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KIN 335 > Lecture 15 > Flashcards

Lecture 15 Flashcards

1
Q

Exercise:

A
  • involves generation of force by the activated muscles

- disruption of a homeostatic state

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2
Q

In dynamic exercise, the muscle may perform ______ (______) contractions or be overcome by external resistance and perform _____ (_____) contractions. When muscle force results in no movement, the contraction should be termed ______.

A
  • shortening (concentric)
  • lengthening (eccentric)
  • isometric
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3
Q

In cross bridge cycling, contraction cycle continues if ____ is available and ____ level in the _____ is high.

A
  • ATP
  • Ca
  • sarcoplasm
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4
Q

Bioenergetics:

A

process that synthesize ATP

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5
Q

Muscle contraction –>

A

movement

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6
Q

Muscle contraction requires ATP through:

A
  • cross-bridge cycling
  • Na K ATPase pump
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca pump
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7
Q

3 bioenergetics:

A
  • creatine phosphate
  • glycolysis
  • oxidative phosphorylation
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8
Q

Enzymes _____ reactions.

A

catalyze

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9
Q

Catabolism:

A
  • enzyme attaches to molecule

- molecule splits into two constituent molecules

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10
Q

Synthesis:

A
  • enzyme attaches to 2 molecules

- molecules are combined to create new molecule

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11
Q

ATP is made up of:

A
  • adenosine

- phosphate (energy) x3

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12
Q

What does ATPase do?

A

ATP –> ADP

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13
Q

Creatine phosphate is ______.

A

anaerobic

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14
Q

Creatine phosphate (PCr) ______ it’s ______ ion to ADP.

A
  • donates

- phosphate

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15
Q

PCr: ADP the combines with _____ ion to form ____.

A
  • phosphate

- ATP

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16
Q

1 PCr =

A

1 ATP

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17
Q

Limitations of PCr system:

A
  • amount of creatine phosphate
  • total creatine - 50-60% maximum
  • creatine phosphate = 70%
  • free creatine = 30%
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18
Q

Glycolysis is _____.

A

anaerobic

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19
Q

Glycolysis: 1 glucose/glycogen ______ to ___ ______.

A
  • catalyzed

- 2 pyruvate

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20
Q

Glycolysis produces:

A

ATP + NADH + H+

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21
Q

1 glucose =

A

2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+

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22
Q

1 glycogen =

A

3 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+

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23
Q

Limitations of glycolysis:

A
  • availability of glucose/glycogen

- amount of phosphofructokinase

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24
Q

Pyruvate –> lactate is ______.

A

anaerobic

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25
Q

Lactate ______ catalyzes reaction between _____ + _____.

A
  • dehodrogenase
  • pyruvate
  • NADH
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26
Q

End products of pyruvate –> lactate:

A

lactate + NAD+ + H+

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27
Q

2 pyruvate + 2 NADH =

A

2 lactate + 2 NAD+ + 2H+

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28
Q

Glycolysis –> lactate

A

4 H+ total

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29
Q

Hydrogen ion =

A

acid

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30
Q

____ is required for glycolysis.

A

NAD+

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31
Q

NAD+ is resynthesized from ____ through…

A
  • NADH
  • pyruvate –> lactate
  • pyruvate –> oxidative phosphorylation
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32
Q

Limitations of NAD+ resynthesis:

A
  • amount of lactate dehydrogenase

- acid production

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33
Q

Hydrogen ions inhibit _____ ____.

A

muscle contraction

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34
Q

Methods of removal for hydrogen ions (acid):

A
  • bicarbonate buffering

- transport to blood –> elimination as CO2 via respiration

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35
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation is _____.

A

aerobic

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36
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in _____.

A

mitochondria

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37
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation is a ____ step process to synthesize _____:

A
  • 2

- ATP

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38
Q

2 steps in oxidative phosphorylation:

A
  • Krebs (citric acid) cycle (no O2)

- ETC (O2)

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39
Q

In the Krebs cycle, ____ ____ is converted to ____, _____ and _____.

A
  • acetyl CoA
  • ATP
  • NADH
  • FADH2
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40
Q

Krebs cycle: _____ and _____ enter ETC.

A
  • NADH

- FADH2

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41
Q

Acetyl CoA:

A
  • glucose –> pyruvate
  • amino acid –> pyruvate
  • fatty acid
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42
Q

Limitations of Krebs cycle:

A
  • number of mitochondria
  • amount of citrate synthase
  • amount of succinate dehydrogenase
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43
Q

In the ETC, ___ is removed from _____ and _____ to resynthesize ___ and ____.

