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Biochemisty Main > LE8 (2025) > Flashcards

LE8 (2025) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In the context of a prokaryotic gene expression which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an operator?
    A. a cluster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter
    B. a DNA binding protein that regulates gene expression
    C. a non-coding regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA
    D. a non-coding regulatory DNA
    sequence that is bound by a repressor protein
A

D. a non-coding regulatory DNA
sequence that is bound by a repressor protein

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2
Q
  1. In terms of lac operon regulation, what happens when E. coli is grown in medium containing glucose and lactose?
    A. both CAP and the lac repressor are
    bound to the DNA
    B. CAP is bound to the DNA but the lac
    repressor is not
    C. Lac repressor is bound to the DNA but
    CAP is not
    D. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor gene are bound to the DNA
A

D. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor gene are bound to the DNA

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3
Q
  1. Nuclear Receptors belong to what class of transcription factor?
    A. Helix loop helix proteins
    B. Helix turn helix proteins
    C. Leucine zipper proteins
    D. Zinc finger proteins
A

D. Zinc finger proteins

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp operon expression by attenuation is correct?
    A. The leader peptide sequence encodes
    enzymes related to tryptophan
    synthesis
    B. The leader peptide sequence contains
    no tryptophan residues
    C. Rapid translation of the leader peptide
    allows completion of the mRNA transcript
    D. Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript
A

D. Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript

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5
Q
  1. RNAi stands for which of the following?
    A. RNA inducer
    B. RNA insertion
    C. RNA interference
    D. RNA intron
A

C. RNA interference

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the lac operon in E. Coli?
    A. The operon is only switched on in the
    absence of lactose in the growth
    medium
    B. The lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA
    C. The enzyme B galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac repressor is bound to the operator
    D. The promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor
A

B. The lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about mRNA stability is correct?
    A. Eukaryotic mRNAs have a half life of
    only a few minutes
    B. Regulation of mRNA stability is a way of regulating gene expression
    C. It is thought that poly A tails stabilize prokaryotic RNAs
    D. Histone mRNAs have especially long polyA tails and are especially stable
A

B. Regulation of mRNA stability is a way of regulating gene expression

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8
Q
  1. An epigenetic change in gene expression is an inherited change that does not involve any change in the nucleotide sequence of the gene.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true
    of RNA interference?
    A. is a normal way for organisms to regulate gene expression
    B. is a mechanism for combating virus infection in plants
    C. occurs only in vertebrates
    D. is already used therapeutically in
    many disorders
A

A. is a normal way for organisms to regulate gene expression

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10
Q
  1. Identify the figure on the right:
    A. acetylated histones
    B. unacetylated histones
    C. DNA methylation
    D. RNA methylation
A

A. acetylated histones

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11
Q
  1. Gene regulation in bacteria is important in order to:
    A. prevent wasting energy
    B. enable response to environmental
    stimuli
    C. allow cells to adjust promptly to
    changes in the growth medium
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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12
Q
  1. Examples of internal stimuli originating from within the organism that coordinate gene expression include all of the following except:
    A. steroid hormone
    B. growth factors
    C. sunlight
    D. HSP70
A

C. sunlight

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13
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect?
    A. Gene regulation is fundamental to cell
    specialization in multicellular
    organisms
    B. Patterns of gene expression established during the early developmental stages are not permanent, enabling one cell type to differentiate in a different cell
    type later in the life cycle
    C. Some gene family members are expressed at different phases of development
    D. Post transcriptional and post translational processing events can regulate the synthesis rate of gene products.
A

B. Patterns of gene expression established during the early developmental stages are not permanent, enabling one cell type to differentiate in a different cell
type later in the life cycle

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14
Q

Which among the following statements is true regarding an operon?
A. cluster of genes transcribed by
multiple mRNA
B. gene transcription is prevented by the blocking of RNA polymerase
C. genes for multiple genetic pathways
D. can be switched off by a corepressor

