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Biochemisty Main > 2nd Sem Final Exam (2025) > Flashcards

2nd Sem Final Exam (2025) Flashcards

1
Q

1.Transporter of lipid that is lowest in density but largest in size. It contains the highest percentage of lipid and the smallest of protein:
a. Chylomicron
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL

A

a. Chylomicron

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2
Q

2.Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA:
A. Externally
B. Internally
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

B. Internally

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3
Q

3.A plasmid consisting of its own DNA with a foreign DNA inserted into it is called:
A. junk DNA
B. recombinant DNA
C. non-coding DNA
D. none of the above

A

B. recombinant DNA

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4
Q

4.The first human protein produced through recombinant DNA technology is:
A. somatostatin
B. erythropoeitin
C. interferon
D. insulin

A

A. somatostatin

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5
Q

5.Prior to the production of recombinant insulin, insulin obtained from cows and pigs were given to patients. Some of the problems faced by this treatment was:
A. the insulin was not active
B. in some humans it induced antibody production
C. it reduces the weight of patients
D. loss of memory power

A

B. in some humans it induced antibody production

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6
Q

6.An example for autonomously replicating mini chromosome is:
A. virus
B. plasmid
C. phage
D. lichen

A

B. plasmid

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7
Q

7.Electrophoresis, a technique used in DNA fingerprinting helps to separate:
A. Tissues
B. DNA segments
C. cells from DNA
D. RNA from DNA

A

B. DNA segments

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8
Q

8.cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means
A. competetive DNA
B. complementary DNA
C. chemical DNA
D. complex DNA

A

B. complementary DNA

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9
Q

9.A segment of DNA that reads from the same forward and backward is called:
A. plasmid DNA
B. palindromic DNA
C. complementary DNA
D. copy DNA

A

B. palindromic DNA

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10
Q

10.What is an important function of fiber?
A. It adds flavor to food
B. It aids in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
C. It can bind toxigenic substances
D. It is an important energy source in the absence of lipids

A

C. It can bind toxigenic substances

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11
Q

11.What is the metabolic fate of the carbon skeleton of amino acids upon degradation?
A. Used for ATP synthesis
B. Used for fatty acid synthesis
C. Used for glucose synthesis
D. All of the above
E. None of the above - it is converted to urea

A

D. All of the above

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12
Q

12.How many nitrogen atoms does urea have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

B. Two

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13
Q

13.A defect in the enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthase I results in:
A. Hyperammonemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Hypercitrullinemia
D. Hyperammonuria

A

A. Hyperammonemia

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14
Q

14.Amino acid oxidases remove nitrogen from amino acids in the form of
A. Urea
B. Ammonia
C. Uric acid
D. Glutamate

A

B. Ammonia

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15
Q

15.In amino acid catabolism, the a amino nitrogen is:
A. used as a substrate for glycogenesis
B. converted to a less toxic substance substance in the liver
C. excreted in the form of uric acid in humans
D. used as a substrate for fatty acid synthesis

A

B. converted to a less toxic substance substance in the liver

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16
Q

16.Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyzes what type of reaction?
A. Reductive biosynthesis
B. Transketolation
C. Methyl group transfer
D. Oxidative deamination

A

D. Oxidative deamination

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17
Q

17.A patient was said to be gaining nitrogen and is in a state of positive nitrogen balance. Which condition fulfills this criteria?
A. An elderly patient in a cachectic state
B. Child undergoing a growth spurt
C. Infant with protein energy malnutrition
D. A post-partum mother

A

B. Child undergoing a growth spurt

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18
Q

18.Absence of this enzyme causes dietary cellulose to remain undigested.
a. glucoamylase
b. lactase B-glycosidase
c. sucroamylase
d. Trehalase

A

b. lactase B-glycosidase

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19
Q

19.Procarcinogens need to be activated by an enzyme to become which of the following?
A. True carcinogens
B. Pre-carcinogens
C. Ultimate carcinogens
D. All of the above

