LEC 26 - Anti-Proazoals Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the protozoas is reportable?
A
Leishmaniasis and babesiosis
2
Q
What are the 8 protozoas that we are concerned with?
A
Giardia, trichomoniasis, babeiosis, leishmaniasis, EPM, Heptaozoonosis, toxoplasmosis, coccidiosis
3
Q
What drugs can be used for giardia?
A
Benzimidozoles and nitroimidazoles
4
Q
What drugs can be used for trichomoniasis?
A
Nitroimadazoles
5
Q
What drugs can be used for babesiosis?
A
Diamidine derivatives, tetracyclines, azithromycin, and hydroxyquinolones
6
Q
What drugs can be used for leishmaniasis?
A
Antimonial compounds
7
Q
What drugs can be used for EPM?
A
Triazine derivatives and DHFR
8
Q
What drugs can be used for hepatozoonosis?
A
Diamidine derivatives, Hydroxyquinolones, DHFR, and clindamycin
9
Q
What drugs can be used for toxoplasmosis?
A
DHFR and Clindamycin
10
Q
What drugs can be used for coccidiosis?
A
Hydroxyquinolones, DHFR, Halofugione, Amprolium, Sulfoamides, ionophores, and robenidine
11
Q
What are the characteristics of giardia?
A
Infection from contaminated food/water. Two life stages that interfere with absorption in the lumen of the small intestine.
12
Q
What are the animals infected by giardia?
A
Dogs, Cats, Horses, and Cattle
13
Q
What animals are benzimidazoles used to treat giardia?
A
Dogs, cats, and cattle
14
Q
What animals are bitroimidazoles used to treat giardia?
A
Dogs, cats, and horses
15
Q
How do benziimidazoles works?
A
Inihibit microtubule formation. Kills trophozoites.
16
Q
What are the three types of benzimidazoles?
A
Febental (dogs/cats), Albendazole (dogs/cattle), and Fenbendazole (dogs/cats/cattle)
17
Q
How do nitroimidazoles work?
A
Prodrugs producing cytotoxic metabolites.
18
Q
What are the three nitrooimidazoles?
A
Metronidazole, Tinidazole, and Ronidazole
19
Q
What is the absorption of nitroimidazoles like?
A
Good BA with PO adminstration
20
Q
Where does metronidazole distribute to?
A
Extensively, even goes to the bone and hte brain
21
Q
Where are nitroimidazoles metabolized?
A
Liver
22
Q
Where is nitroimidazoles eliminated from?
A
Bile
23
Q
What is the protocol for nitroimidazole use in food animals?
A
PROHIBITED
24
Q
What is the reason behind the prohibition of mitroimidazoles in food animals?
A
Mutagenic/carcinogenic potential
25
Which nitroimidazoles are used to treat dogs with giardia?
Metronidazole, tinidazole, and ronidazole
26
Which nitroimidazoles are used to treat cats with giardia?
Metronidazole and tinidazole
27
What causes trichomoniasis?
trichomonas foetis
28
What are the symptoms of trichomonoiasis in cats?
Large bowel diarrhea. Self-limiting but can take up to 2 years to clear from the cat.
29
What is the DOC for trichomonoiasis in cats?
Ronidazole
30
What is the route of transmission of trichomonias in cattle?
Sexual intercourse
31
What is infection like in cattle with trichomonias?
Bulls - persistently infected and normally culled. Cows are self-limiting.
32
What are the four possible diseases with trypanosomiasis?
Chagas, Surram, Dourine, and Nagana
33
Which of the four trypanosomias is endemic to the western hemisphere?
Chagas disease
34
What is the infectious organism in Chagas disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
35
What is the vector for chagas disease?
Reduviid bugs
36
What animals does chagas disease infect?
Puppies and kittens. No approved therapy in the US.
37
What is babesiosis transmitted by?
Ticks
38
What is the main action to prevent babesiosis infections?
Tick prevention
39
How does babesiosis cause disease?
Pathogenic stages infect RBC's, which are then destroyed by immune attack
40
What are the symptoms seen with babesiosis?
Anemia, Splenomegaly, Depression, and Anorexia
41
What are the three types of babesiosis that infects dogs?