A
  • H+
  • NADH
  • FADH2
  • NAD+
  • FAD
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44
Q

ETC: 4 H+ combine with 1 O2 =

A

2 H20

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45
Q

Limitations of ETC:

A
  • number of mitochondria

- oxygen availability

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46
Q

ATP-PCr contributes the most to non-steady state for what duration?

A

10 seconds

47
Q

Glycolysis contributes the most to non-steady state for what duration?

A

10 seconds or 30 seconds

48
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation contributes the most to non-steady state for what duration?

A

90 seconds

49
Q

Adaptations for creatine phosphate:

A

increase total creatine in muscle

50
Q

Adaptations for glycolysis:

A
  • increase phosphofructokinase
  • increase lactate dehydrogenase
  • increase bicarbonates
51
Q

Adaptations for oxidative phosphorylation:

A
  • increase # of mitochondria
  • increase SDH and CS
  • improve O2 delivery and extraction
52
Q

Anaerobic power is limited by:

A
  • creatine phosphate

- glycolysis

53
Q

Anaerobic threshold is limited by:

A
  • glycolysis

- oxidative phosphorylation

54
Q

Aerobic power (VO2 max) is limited by:

A

oxidative phosphorylation

55
Q

Adaptations are specific to ____ ____.

A

bioenergetic system

56
Q

Bioenergetic system must be ____ to elicit adaptation.

A

stressed

57
Q

Motor unit specific (peripheral) adaptations to exercise:

A
  • creatine phosphate

- enzyme concentrations

58
Q

Muscle specific (peripheral) adaptations to exercise:

A
  • number of mitochondria

- oxygen extraction

59
Q

Adaptations not specified to muscles used (central):

A

oxygen delivery

60
Q

Oxygen extraction consists of:

A
  • increased myoglobin concentration

- increased capillarization

61
Q

Increased myoglobin concentration means…

A

O2 transferred from hemoglobin (blood) to myoglobin (muscle)

62
Q

Increased capillarization means…

A

more sites for O2 transfer between hemoglobin and myoglobin

63
Q

SV =

A

End Diastolic Volume (EDV) - End Systolic Volume (ESV)

64
Q

EDV increases with ______.

A

exercise

65
Q

How can exercise HR be lower for the same intensity?

A
  • intrinsic HR

- parasympathetic stimulation

66
Q

Increased _____ allows reduction in intrinsic HR.

A

EDV

67
Q

Effects of aerobic exercise on left ventricular chamber and EDV:

A
  • increase cavity size

- increase myocardial compliance (Frank-Starling law)

68
Q

Limitations of left ventricular chamber and EDV:

A
  • ventricular wall thickness

- thoracic cavity size

69
Q

Minute ventilation =

A

tidal volume x breathing rate

70
Q

Minute ventilation decreases in ___ weeks training.

A

< 8

71
Q

During maximum aerobic exercise, minute ventilation is ____% maximum capacity

A

60-85%

72
Q

Blood oxygenation is not limited by _____.

A

respiration

73
Q

Ventilatory cost of exercise:

A

9% of VO2 at VO2 max

74
Q

Muscles of inspiration:

A
  • diaphragm
  • external intercostals
  • pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, scalenes
75
Q

When training goals are to increase anaerobic power, what adaptations, intensity, and volume do you need?

A
  • inc. creatine phosphate
  • inc. phosphofructokinase & lactate dehydrogenase
  • intensity: high-very high
  • volume: low
76
Q

When training goals are to increase anaerobic threshold, what adaptations, intensity, and volume do you need?

A
  • inc. glycolysis
  • inc. oxygen utilization
  • inc. H+ buffering
  • intensity: moderate - high
  • volume: moderate
77
Q

When training goals are to increase VO2 max, what adaptations, intensity, and volume do you need?

A
  • inc. oxygen utilization
  • inc. oxygen extraction
  • inc. oxygen delivery
  • intensity: low-moderate
  • volume: high-very high
78
Q

4 ways to tell cardiovascular training intensity:

A
  • % VO2 max
  • speed
  • power
  • % HR max
79
Q

Zone 1:

A
  • 45-65 % VO2 max
  • 55-75 % HR max
  • duration: 1-6 hours
  • low intensity
  • recovery training
80
Q

Zone 2:

A
  • 66-80 % VO2 max
  • 75-85% HR max
  • duration: 1-3 hours
  • aerobic threshold
  • moderte intensity
  • base training
81
Q

Zone 3:

