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Histology Exam 2 > Lecture 6: Blood > Flashcards

Lecture 6: Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells are permanent residents in CT proper?

A

Fibroblasts

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2
Q

Which cells are found in specialized CT? (3)

A
  • Macrophages
  • Adipose cells
  • Mast cells
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3
Q

Which cells are found in embryonic CT?

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

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4
Q

Which wandering/transient cells migrated from the blood-specialized CT? (6)

A
  • Lymphocytes
  • Plasma cells (mature B-cells)
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
  • Monocytes
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5
Q

What did macrophages originate from?

A
  • Originated from the blood as monocytes which migrated to tissues
  • macrophages/monocytes = know pair
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6
Q

______ are functionally related to ______ and both are derived from the same blood hematopoietic stem cell precursor

A

Mast cells/basophils = know pair

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7
Q

The blood consists of which types of cells (3)?

A
  • Erythrocytes = RBCs
  • Leukocytes = WBCs
  • Platelets = thrombocytes
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8
Q

Which portion of blood consists of clotting factors?

A

plasma

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9
Q

What makes up plasma and what are their functions (3)?

A
  • Albumin (protein) = maintains osmotic pressure
  • Globulins = non-immune and immunoglobulins IgG (most abundant), IgA (mucosal), IgD, IgE (allergies/helminths), IgM (1st made)
  • Fibrinogen = blood coagulation
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10
Q

When blood is placed in a tube and put through a centrifuge, what are the 3 layers that it separates into?

A
  1. Plasma: protein and clotting factors = 50% of the sample
  2. Buffy coat: leukocytes (WBCs) + platelets= 1% of sample
  3. Erythrocytes (RBCs) = 40% of sample
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11
Q

Do males or females have more blood?

A

Males > Females

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12
Q

When blood is removed without anticoagulants, what 2 layers are the result?

A

1. Serum = plasma that does NOT have fibrinogen (clotting factor)
2. Blood clot = fibrinogen (clotting factor) + blood cells

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13
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

The volume of packed erythrocytes in a sample of blood

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14
Q

A normal hematocrit for males is ____%.

A

39 - 50%

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15
Q

A normal hematocrit for females is ____%

A

35 - 45%

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16
Q

What is the thin layer of leukocytes called that is between the sedimented erythrocytes and the supernatant light-colored plasma?

A

buffy coat

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17
Q

What are the anticoagulants used when blood is collected (2)?

A
  • sodium citrate
  • heparin
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18
Q

Serum is a plasma that lacks what?

A

lacks coagulation factors such as fibrinogen

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19
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A
  • assures that the correct proportion of blood to tissue fluid volume
  • pulls fluid into blood where protein concentration is high = fluid wants to dilute the blood
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20
Q

What happens if albumin leaks out of the blood vessels into the loose CT (or is lost from blood to urine)?

A
  • colloid osmotic pressure of the blood decreases and fluid accumulates in the tissues = fluid does not want to move into blood with low concentration
  • often manifested in swelling of ankles = edema
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21
Q

What is blood stained with?

A

Wright’s stain

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22
Q

What structures do basic dyes stain (3)?

A
  • nuclei
  • granules of basophils
  • cytoplasmic RNA
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23
Q

What structures do acidic dyes stain (2)?

A
  • erythrocytes = stain pink b/c no nuclei
  • granules of eosinophils
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24
Q

Erythrocytes are _________ which means that they do not have a nucleus.

A

anucleate

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25
Q

What do erythrocytes contain?

A

hemoglobin = protein that binds oxygen and carbon dioxide

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26
Q

What is the shape of erythrocytes

A

biconcave discs

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27
Q

Why do erythrocytes stain strongly with eosin? What color do they stain?

A
  • stain strongly due to high concentration of hemoglobin
  • stain pink
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28
Q

How many days do erythrocytes circulate in the blood?

A

120 days

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29
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes?

A

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide due to hemoglobin

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30
Q

Why is the disc shape of erythrocytes better than any other cell shape?

A
  • increase surface area = more area to bind O2 and CO2
  • facilities gas exchange
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31
Q

Which type of hemoglobin is more prevalent in adults?

A
  • HbA = 96%
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32
Q

Which type of hemoglobin is the main type in a fetus?

A
  • HbF
  • ~<1% in adults
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33
Q

How is sickle cell disease caused?

A
  • single point mutation in the gene that encodes beta-globin chain of hemoglobin A (HbA)
  • sickle hemoglobin = HbS
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34
Q

What is the function of spectrin?

A

cross link actin filaments with each other

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35
Q

What are peripheral membrane proteins? (1)

(Erythrocyte membrane organization)

A
  • Spectrin = they are organized into a hexagonal lattice network composed of cytoskeleton proteins
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36
Q

What are integral membrane proteins? (2)

(Erythrocyte membrane organization)

A
  • (Glycophorin and Band 3) have attached antigens: A, B, or 0 (glycophorins and glycolipids) = determine blood groups
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37
Q

What causes Jaundice and what is the result?