A

C. Ultimate carcinogens

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20
Q

20.A mechanism of oncogene activation where in a piece of one chromosome is split off and joined to another like in Burkitt’s lymphoma
A. Promoter insertion
B. Enhancer insertion
C. Gene amplification
D. Chromosomal translocation

A

D. Chromosomal translocation

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21
Q

21.Calcitonin is a tumor biomarker that is associated with
A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
B. Myeloma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Germ cell tumor

A

A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

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22
Q

22.Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, belongs to which if the following classes of drugs?
A. Inhibitors of hormone receptors
B. Monoclonal antibodies
C. Inhibitors of signal transduction
D. Anti-angiogenesis agents

A

D. Anti-angiogenesis agents

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23
Q

23.Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually results from:
A. A deletion of a tumor suppressor gene
B. A translocation of a tumor suppressor gene
C. An inversion involving a tumor suppressor gene
D. Cytokine activation of a tumor suppressor gene

A

A. A deletion of a tumor suppressor gene

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24
Q

24.Growth of new blood vessels in and around tumors is called:
A. Invasiveness
B. Dedifferentiation
C. Metastasis
D. Angiogenesis

A

D. Angiogenesis

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25
Q

25.Which hormone/s will be released upon stimulation of the Thyroid stimulating hormone?
A. Thyroxine
B. Triiodothyronine
C. Thyrotropin releasing hormone
D. Only A and B

A

D. Only A and B

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26
Q

26.The following are true of steroid hormone action, EXCEPT:
a. Hydrophobic steroid hormones bound to plasma protein carriers diffuse into the target cell
b. Steroid hormone receptors are in the cytoplasm or nucleus
c. The receptor-hormone complex binds to DNA and affects the genes
d. Activated genes produce new mRNA that moves back into the ctoplasm

A

a. Hydrophobic steroid hormones bound to plasma protein carriers diffuse into the target cell

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27
Q

27.TRUE of primary hypersecretion due to problem with adrenal cortex:
a. Low CRH levels
b. Low ACTH levels
c. High cortisol levels
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

28
Q

28.After an overnight fast, a diabetic woman feels nauseous and skips breakfast but takes her insulin shot. This results in:
a. Increased glycogenolysis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Increased lipolysis
d. Glycosuria

A

b. Hypoglycemia

29
Q

29.Hormonal stimulation of the formation of the second messenger IP3 leads to the release of which other intracellular messenger?
a. Cyclic AMP
b. Prostaglandin
c. Calcium
d. Leukotriene

A

c. Calcium

30
Q

30.The following hormones use cAMP as a second messenger, EXCEPT:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Glucagon
d. Estrogen

A

d. Estrogen

31
Q

31.Hormone that act on cells near the secreting cell:
a. Endocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Autocrine
d. Neurocrine

A

b. Paracrine

32
Q

32.Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions?
A. Hydroxylations
B. Dehydrations
C. Decarboxylations
D. Carboxylations

A

D. Carboxylations

33
Q

33.If there is a dysfunction in the oxidase enzyme system (like cytochrome oxidase, ascorbic acid oxidase), which mineral is most likely affected?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Chloride
D. Selenium

A

B. Copper

34
Q

34.A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes:
A. Cheilosis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Beriberi
D. Scurvy

A

B. Pernicious anemia

35
Q

35.All the following vitamins give rise to co factors that are phosphorylated in the active form, except:
A. pyridoxine
B. niacin
C. lipoamide
D. riboflavin

A

C. lipoamide

36
Q

36.All the following statements describing vitamin K are true, except that:
A. it is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
B. it prevents thrombosis
C. it is obtained by eating spinach and cabbage
D. it is required for liver synthesis of prothrombin

A

B. it prevents thrombosis

37
Q

37.All the following statements are true of vitamin A, except:
A. it is synthesized in skin
B. it promotes maintenance of epithelial tissue
C. it is used to treat severe acne
D. it promotes maintenance of vision