Canis, Gibsoni, and Conradae
42
What is the approve therapy for dogs with babeosisi?
Azithromycin and atovaquone (hydroxyquinolone)
43
What is another name for babeosis in cattle?
Texas fever
44
What are the babesia that infect cattle?
Bigemina
45
Which of the babesia are reportable?
B. bidemina
46
What is the mechanism of imidocarb diproprionate?
DNA Denaturing agent
47
How is imidocarb diproprionate adminstered?
IM or SC
48
How is imidocarb diproprionate excreted?
Urine (up to 1.5 days) and Feces (for up to 10 days)
49
What are the adverse effects of imidocarb diproprionate?
Injection site pain/inflammation, cholinergic signs, and renal tubular/hepatic necrosis
50
What is the mechanism by which atovaquone works?
Electron transport chain inhibitor
51
How is atovaquone absorbed.
Doubled when given with fatty meal
52
How is atovaquone distributed in the body?
Significant binding to plasma proteins
53
How is cryptosporidiosis transmitted?
Contaminated water
54
What is the pathogenic stage of cryptosporidium?
Schizonts
55
What crypto infects ruminants?
C. Parvum
56
How old are ruminants when they are susceptible to C. Parvum?
5 to 35 days
57
What are the signs in food animals when infected by C. Parvum?
Anorexia, weight-loss, diarrhea, and tenesmus
58
What are the signs in cats/dogs when infected by crypto?
None for the most part.
59
What are the treatments for food animals infected with crypto?
Supportive, halofuginone reduces shedding
60
What drug is used in both dogs and cats to treat a crypto infection?
Paromomycin sulfact
61
What is the side effect to paromomycin use in dogs and cats?
AKI, cataracts, and deafness
62
What drug is used in cats with crypto infection?
Nitazoxanide
63
What are the side effects to Niazoxanide in cats?
Severe vomiting and diarrhea
64
What does Niaoxanide do to crypto in cats? What reverses this effect?
Induces carrier state, reactivated by cortiocosteroid treatment
65
What are the two forms of leshmaniasis?
Visceral and cutaneous
66
What type of lesmania is seen in the US?
Leishmania infantum
67
How is leishmania treated in the US?
Since it is a reportable disease you must contact the CDC. The CDC once notified will then bring the drugs to you. The drugs are meglumine antimoniate and sodium atibogluconate.
68
How do the leishmania drugs work?
Inhibit leishmania nucleotide synthesis, topoisomerases, and phosphofructokinase
69
What causes EPM?
Sarcocystis neurona and Neospora hughesi
70
What type of host is a horse to EPM pathogens?
Dead-end, intermediate host. Therefore they can not spread the disease once infected.
71
How does transmission of EPM occur?
Consumption of food or water contaminated with feces of definitive host
72
What is the most common sign of EPM?
Asymmetric ataxia
73
What is the most common sign of EPM?
Asymmetric ataxia
74
What is the FDA approved method of treating EPM?
Ponazuril or diclazuril +/- sulfadiazine pyrimethamine
75
What EPM treatment is currently under review?
Decoquinate + levamisole
76
What tends to be the prognosis of EPM?
Tend to relapse. If this is the case there is no protocol for treatment. Tend to just add another anti-protozoal drug to the treatment.
77
What are the two thiazine derivatives?
Ponazuril and Diclazuril
78
How do thiazine derivatives work?
Interfere with apicoplast function needed for FA synthesis, AA synthesis, and starch storage.
79
What are the adverse effects of ponazuril?
Blisters, rash, diarrhea, mild colic, and seizures
80
What are the adverse effects of ponazuril?
Blisters, rash, diarrhea, mild colic, and seizures
81
What are the side effects of diclazuril?
None reported
82
Which of the thiazine derivatives has the better BA?
Ponazuril (30%)
83
What animals are infected by hepatozoonosis?
Dogs + Coyotes
84
What causes hepatozoonosis?
Hepatozoon Americanum
85
What is the cause of transmission of hepatozoonosis?
Ingestion of infective oocysts in ticks or paratenic hosts.
86
What are the pathogenic stages of hepatozoonosis?
Schizonts and gamonts
87
What are the signs of a hepatozoonotic infection?
Severe neutrophilic lymphocytosis. Marked joint pain associated with myositis and periosteal proliferation.