A

B. gene transcription is prevented by the blocking of RNA polymerase

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15
Q

Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. Lactose: glucose and fructose
subunits
B. lacl: structural gene
C. operon: one promoter transcribes
more than one gene as a single
mRNA molecule
D. permease: transports lactose to the outside of the cell

A

C. operon: one promoter transcribes
more than one gene as a single
mRNA molecule

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16
Q

Proteins to be degraded are tagged with:
A. hydroquinone
B. ubiquitin
C. proteasome
D. allolactose

A

B. ubiquitin

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17
Q

An example of cleavage modification in eukaryotes is:
A. Crystallin Gene
B. preproinsulin
C. acetylation
D. methylation

A

B. preproinsulin

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18
Q

. The location where the lactose repressor gene binds to the lactose operon is called:
A. operator
B. promoter
C. inducer
D. enhancer

A

A. operator

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19
Q

When the lactose repressor is bound to the lactose operon:
A. lactose but not glucose metabolism occurs
B. the transcription of lacl is blocked
C. access to the promoter by RNA
polymerase is blocked and transcription of the operon does not occur
D. the repressor is unable to bind to its allolactose

A

C. access to the promoter by RNA
polymerase is blocked and transcription of the operon does not occur

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20
Q

If lactose and glucose are both provided in the growth medium:
A. both lactose and glucose are
metabolized at similar rates
B. the lactose operon is not transcribed
C. lactose metabolism is favored
D. elevated levels of CAMP are
synthesized

A

B. the lactose operon is not transcribed

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21
Q

This type of mutation may have no detectable effect because of the degeneracy of the genetic code
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

A. Silent mutations

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22
Q

The type of mutation that alters gametes and are passed to the next generation
A. Somatic mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Germline mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

C. Germline mutations

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23
Q

This type of mutation would be more likely to occur if the changed base in the mRNA molecule were to be at the third nucleotide of a codon.
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

A. Silent mutations

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24
Q

Because of wobble, the translation of a codon is least sensitive to a change at which position?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. any position

A

C. third

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25
Q

A mutation may appear that would then result in the premature termination of amino acid incorporation into a peptide chain and the production of only a fragment of the intended protein molecule.
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutation

A

C. Nonsense mutations

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26
Q

The type of mutation that occur in somatic cells and only affect the individual in which the mutation arises
A. Somatic mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Germline mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

A. Somatic mutations

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27
Q

The end product of this mutation has a high probability that a prematurely terminated protein molecule or peptide fragment will not function in its assigned role
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

C. Nonsense mutations

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28
Q
  1. The effect of this mutation will occur when a different amino acid is incorporated at the corresponding site in the protein molecule
    A. Silent mutations
    B. Missense mutations
    C. Nonsense mutations
    D. Frameshift mutation
A

B. Missense mutations

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29
Q

This mutation result from deletion or insertion of nucleotides in DNA that generates altered mRNAs
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

D. Frameshift mutations

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30
Q

The mRNA is read continuously from a start codon to a termination codon. Which among the following is a start codon?
A. AUG
B. UAA
C. UAG
D. UGA

A

A. AUG

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31
Q

Exposure of a cell to this agent can result in the covalent joining of two adjacent pyrimidines (usually thymines), producing a dimer.
A. X-rays
B. UV light
C. Base analogs
D. Alkylating agents

A

B. UV light

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32
Q

Exposure to this agent can cause double- strand breaks in DNA, which are potentially lethal to the cell
A. High-energy radiation
B. Base analogs
C. Alkylating agents
D. Viruses

A

A. High-energy radiation

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33
Q

This is another agent that can cause double- strand breaks in DNA that is potentially lethal to the cell
A. 5-bromouracil
B. oxidative free radicals
C. Alkylating agents
D. Hydroxylating agents

A

B. oxidative free radicals

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34
Q

A type of base pair substitution that converts a purine-pyrimidine to the other purine-pyrimidine
A. Transition
B. Base analogs
C. Transversions
D. Viruses

A

A. Transition

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35
Q

A type of base pair substitution that converts purine-pyrimidine to a pyrimidine-purine
A. Transition
B. Base analogs
C. Transversions
D. Viruses

