extrusion of a pyknotic nucleus
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22
Q

Explain the process of a reticulocyte becoming a mature erythrocyte

A

Reticulocyte will leave the bone marrow, pass to bloodstream, lose its mitochondria and ribosomes within 1-2 days = becomes a mature erythrocyte

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23
Q

What are the possible pathological causes involving RBCs (4)?

A
  • anemia
  • thalassemia
  • miliary tuberculosis
  • cancers involving bone marrow (myelomas, leukemias, lymphomas) and chronic hypoxemia
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24
Q

What are the 5 stages of leukopoiesis?

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A
  1. Myeoblast
  2. Promyelocyte = largest cell, primary azurophilic granules only produced in this stage
  3. Myelocyte (neutrophilic,eosinophilic,basophilic) = primary (azurophilic) granules + secondary (specific) granules produced (1st time secondary granules are produced)
  4. Metamylocyte(only in neutrophils and eosinophils) = nucleus is kidney shaped
  5. Band cell = only in neutrophils

Mature granulocyte = 1st sign of the development of neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil

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25
Q

Where are monocytes produced?

A

in bone marrow from a biopotential stem cell

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26
Q

What is aplastic anemia also called?

A

hypocellular bone marrow

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27
Q

What is Aplastic Anemia (marked w/ pancytopenia)?

A

reduction in the # of erythrocytes, all WBCs, and platelets in blood circulation

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28
Q

What causes aplastic anemia (aka hypocellular bone marrow)?

A
  • Many cases are idopathic = unknown
  • Some can follow toxic exposure to chemotherapy drugs or to chemicals such as benzene, radiation, and infection with viral hepatitis
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29
Q

How is aplastic anemia (aka hypocellular bone marrow) treated?

A
  • bone marrow transplantation
  • anti-lymphocyte globulin (in idopathic cases)
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30
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A
  • primary lymphatic organ
  • educates thymocytes (before becoming T-cells)
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31
Q

What makes up the structure of the thymus?

A
  • poorly developed capsule
  • epithelioreticular cells (aka nurse cells) = responsible for development and maturation of T-cells
  • few fibers
  • No lymphatic nodules = no interaction with B cells
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32
Q

What is the function of Hassall’s corpuscle (thymic corpuscle)?

A

produce interleukins that function in differentiation and education of T cells

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33
Q

How do mature T cells (CD8+ and CD4+) leave the cortex?

A

through postcapillary venules in medulla and enter the blood circulation

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34
Q

What is DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

an inherited immunodeficiency disease

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35
Q

What causes DiGeorge Syndrome?

A
  • the cortical epithelial (epithelioreticular) cells did not develop = thymus is underdeveloped = no T cell education b/c lack of epithelioreticular cells
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36
Q

What is the result of DiGeorge Syndrome?

A
  • lack of cell-mediated immunity (low T cell count)
  • loss of parathyroid gland and cardiac abnormalities
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37
Q

Identify the cell circled

A

megakaryocyte

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38
Q

Identify the structure that the arrow is pointing to

A

hemapoietic cords

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39
Q

Identify cell #1

A

megakaryocyte

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40
Q

Identify cell #2

A

adipocyte

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41
Q

What structure is #3 and #4?

A

sinusoid capillary

42
Q

What cell is #1?

A

promyelocyte

43
Q

What cell is #2?

A

neutrophilic myelocyte

44
Q

Identify cell #4 and #5

A

neutrophilic metamyelocyte

45
Q

Identify cell #6 and #7

A

orthochromatic erythroblast

46
Q

Identify the cell labelled as #8

A

mature segmented neutrophil

47
Q

Identify the cell labelled as #9

A

band cell (neutrophil)

48
Q

Identify cell #1

A

eosinophilic metamyelocyte

49
Q

What structure is #1?

50
Q

What structure is labelled as #2?

51
Q

Identify #1

A

orthochromatic erythroblast (aka normoblast)

52
Q

Identify #2

A

band cell (neutrophil)

53
Q

Identify #3

A

mature neutrophil

54
Q

Identify #4

A

Neutrophilic metamyelocytes

55
Q

Identify #5

A

neutrophilic metamyelocytes

56
Q

Identify #6

A

neutrophilic myelocyte

57
Q

Identify #7

A

neutrophilic metamyelocyte

58
Q

What cell is #1 pointing to?