A

A. it is synthesized in skin

38
Q
  1. This is a toxic protein aggregate that is the hallmark of diseases such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s Disease:
    A. Amyloid
    B. Schiff base
    C. Amylopectin
    D. Amadori intermediate
A

A. Amyloid

39
Q

39.What is the role of telomeres in the aging process?
A. Telomeres cause a progressive slowing down of an individual’s heart rate when they accumulate with age
B. In theory, telomeres generate protein aggregates which when expressed will cause DNA damage
C. Telomeres generate Okazaki fragments, which are not detected by DNA polymerases during cell replication of DNA
D. Telomeres shorten after every cell division until senescence sets in

A

D. Telomeres shorten after every cell division until senescence sets in

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important cofactor for vitamins C, E, and Glutathione Peroxidase in the neutralization of free radicals?
    A. Copper
    B. NADPH
    C. Selenium
    D. Bioflavonoids
A

B. NADPH

41
Q

41.True of cytochrome P450:
A. It is a selenium-containing enzyme
B. It catalyzes phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
C. It catalyzes phase II of xenobiotic metabolism
D. It helps synthesize steroid hormones

A

D. It helps synthesize steroid hormones

42
Q

42.The main goal of xenobiotic metabolism:
A. Avoid liver catabolism to enable a higher bioavailability
B. Render the molecule water-soluble
C. Excrete the xenobiotic via the fecal route
D. Increase the lipophilic character of the xenobiotic for better cellular absorption

A

B. Render the molecule water-soluble

43
Q

43.In general, xenobiotic drugs are manufactured as which of the following to facilitate absorption?
A. Water-soluble
B. Fat-soluble
C. Highly polar
D. Hydrophilic

A

B. Fat-soluble

44
Q
  1. The hypervariable region of antibody consists of
    A. amino acids that form antigen binding site
    B. phospholipids that form antigen binding
    site
    C. oligosaccharides that form antigen binding site
    D. a part of the constant region of heavy and light chains
A

A. amino acids that form antigen binding site

45
Q

45.Monomers of certain immunoglobulins are joined by:
A. variable chain
B. constant chain
C. J-chain
D. all of the choices

A

C. J-chain

46
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is true regarding Fc region:
    A. fragment crystallization & is the constant region
    B. fragment constant & is the variable region
    C. fragment crystallization and is the variable region
    D. fragment crystalization & has both variable & constant region
A

A. fragment crystallization & is the constant region

47
Q

47.Which is not a function of IgG?
A. Major antibody in serum
B. First antibody type produced against an antigen during the primary antibody response
C. Activates or fixes complement
D. Involved in opsonization

A

B. First antibody type produced against an antigen during the primary antibody response

48
Q

48.Which is the most efficient complement fixing class of antibody?
A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgG

A

C. IgM

49
Q

49.Antigen binding sites of an immunoglobulin are located in
A. light chain alone
B. heavy chain alone
C. Fc region of the antibody
D. Fab regions of the antibody

A

D. Fab regions of the antibody

50
Q

50.The final common pathway in the complementary system involves which of the following?
A. the formation of the membrane attack complex
B. Increased vasodilation & permeability of capillary beds
C. vasodilation & permeability of capillary beds
D. All are true

A

A. the formation of the membrane attack complex

51
Q

51 .Activation of which factor provides an important link between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the coagulation cascade?
A. Activation of which factor provides an important link between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the coagulation cascade?
B. Factor IV
C. Factor V
D. Factor X

A

D. Factor X

52
Q

52.Which of the following molecules from the endothelium inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing levels of cAMP?
A. Nitric oxide
B. Prostacyclin
C. ADPase
D. Thrombomodulin

A

B. Prostacyclin

53
Q

53.Which is not a feature of von Willebrand factor?
A. Glues platelets to damaged endothelium
B. Binds and protects Factor IX
C. is secreted by endothelial cells into the plasma
D. All of the above