A

C. Transversions

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36
Q

A type of base pair substitution that are more likely to result in nonsynonomous substitution
A. Transition
B. Base analogs
C. Transversions
D. Viruses

A

C. Transversions

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37
Q

A type of mutation wherein a base pair substitution results in substitution of an amino acid with similar chemical properties (protein function is not altered)
A. Neutral nonsynonymous mutation
B . Silent mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

A. Neutral nonsynonymous mutation

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38
Q

A type of mutation which changes wild type (ancestral) to mutant (derived) gene
A. Neutral nonsynonymous mutation
B. Silent mutations
C. Reverse mutation
D. Forward mutation

A

D. Forward mutation

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39
Q

A type of mutation which changes mutant (derived) to wild type (ancestral) gene
A. Neutral nonsynonymous mutation
B. Silent mutations
C. Reverse mutation
D. Forward mutation

A

C. Reverse mutation

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40
Q

A type of spontaneous mutation wherein A or G are removed and replaced with a random base
A. Neutral nonsynonymous mutation
B. Silent mutations
C. Depurination
D. Deamination

A

C. Depurination

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41
Q

A type of DNA repair mechanism where the 3’-5’ exonuclease activity corrects errors during the process of replication
A. DNA polymerase proofreading
B. Photoreactivation
C. Demethylating DNA repair enzymes
D. Nucleotide excision repair

A

A. DNA polymerase proofreading

42
Q

From the types of DNA repair mechanisms where damaged regions of DNA unwind and are removed by specialized proteins
A. DNA polymerase
B. Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
C. Methyl-directed mismatch repair
D. DNA polymerase proofreading

A

B. Nucleotide excision repair (NER)

43
Q
  1. This type of mutation may appear that would then result in the premature termination of amino acid incorporation into a peptide chain and the production of only a fragment of the intended protein molecule
    A. Silent mutations
    B. Missense mutations
    C. Nonsense mutations
    D. Splice site mutations
A

C. Nonsense mutations

44
Q
  1. Which mutation involves a codon containing the changed base that may code for the same amino acid?
    A. Silent mutations
    B. Missense mutations
    C. Nonsense mutations
    D. Samesense mutations
A

A. Silent mutations

45
Q

What is the role of transgenic organisms in the study of xenobiotics?
A. Transgenic organisms may be
introduced into other animals to
metabolize xenobiotics
B. Transgenic organisms may be used for drug synthesis
C. Xenobiotics can form non-toxic transgenic organisms
D. All of the above

A

B. Transgenic organisms may be used for drug synthesis

46
Q

A type of DNA repair mechanism that involves activation of photolyase enzyme by UV light (320-370 nm) and splits abnormal base dimers apart
A. DNA polymerase
B. Nucleotide excision repair (NER)
C. Photoreactivation
D. Demethylating DNA repair enzymes

A

C. Photoreactivation

47
Q

This amino acid is produced by just one coding triplet (codon)
A. Arginine
B. Leucine
C. Methionine
D. Serine

A

C. Methionine

48
Q

Which exemplifies the degeneracy of the genetic code?
A. Methionine
B. Arginine
C. Trypthophan
D. All of the above

A

B. Arginine

49
Q

If cytosine in DNA is deaminated, the uracil residue that results may be removed by
A. An endonuclease
B. An exonuclease
C. A glycosylase
D. A polynucleotide ligase

A

C. A glycosylase

50
Q

Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum suffer DNA damage when they are exposed to UV light because UV light causes the formation of
A. purine dimers in DNA
B. Pyrimidine dimers in DNA
C. Deoxyribose dimers in DNA
D. Anhydride bonds between phosphate groups in DNA

A

B. Pyrimidine dimers in DNA

51
Q

Thrombosis occurs when the endothelium lining the blood vessels is damaged or removed. Which among the following is not characteristic of the resulting red thrombus from this event?
A. Predominantly composed of
Erythrocytes
B. Consists primarily of platelets and Fibrin
C. It forms at the site of an injury or abnormal vessel wall, particularly in areas where blood flow is stagnant
D. Seen mostly in venous areas