A
  • excessive breakdown of RBCs
  • excess of the pigment bilirubin
  • yellowing of skin or the sclera
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38
Q

What causes hereditary spherocytosis? What is its shape?

A
  • mutation of proteins in ankyrin complex
  • spherical shape
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39
Q

What causes hereditary elliptocytosis? What is its shape?

A
  • mutation of spectrin molecules
  • elliptical shape
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40
Q

Which type of leukocytes (1) contain primary (azurophilic) and secondary (specific) granules?

A

granulocytes

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41
Q

Which type of leukocytes (1) contain only primary (azurophilic) granules?

A

agranulocytes

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42
Q

Which type of leukocytes (3) are granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
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43
Q

Which type of leukocytes (2) are agranulocytes?

A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
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44
Q

Which WBC is the most abundant?

A

neutrophils

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45
Q

How many hours do neutrophils circulate in the blood for?

A

6-10 hours

46
Q

Which WBC is the first line of defense against bacterial infections (innate immunity)?

A

neutrophils

47
Q

Which of the following cell population are the only ones that can recirculate in the blood?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes

A

D

48
Q

Neutrophils contain _____ nucleus. They are often called ______ cells.

A
  • multilobe
  • polymorphonuclear
49
Q

What represents the 2nd X chromosome of the female?

A

Barr body = inactive X chromosome

50
Q

Why is the 2nd X chromosome inactivated? What is it called?

A
  • prevents double dose (comparing with males) of phenotypic attributes encoded by X chromosome
  • repressed X chromosome = Barr body
51
Q

Explain the steps of neutrophil migration from the blood to tissue (3)

A
  1. Rolling: circulating neutrophils interact with endothelium through their adhesion molecules (integrin and s-Le carbohydrate on neutrophils)
  2. Adhesion: adhesion molecules on endothelium bind to ICAM-1 on endothelial cells
  3. Migration: neutrophils extend pseudopods and migrate through previously opened junctions by histamine and heparin released from mast cells
52
Q

When at the site of injury, what is the action of Neutrophils?

A
  1. Neutrophil recognizes foreign substance (e.g. bacteria) and phagocytes it
  2. Specific and azurophilic granules release enzymes and digest foreign materials
  3. Most neutrophils die and together with dead bacteria accumulate as pus
53
Q

Lysosomes are which type of granules?

A

primary (azurophilic)

54
Q

Lysozymes are which type of granule? What is its function?

A
  • secondary (specific)
  • inflammation
55
Q

Metalloproteinases (MMPs) are which type of granule? What is its function

A
  • tertiary
  • aid in neutrophil crawling (migration)
56
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A
  • inflammatory response
  • contain bacteriostatic and bactericidal agents such as lysozyme
57
Q

What do basophils contain?

A
  • histamine + heparan sulfate = vasoactive reagents = dilates blood vessels
  • slow reacting substances (SRS)
  • eosinophil chemotactic factor = recruit eosinophils to control vasoactice rxn
  • heparin = anti-coagulant
58
Q

What happens when antigens bind to IgE on the surface of a basophil? What are the consequences (3)?

A
  • vasoactive agents are released from the specific granules of basophils and mast cells
  • Consequences: vascular disturbances, hypersensitivity, and anaphylaxis
59
Q

What do mast cells contain?

A

granules with vasoactive (histamine + heparin) and immunoreactive substances

60
Q

What do mast cells arise from?

A

bone marrow stem cells

61
Q

What are the functions of mast cells (3)?

A
  • mediate inflammatory responses
  • degranulation of mast cells = localized and site specific
  • may cause systemic hypersensitivity reaction, allergy and anaphylaxis
62
Q

Elevated eosinophils in blood, intestinal loose CT and other sites are associated with which 3 clinical presentations?

A
  • allergic reaction
  • chronic inflammation
  • helminthic parasitic infections
63
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A
  • Eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin, and eosinophil cationic protein (directed against helminth parasites and other enzymes)
  • e.g. histaminase = degraded substances released by mast cells and basophils (histamines)
64
Q

How many days do monocytes circulate in the blood?

A

1-3 days

65
Q

Monocytes can become _ in bone

A

osteoclast

66
Q

When monocytes exit from the blood and enter the CT, what do they transform into?

A

transform into activated macrophages = APC immune cells

67
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

ingest (phagocytose) microbes and destroy the ingested microbes in intracellular vesicles

68
Q

What are macrophages derived from?

A
  • phagocytic cells derived from blood monocytes
  • antigen presenting cells
69
Q

Which cells are the main functional cells of the immune system?

A
  • T cells
  • B cells
  • NK cells
70
Q

What is the function of lymphocytes?

A

cell-mediated and humoral immunity

71
Q

What are plasma cells derived from? What do they produce?