A
  • 81-87% VO2 max
  • 85-90% HR max
  • duration: 50-90 min
  • anaerobic threshold
  • high intensity; threshold training
82
Q

Zone 4:

A
  • 88-93% VO2 max
  • 90-95% HR max
  • duration: 30-60 min.
  • very high intensity
  • interval training
83
Q

Zone 5:

A
  • 94-100% VO2 max
  • 95-100 % HR max
  • duration: 15-30 minutes
  • supramaximal intensity
  • interval training
84
Q

4 steady state training approaches:

A
  • high volume
  • threshold
  • polarized
  • high intensity interval training
85
Q

High volume approach distribution of zones:

A
  • Zones 1 & 2: 4-5 days/week
  • Zone 3: 1-2 days/week
  • Zones 4 & 5: none
86
Q

Threshold approach distribution of zones:

A
  • Zones 1 & 2: 2 days/week
  • Zone 3: 3-4 days/week
  • Zones 4 & 5: none
87
Q

Polarized approach distribution of zones:

A
  • Zones 1 & 2: 3-4 days/week (60-80%)
  • Zone 3: 0-1 days/week (0-10%)
  • Zones 4 & 5: 1-2 days/week (15-30%)
88
Q

High intensity interval training distribution of zones:

A
  • Zones 1 & 2: none
  • Zone 3: none
  • Zones 4 & 5: 5-6 days/week
89
Q

Rationale for distribution of zones in polarized training:

A
  • zone 3 is most strenuous training and requires longest recovery
  • excessive training in zone 3 results in maladaptations
90
Q

Modalities for zones 1 & 2:

A
  • general or specific

- emphasis on central adaptations

91
Q

Example of zone 1 & 2 training for cross-country skier:

A
  • cross-country skiing (specific)

- running, cycling (general)

92
Q

Example of zone 1 & 2 training for runner:

A
  • running (specific)

- cycling (general)

93
Q

Modalities for zones 3, 4 & 5:

A
  • specific only
  • central & peripheral adaptations
  • specific muscles must be trained
94
Q

Central adaptations of non-steady state training:

A
  • zones 1 & 2 may be more effective for high training volume (> 60 minutes)
  • zones 4 & 5 sufficient to elicit adaptations
95
Q

Peripheral adaptations of non-steady state training:

A
  • zones 1 & 2 are effective for beginners

- zones 4 & 5 more effective for experienced

96
Q

Work:rest for non-steady state training:

A

interval training based on work-to-rest ratios from time motion analysis

97
Q

For most sports, _____ or _____ ____ is most effective for cardiovascular training.

A
  • practice

- modified practice

98
Q

Why use sport practice as cardiovascular training?

A
  • peripheral adaptations are specific to muscle groups

- running/cycling/rowing may not use all of the muscles desired

99
Q

Energy cost of fast recovery:

A
  • ATP synthesis

- creatine phosphate synthesis

100
Q

Energy cost of slow recovery:

A
  • lactate metabolism
  • muscle recovery
  • other physiologic processes
101
Q

Cori cycle:

A
  • lactate –> pyruvate –> glucose
  • lactate in blood passes through liver
  • when blood glucose is low, lactate enters Cori cycle in liver
  • gluconeogenesis
  • futile cycle
102
Q

Lactate is metabolized in the….

A
  • heart
  • liver
  • kidney
103
Q

Muscle recovery consists of:

A
  • Na K ATPase pump

- sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ pump

104
Q

Effects of single set exhaustive exercise on ATP & PCr synthesis:

A
  • ATP dec. 30%
  • PCr dec. 60%
  • ~80% @ 1 minute
  • ~100% @ 4 minutes
105
Q

Effects of multiple sets of exhaustive exercise on ATP & PCr synthesis:

A
  • rapid recovery in 3-10 minutes

- almost full recovery @ 50 minutes

106
Q

Gluconeogenesis:

A

lactate –> pyruvate –> glucose

107
Q

Glycolysis synthesizes ___ ATP.

A

2

108
Q

Gluconeogenesis uses ____ ATP.

A

6

109
Q

Not loss of __ ATP with Cori cycle.

A

4

110
Q

EPOC =

A

Excess Post-exercise Oxygen Consumption

111
Q

EPOC:

A

increased EE for 24-48 hours after exercise

112
Q

EPOC is greater:

A
  • when intensity increases (same volume)

- with increased frequency

113
Q

We should increase training frequency ….

A
  • gradually

- maintain same volume

114
Q

What is one way to increase training frequency?

A

polarize training

KIN 335 (16 decks)

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