A

B. Consists primarily of platelets and Fibrin

52
Q

Disseminated fibrin deposits are mostly found in which vessels?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Very small blood vessels or Capillaries
D. All of the above

A

C. Very small blood vessels or Capillaries

53
Q

Which does NOT characterize White thrombi?
A. Have a fast rate of formation
B. Have a firm consistency
C. Associated in arterial system of
circulation
D. Have a hard consistency

A

A. Have a fast rate of formation

54
Q

This stage of hemostasis is considered to be the primary hemostatic mechanism:
A. Vascular phase
B. Platelet phase
C. Coagulation phase
D. Bleeding Phase

A

B. Platelet phase

55
Q
  1. Which statement does NOT characterize the phases common to both Hemostasis and Thrombosis?
    A. Formation of a loose and Permanent platelet aggregate at the site of injury
    B. Formation of a fibrin mesh that binds to the platelet aggregate, forming a more stable hemostatic plug or thrombus
    C. Partial dissolution of the hemostatic plug or thrombus by plasmin
    D. Complete dissolution of the hemostatic plug or thrombus by plasmin
A

A. Formation of a loose and
Permanent platelet aggregate at the
site of injury

56
Q

. During the platelet phase of hemostasis, platelets adhere to collagen via specific receptors on the platelet surface. This process involves which of the following glycoprotein complexes?
A. GPVI
B. GPIa–IIa
C. GPIb–IX–V
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

57
Q

During the platelet phase of hemostasis, adhesion and binding to collagen of which specific platelet glycoprotein
complex receptors is mediated by von Willebrand factor?
A. GPVI
B. GPIa–Iia
C. GPIb–IX–V
D. All of the above

A

C. GPIb–IX–V

58
Q

Which is not a feature of von Willebrand factor?
A. Glues platelets to damaged endothelium
B. Binds and protects Factor IX
C. is secreted by endothelial cells into the plasma
D. None of the above

A

B. Binds and protects Factor IX

59
Q
  1. This is the most potent activator of platelets
    A. Phospholipase A2
    B. Thrombin
    C. Von Willebrand Factor
    D. Thromboxane A 2
A

B. Thrombin

60
Q
  1. Endothelial cells in the walls of blood vessels make important contributions to the overall regulation of hemostasis and thrombosis. Which molecule synthesized by endothelial cells inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation by elevating levels of cGMP?
    A. Prostacyclin
    B. ADPase
    C. Nitric oxide
    D. Thrombomodulin
A

C. Nitric oxide

61
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules from the endothelium inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing levels of cAMP
    A. Nitric oxide
    B. Prostacyclin
    C. ADPase
    D. Thrombomodulin
A

B. Prostacyclin

62
Q
  1. Activation of which factor provides an important link between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the coagulation cascade?
    A. Factor II
    B. Factor IV
    C. Factor V
    D. Factor X
A

D. Factor X

63
Q
  1. Which among the following is not a Vitamin K-dependent factor?
    A. Factor IX
    B. Factor I
    C. Factor VII
    D. Factor X
A

B. Factor I

64
Q
  1. Which laboratory test measures the intrinsic pathway?
    A. partial thromboplastin time (aPTT
    or PTT)
    B. prothrombin time (PT)
    C. thrombin time (TT)
    D. bleeding time (BT)
A

A. partial thromboplastin time (aPTT
or PTT)

65
Q
  1. This laboratory parameter is used to measure the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants such as warfarin
    A. partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or
    PTT)
    B. prothrombin time (PT)
    C. thrombin time (TT)
    D. bleeding time (BT)
A

B. prothrombin time (PT)

66
Q
  1. This protein involved in blood coagulation
    is a Thiol-dependent transglutaminase that is activated by thrombin and stabilizes fibrin clot by covalent cross-linking
    A. Factor V
    B. Factor VII
    C. Factor VIII
    D. Factor XIII
A