88
What is the main treatment for hepatozoonosis?
Tick prevention
89
What is the drug protocols for hepatozoonosis?
Sulfadiazine-trimehtoprim + clindamycin + pyrimethamine/ Imidocarb proprionate, decoquinate
90
What is decoquinate used for specifically when it comes to hepatozoonosis?
Stand-alone to prolong remission following treatment
91
What is neosporosis caused by?
Neospora caninum
92
How is neosporosis transmitted?
Fecal-oral
93
What is the definitive host for neosporosis?
Dogs
94
What are the signs of a neosporosis infection?
Enchepalomyelitis, myositis, neuromuscular (stiffness, atrophy, paresis, paralysis, and dysphagia)
95
What are the intermediate hosts for neosporsis?
Dogs, Cattle, Sheep, Horses, and Deer
96
What are the infective agents in neospora?
Tissue cysts
97
What are the infective agents in neospora?
Tissue cysts
98
What are the signs of a neosporosis infection?
Abortions
99
What are the treatments for neosporosis in cattle?
All prevention. Keep dogs out of cattle feed. Stop dogs from ingesting placentas or fetuses from abortions
100
What are the treatments for dogs with neosporosis?
Sulfadiazine-trimethoprim + pyrimethamine, clindamycin, clindamycin followed by first two
101
What is the treatment prognosis of neosporosis in dogs?
Does not eliminate tissue cysts. Slows the progression of the disease. Should be started before extensor rigidity occurs.
102
What is the infectious agent in toxoplasmosis?
Toxoplasma gondii
103
Where in the body does toxoplasmosis live?
GI tract
104
What is the definitive host of toxoplasma?
Felids
105
What are the intermediate hosts for toxoplasma?
Any mammal
106
How is toxoplasma transmitted?
Fecal-oral or ingestion of tissue cyts
107
How long do cats shed toxoplasma?
Shed oocytes occurs 3 to 21 days following infection
108
How long do toxoplasma oocytes survive in the environment?
Months to years, resistant to most disinfectants
109
What are the signs of a toxoplasma infection in a healthy, adult cat?
Diarrhea, though any signs are rare
110
What is the differiential for a toxoplasmosis infection in dogs?
Neosporosis
111
What is the differiential for a toxoplasmosis infection in dogs?
Neosporosis
112
What does theileriosis infect?
Ruminants
113
What is the thelieriosis found in the US?
T. Mutans
114
What is the vector for thelieriosis?
Ticks
115
What causes coccidiosis in ruminants and some brids?
Eimeria
116
What causes coccidiosis in dogs, cats, and pigs?
Isospora
117
How is coccidiosis transmitted?
Fecal-oral and consumption of rodents
118
What can pre-dispose an animal to coccidiosis infection?
High density housing and shipping stress
119
What are the clinical signs to a coccidiosis infection?
Diarrhea +/- blood, dehydration, poor production, can be fatal in young animals
120
Which of the coccidiosis is self-limiting?
Eimeria
121
How is coccidiosis prevented?
Sanitatoin is most important. Keep food seperate from housing, and do not feed raw meet.
122
What two drugs that are used in coccidiosis infections compete with AA synthesis? Which AA's?
Amprolium (Thiamine) and Robenidine (Guanine)
123
What are the adverse effects of amprolium?
Thiamine deficiency, depression, anorexia, diarrhea, neurological signs
124
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Amprolium
All
125
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Decoquinate
Ruminants and birds
126
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Declazuril
Birds
127
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Robendine
Birds
128
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Halofuginone
Birds
129
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species: Ionophore antibiotics
Ruminants/birds (monensin, lasalocid) and Birds (maduramicin, narasin, semduramicin, salinomycin)
130
Coccidiosis drug treatment in what species:Sulfadimethoxine
Ruminants and birds
131
What is used to treat coccidiosis infections in dogs and cats?
Sulfadimethoxine + ormetoprim, sulfadiazine + trimethoprim, and sulfadimethozine
132
Which of the protozoa are reportable?
Leishmania, B. bigemina,
133
Which of the protozoa are zoonotic?
T. Gondii, N. Caninum, Leishmania, C. parvum, Trypanosomiasis, Giardia