A
  • B cell derived
  • Antibody producing
72
Q

What are the 4 zones that platelets are divided into and what do they contain?

A
  1. Peripheral zone - cell membrane, glycocalyx
  2. Structural zone - microtubules, actin filaments, myosin, actin-binding proteins
  3. Organelle zone - mitochondria, peroxisomes, glycogen, and 3 types of granules
  4. Membrane zone - 2 types of membrane channels
73
Q

What are platelets derived from?

A

megakaryocytes in bone marrow

74
Q

How many days do platelets circulate in the blood?

A

8-10 days

75
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A
  • surveillance of blood vessels
  • blood clot formation
  • repair of injured tissue
76
Q

Explain blood clot formation (3 steps)

A
  1. Serotonin (vasoconstrictor) causes the vascular smooth muscles to contract = reduces blood flow at the injury site
  2. ADP and thromboxane A2 cause platelet aggregation forming a primary hemostatic plug
  3. Soluble fibrinogen is converted to fibrin = forms loose mesh over the initial plug and a secondary hemostatic plug is formed = blood flow returns to normal
77
Q

What cells are circled?

A

RBCs

78
Q

What cells is #1?

A

Neutrophils

79
Q

What cell is #2?

A

monocyte

80
Q

What cell is #3?

A

lymphocyte

81
Q

What disease is shown in this image?

A

sickle cell anemia

82
Q

What cell is #1?

A

neutrophil

83
Q

What is #1 pointing to?

A

barr body

84
Q

What is the cell that is circled?

A

neutrophil

85
Q

What cell is #1?

A

muscle cell

86
Q

What structure is #2 (blue arrow)?

A

blood vessel

87
Q

What cell is #1?

A

basophil

88
Q

What cell is #1?

A

eosinophil

89
Q

What cell is #1 pointing to?

A

eosinophil

90
Q

What cell is #1?

A

monocyte

91
Q

Identify the cell circled

A

lymphocyte

92
Q

What cells are #1?

A

plasma cells

93
Q

What type of epithelium is #2?

A

villlar epithelium

94
Q

Identify the cells that the arrows are pointing to

A

platelets (thrombocytes)

95
Q

Identify #1

A

neutrophil

96
Q

Identify #2

A

basophil

97
Q

Identify #1

A

lymphocyte

98
Q

What cell is #1?

A

plasma cell

99
Q

What cell is #2?

A

lymphocyte

100
Q

What is #1 pointing to?

A

germinal center

101
Q

Identify what cell #1 is

A

adipocyte

102
Q

What structure is #2?

A

sinusoid capillary

103
Q

What cell is #3?

A

adipocyte

104
Q
  1. Identify the cell indicated:
    a. Neutrophil
    b. Lymphocyte
    c. Eosinophil
    d. Monocyte
A

b. Lymphocyte

105
Q
  1. Which of the following cells contains specific granules filled with peroxidase and major basic protein that are known to be elevated in loose intestinal connective tissue of patients with chronic inflammation or parasitic infection?
    a. B-lymphocyte
    b. Neutrophil
    c. Eosinophil
    d. Monocyte
A

c. Eosinophil

106
Q
  1. Which cell population serves as the 1st line of defense against bacterial infection?
    a. Lymphocyte
    b. Eosinophil
    c. Basophil
    d. Neutrophil
A

d. Neutrophil

107
Q
  1. Which of the following components of plasma is lacking in serum?
    a. Immunoglobulins
    b. Albumin
    c. Fibrinogen
    d. Non-immunoglobulins
A

c. Fibrinogen

108
Q
  1. What cell is responsible for eliciting an allergic response by releasing vasoactive reagents contained within specific granules, upon binding of antigens to IgE?
    a. Neutrophil
    b. Basophil
    c. Plasma cell
    d. Lymphocyte
A

b. Basophil

109
Q
  1. Which type of blood cell is capable of re-circulating in the blood?
    a. Monocyte
    b. B-lymphocyte
    c. Neutrophil
    d. Macrophage
A

b. B-lymphocyte

110
Q

When antigens bind to immunoglobulin–E (IgE) on the surface of this cell, the vasoactive agents are released from the specific granules of this cell resulting in vascular
disturbances, hypersensitivity, and anaphylaxis.
Which cell is it?

  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
  5. Plasma cell
A

Basophil

111
Q

The count of which blood cells is
unusually elevated in blood samples and
intestinal connective tissue of individuals
with allergies and parasitic infections?

  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Lymphocyte
  4. Neutrophil
  5. Plasma cell
A

Eosinophil

112
Q

In which of the following hematocrit tube fractions
obtained after centrifuging of blood with anticoagulants
the platelets are found?

  1. Buffy coat
  2. Blood clot
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. Plasma
  5. Serum
A

Buffy coat

Histology Exam 2 (8 decks)

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