D. Factor XIII

67
Q
  1. There are several hereditary bleeding disorders. The most common hereditary bleeding disorder is
    A. Hemophilia A
    B. Hemophilia B
    C. Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura
    D. von Willebrand disease
A

D. von Willebrand disease

68
Q
  1. Which laboratory finding is not expected among Hemophilia Patients?
    A. Prolonged Partial Thromboplastin
    Time (PTT)
    B. Prolonged Bleeding Time
    C. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT)
    D. Normal platelet
A

C. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT)

69
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true about Aspirin?
    A. It is an effective antiplatelet drug
    B. It acts by inhibiting production of
    Thromboxane A2
    C. It also inhibits production of
    prostacyclin
    D. ALL are TRUE
A

D. ALL are TRUE

70
Q
  1. The final common pathway in the complementary system involves which of the following?
    A. the formation of the membrane
    attack complex
    B. Increased vasodilation & permeability of capillary beds
    C. vasodilation & permeability of capillary beds
    D. All are true
A

A. the formation of the membrane
attack complex

71
Q
  1. Statement descriptive of Vitamin K
    A. Plays an essential role in preventing
    thrombosis
    B. Increases the coagulation time among
    newborn infants with hemorrhagic
    disease
    C. can be found in high concentration in
    cow or breast milk
    D. Is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
    E. Is a water-soluble vitamin
A

D. Is synthesized by intestinal bacteria

72
Q
  1. This inhibits the Carboxylation of Vitamin K–Dependent of Factors
    A. Coumarin Anticoagulants
    B. Vitamin K
    C. Heparin
    D. Protamine
A

A. Coumarin Anticoagulants

73
Q
  1. There are four naturally occurring thrombin inhibitors that exist in normal plasma. Which among these thrombin inhibitors is the most important since it which contributes approximately 75% of the activity?
    A. Antithrombin
    B. Alpha-2-Macroglobulin
    C. Heparin cofactor II
    D. Alpha-1-antitrypsin
A

A. Antithrombin

74
Q

Genetic disorders that lead to bleeding occur. Of these principal disorders is Hemophilia A which results from a deficiency of which coagulation factors?
A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
E. von Willebrand factor

A

B. Factor VIII

75
Q

Deficiency of this substance results to the most common inherited bleeding disorder
A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
E. von Willebrand factor

A

E. von Willebrand factor

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is mostly responsible for the metabolism of xenobiotics?
    A. Alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver
    B. Cytochrome P450 in hepatic tissues
    C. Mitochondrial DNA in the liver
    D. Hepatic macrophages
A

B. Cytochrome P450 in hepatic tissues

77
Q
  1. What is the most important outcome of xenobiotic metabolism?
    A. Conversion of the xenobiotic to a
    lipophilic precursor
    B. Activation of the xenobiotic for
    therapeutic purposes
    C. Increasing the hydrophilicity of the xenobiotic
    D. Xenobiotic conjugation with glutathione
A

C. Increasing the hydrophilicity of the xenobiotic

78
Q
  1. Which phase of xenobiotic metabolism involves the action of monoxygenases?
    A. Phase I only
    B. Phase II only
    C. Phase I and phase II
    D. Neither phase I nor phase II
A

A. Phase I only

79
Q
  1. The storage of highly hydrophobic xenobiotics would mostly be in the:
    A. Liver
    B. Kidney
    C. Muscle
    D. Adipose Tissues
A

D. Adipose Tissues

80
Q
  1. If a xenobiotic is a prodrug, what happens after phase I of its metabolism?
    A. It is converted to a carcinogen
    B. It becomes more lipophilic
    C. It becomes therapeutically active
    D. It is excreted unchanged in the urine
    or feces
A

C. It becomes therapeutically active

81
Q
  1. The gene for CYP1A1 is:
    A. CYP1A in bold letters
    B. CYP1A1 - underlined
    C. CYP1A1 – italicized
    D. CYP450
A