A

B. Binds and protects Factor IX

54
Q

54.This stage of hemostasis is considered to be the primary hemostatic mechanism:
A. Vascular phase
B. Platelet phase
C. Coagulation phase
D. Bleeding Phase

A

B. Platelet phase

55
Q

55.Thrombosis occurs when the endothelium lining the blood vessels is damaged or removed. Which among the following is not characteristic of the resulting red thrombus from this event?
A. Predominantly composed of erythrocytes
B. Consists primarily of platelets and fibrin
C. It forms at the site of an injury or abnormal vessel wall, particularly in areas where blood flow is stagnant
D. Seen mostly in venous areas

A

B. Consists primarily of platelets and fibrin

56
Q

56.Which statement is incorrect?
a. Gene regulation is fundamental to cell specialization in multicellular organisms
b. Patterns of gene expression established during the early developmental stages are not permanent, enabling one cell type to differentiate in a different cell type later in the life cycle
c. Some gene family members are expressed at different phases of development
d. Post transcriptional and post translational processing events can regulate the synthesis rate of gene products.

A

b. Patterns of gene expression established during the early developmental stages are not permanent, enabling one cell type to differentiate in a different cell type later in the life cycle

57
Q

57.Which of the following statements is true of RNA interference?
a. is a normal way for organisms to regulate gene expression
b. is a mechanism for combating virus infection in plants
c. occurs only in vertebrates
d. is already used therapeutically in many disorders

A

a. is a normal way for organisms to regulate gene expression

58
Q

58.Which of the following is true of the lac operon in E. Coli?
a. The operon is only switched on in the absence of lactose in the growth medium
b. The lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA
c. The enzyme B galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac repressor is bound to the operator
d. The promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor

A

b. The lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA

59
Q

59.Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp operon expression by attenuation is correct?
a. The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes related to tryptophan synthesis
b. The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues
c. Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of the mRNA transcript
d. Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript

A

d. Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript

60
Q

60.In terms of lac operon regulation, what happens when E. coli is grown in medium containing glucose and lactose?
a. both CAP and the lac repressor are bound to the DNA
b. CAP is bound to the DNA but the lac repressor is not
c. Lac repressor is bound to the DNA but
CAP is not
d. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor gene are bound to the DNA

A

d. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor gene are bound to the DNA

61
Q

61.A type of base pair substitution that converts purine-pyrimidine to a pyrimidine-purine
A. Transition
B. Base analogs
C. Transversions
D. Viruses

A

C. Transversions

62
Q

62.This mutation result from deletion or insertion of nucleotides in DNA that generates altered mRNAs
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

D. Frameshift mutations

63
Q

63.The type of mutation that only affects the individual in which the mutation arises
A. Somatic mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Germline mutations
D. Frameshift mutations

A

A. Somatic mutations

64
Q
  1. This type of mutation may have no detectable effect because of the degeneracy of the genetic code
    A. Silent mutations
    B. Missense mutations
    C. Nonsense mutations
    D. Frameshift mutations
A

A. Silent mutations

65
Q

65.This type of mutation results in the premature termination of amino acid incorporation into a peptide chain and leads to a shorter polypeptide chain
A. Silent mutations
B. Missense mutations
C. Nonsense mutations
D. Splice site mutations

A

C. Nonsense mutations

66
Q
  1. What is the role of the A site in translation?
    A. binds to the tRNA holding the growing polypeptide chain of amino acids.
    B. binds to incoming to aminoacyl-tRNA which has the anti-codon for the corresponding codon in the mRNA
    C. binds to the amino acid that corresponds to the amino terminal end of the growing peptide chain
    D. binds to the t-RNA on the acceptor arm of the translation exit site
A

B. binds to incoming to aminoacyl-tRNA which has the anti-codon for the corresponding codon in the mRNA

Biochemisty Main (29 decks)

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