A

late polychromatic erythroblast

59
Q

What cell is #2 pointing to?

A

eosinophilic myelocyte

60
Q

What cell is #3 pointing to (blue arrow)?

A

late neutrophilic myelocyte

61
Q

Identify #4

A

orthochromatic erythroblast (aka normoblast)

62
Q

What cell is #5?

A

band cell (neutrophil)

63
Q

What cell is #6?

A

polychromatic erythroblast

64
Q

Identify cell #1

A

polychromatic erythroblast

65
Q

Identify cell #2

A

late polychromatic erythroblast

66
Q

Identify cell #3 (bright pink arrow)

A

polychromatic erythroblast

67
Q

Identify cell #4

A

orthochromatic erythroblast

68
Q

What cell is #1 (pink arrow)?

A

basophilic erythroblast

69
Q

What cell is #2 (blue arrow) ?

A

promyelocyte

70
Q

What cell is #3?

A

neutrophilic myelocyte

71
Q

What cell is #4?

A

neutrophilic myelocyte

72
Q

What type of cell is #1?

A

thymic (medullary) epithelioreticular cell

73
Q

What structure is #2?

A

Hassall’s corpuscle

74
Q

What cell is #3?

A

neutrophilic myelocyte

75
Q

What cell is #4?

A

neutrophilic metamyelocyte

76
Q

What cell is #5?

A

band cell (neutrophilic)

77
Q

What cell is #6?

A

mature neutrophil

78
Q

What cell is #7?

A

promyelocyte

79
Q

What structure is #1?

80
Q

What are the structures labelled as #2?

81
Q

What structures are labelled as #3?

82
Q

What structure is #4?

A

thymic corpuscle

83
Q

What structure is #5?

A

Hassall’s corpuscle

84
Q

What cell is #1?

A

neutrophilic series

85
Q

What cell is #2?

A

eosinophilic myelocyte = very pink granules

86
Q

What cells are #3?

87
Q

What cell is #4?

A

metamyelocyte

88
Q

What cell is #5?

A

band cell (neutrophil)

89
Q

What structure is #1?

90
Q

What structure is #2?

91
Q

What structure is #3?

92
Q

What structure is #4?

A

blood vessel

93
Q

What structure is #5?

A
  • Hassall’s corpuscle
  • in medulla of thymus
  • unique to thymus
94
Q

What is a neutrophilic myelocyte?

A

the first sign of the development of a specific type of granulocyte series = neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic

95
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types is responsible for the maturation and development of thymocytes?
    a. Reticulocytes
    b. Epithelioreticular cells
    c. Fibroblasts
    d. Macrophages
A

b. Epithelioreticular cells

96
Q
  1. Identify the cell:
    a. Neutrophilic myelocyte
    b. Basophilic erythroblast
    c. Neutrophilic metamyelocyte
    d. Basophilic myelocyte
A

c. Neutrophilic metamyelocyte

97
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about the maturation of erythrocytes?
    a. Decrease of cytoplasmic acidophilia & increase in cytoplasmic basophilia
    b. Reduction in number of azurophilic granules & increase in nuclear volume
    c. Increase of cytoplasmic RNA & decrease in cytoplasmic hemoglobin
    d. Decrease in cytoplasmic RNA & increase in cytoplasmic acidophilia
A

d. Decrease in cytoplasmic RNA & increase in cytoplasmic acidophilia

98
Q
  1. Which cell type, involved in the stages of erythropoiesis, marks the final stage of maturation in which the nucleus is still present?
    a. Proerythroblast
    b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    c. Polychromatic erythroblast
    d. Reticulocyte
A

b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast

99
Q
  1. Which feature distinguishes myelocytes from promyelocytes?
    a. Specific granules
    b. Lobulated nucleus
    c. Azurophilic granules
    d. Basophilic cytoplasm
A

a. Specific granules

100
Q
  1. Identify the cell:
    a. Band neutrophil
    b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast (normoblast)
    c. Basophilic erythroblast
    d. Neutrophilic myelocyte
A

c. Basophilic erythroblast

101
Q
  1. Identify the cell:
    a. Band neutrophil
    b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast (normoblast)
    c. Basophilic erythroblast
    d. Neutrophilic myelocyte
A

b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast (normoblast)

Histology Exam 2 (8 decks)

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