C. CYP1A1 – italicized

82
Q
  1. Which statement regarding human Cytochromes P450 is FALSE?
    A. All human cytochromes P450 are hemeproteins
    B. They have polymorphic types
    C. Their activity cannot be induced
    D. All 3 statements above are FALSE
A

C. Their activity cannot be induced

83
Q
  1. Which amino acid is not present in glutathione?
    A. G
    B. E
    C. C
    D. Q
84
Q
  1. An individual is found to have a deficiency in the enzyme epoxide hydroxylase. Thus, this person would be susceptible to which of the following conditions?
    A. Covalent binding of xenobiotics to cellular components
    B. Hapten formation
    C. Genetic mutation
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

85
Q
  1. Epoxide hydrolase: Match this to the following:
    A. SAM
    B. PAPS
    C. Glutathione
    D. Acetylation
    E. Dihydrodiol synthesis
A

E. Dihydrodiol synthesis

86
Q
  1. Sulfation:
    A. SAM
    B. PAPS
    C. Glutathione
    D. Acetylation
    E. Dihydrodiol synthesis
A

B. PAPS

3’-Phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate

87
Q
  1. Methyl group transfer:
    A. SAM
    B. PAPS
    C. Glutathione
    D. Acetylation
    E. Dihydrodiol synthesis
A

A. SAM

S-Adenosyl methionine

88
Q
  1. Intracellular reductant and antioxidant:
    A. SAM
    B. PAPS
    C. Glutathione
    D. Acetylation
    E. Dihydrodiol synthesis
A

C. Glutathione

89
Q
  1. Isoniazed metabolism:
    A. SAM - S-Adenosyl methionine
    B. PAPS -3’-Phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
    C. Glutathione
    D. Acetylation
    E. Dihydrodiol synthesis
A

D. Acetylation

90
Q
  1. Conjugation with glucuronate: Match the reaction involved.
    A. the reaction defined belongs to phase
    I of xenobiotic metabolism
    B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A

B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism

91
Q
  1. Activation of procarcinogens
    A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism
    B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A

A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism

92
Q
  1. Addition of hydroxyl groups
    A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism
    B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A

A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism

93
Q
  1. Gamma-glutamylcysteinylglycine
    A. the reaction defined belongs to phase
    I of xenobiotic metabolism
    B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A

B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism

94
Q
  1. Hydrolysis catalyzed by esterases
    A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism
    B. the reaction defined belongs to phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
A

A. the reaction defined belongs to phase I of xenobiotic metabolism

95
Q

Benzopyrene: Match the xenobiotic effect with the correct item
A. CELL INJURY
B. HAPTEN FORMATION
C. MUTATION

A

C. MUTATION

96
Q
  1. Transfer of multiple ADP-ribose units on DNA binding proteins
    A. CELL INJURY
    B. HAPTEN FORMATION
    C. MUTATION
A

A. CELL INJURY

Transfer of multiple ADP-ribose units on DNA binding proteins

Covalent binding of xenobiotic metabolites

97
Q
  1. Antigen-antibody reaction
    A. CELL INJURY
    B. HAPTEN FORMATION
    C. MUTATION
A

B. HAPTEN FORMATION

Antigen-antibody reaction

Autoimmune disease

98
Q
  1. Autoimmune disease
    A. CELL INJURY
    B. HAPTEN FORMATION
    C. MUTATION
A

B. HAPTEN FORMATION

Antigen-antibody reaction

Autoimmune disease

99
Q
  1. Covalent binding of xenobiotic metabolites
    A. CELL INJURY
    B. HAPTEN FORMATION
    C. MUTATION
A

A. CELL INJURY

Transfer of multiple ADP-ribose units on DNA binding proteins

Covalent binding of xenobiotic metabolites

100
Q
  1. When an individual is a slow acetylator:
    A. He is unable to metabolize xenobiotics
    B. The xenobiotic stays in the body for a longer period
    C. The patient is unable to synthesize S-adenosylmethionine
    D. All of the above
A

B. The xenobiotic stays in the body for a longer period

Biochemisty Main (29 decks)

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