(LE3) Practical Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are your two types of immunity?

A

Acquired

Innate (genetic factors)
- mutations or selective advantage

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2
Q

What are the two types of acquired immunity?

A

Active (own antibodies)
- memory (long-lived)

Passive (ready-made antibodies)
- temporary
- no memory component

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3
Q

What are two types of active immunity?

A

Natural - exposure to infectious agent

Artificial - immunization

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4
Q

What are two types of passive immunity?

A

Natural (maternal antibodies)
- e.g. placenta and breast milk

Artificial (antibodies from other sources)
- e.g. horse serum for rattlesnake bites

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5
Q

What is a vaccine?

A

suspension of microbes or microbial Ag that induce immunity in host without causing disease

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6
Q

What are the types of whole-cell vaccines?

A

Inactivated (killed)

Attenuated (alive, weakened)

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7
Q

What are the types of acellular vaccines?

A

Toxoid (inactivated toxin)

Recombinant Subunit (genetically engineered)

Conjugated (Polysaccharide Ag + Toxoid)
- Weak antigen (weak memory), so combined with Toxoid
- e.g. TdaP

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8
Q

What are examples of a live attenuated vaccine?

A

Oral Polio vaccine
Measles
Smallpox

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9
Q

What are examples of an inactivated vaccine?

A

Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)

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10
Q

What are examples of subunit (purified antigen) vaccines?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib)
Hepatitis B

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11
Q

What are examples of toxoid vaccines?

A

Tetanus toxoid
Diphtheria toxoid

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12
Q

How do the effectiveness and safety of inactivated vaccines compare to attenuated ones?

A

Inactivated: may damage the Ag and have poor efficacy

Attenuated: have the possibility of conversion back to virulent form (reversion)

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13
Q

How do the two forms of Polio vaccines compare?

A

IPV (injectable)
- Dr. Salk
- really safe
- 60-70% effective

OPV (oral)
- Dr. Sabin
- Really safe
- > 90% effective
- Reversion. 1/500k children

Both combined to increase safety and efficacy. IPV first, then OPV

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14
Q

What other factors are considered when creating vaccines?

A
  • cost
  • shelf life
  • strains of pathogen covered (e.g. flu, HPV and covid)
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15
Q

What must be true for a disease to be a candidate for eradication?

A

Diseases with human-only reservoirs: Polio, Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Smallpox (1980)

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16
Q

What is serology?

A

Use of a patient’s blood for diagnostic tests (plasma minus clotting factors)
- might detect Ab in serum
- might detect Ag in serum

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17
Q

What are the limitations of serology?

A
  • Ab not produced right away (false negative)
  • can’t distinguish between current and past infection or vaccination
  • intracellular Ag won’t be detected
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18
Q

How do agglutination reaction diagnostic tests work?

A
  • use cells and particles covered in specific Ag
  • add patient’s serum which may or may not have Ab to those Ag

Ab present in serum = agglutination (pos)
Ab not present in serum = no agglutination (neg)

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19
Q

Based on this test, what is this patient’s blood type? What antibodies do they have? Who can they receive blood from?

A

AB-positive

no antibodies

Universal acceptor

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20
Q

Based on this test, what is this patient’s blood type? What surface antigens do they have? Who can they receive blood from?

A

O positive

Rh antigen

Accept O positive and O negative

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21
Q

What is RPR test used for? How does it work?

A

Syphilis
- type of agglutination test
- screening test
- looks for reagin (non-specific Ab) antibody in blood
- charcoal beads bind with reagin Ag

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22
Q

How does precipitin test work?

A

-serum added to bottom of tube
- add solution of antigen
- if Ab present, there will be visible clumping and appear clooudy

23
Q

How do Fluorescent Ab tests work?

A

Use fluorescently-tagged antibodies to bind to specific molecules in sample

24
Q

How do direct and indirect FA testing differ?

A

Direct FA - detects Ag in sample

Indirect FA - detects Ab in sample

25
Q

What is ELISA testing?

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbant Assay
- used to detect and measure Ab or Ag in patient serum

26
Q

What does direct ELISA look for?

A

Detects antigen in patient’s serum
- enzyme-linked Ab binds patient’s Ag
- e.g. HCG in pregnancy test

27
Q

What does indirect ELISA look for?

A

Detects Ab in patient’s serum
- enzyme-linked Ab binds patient’s Ab
- e.g. HIV test

28
Q

What are the steps for performing the ELISA test?

A
29
Q

What are hypersensitivities?

A

Allergies. Exaggerated immune response to what should be a relatively harmless Ag (allergen)

30
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivities?

A

Types I, II, III - Humoral (involve Ab)

Type IV - Cell-mediated (involves Tc cells)

31
Q

What is type I hypersensitivity?

A

Anaphylaxis

32
Q

What happens in your first exposure to allergen in type I hypersensitivity?

A

Sensitization
- IgE antibodies made instead of IgG against allergen
- IgE Ab bind to mast cells and basophils

33
Q

What happens during the second and subsequent exposure to an allergen in type I hypersensitivity?

A
  • allergen binds to 2 IgE Ab
  • Mast cells/basophils release histamine, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, etc.
  • Inflammatory symptoms appear immediately
34
Q

What is localized hypersensitivity?

A

only affects the allergen’s region of entry

35
Q

What is systemic hypersensitivity?

A

allergen gets into blood and creates an all-over inflammatory reaction
- anaphylactic shock

36
Q

What is the treatment for type I hypersensitivity?

A
  • anti-inflammatories, anti- histamines
  • Epinephrine
37
Q

How does desensitization work for Type I hypersensitivity?

A
  • application of small doses of allergen
  • causes Ab class to switch from IgE to IgG (doesn’t bind to mast cells and basophils)
38
Q

What is type II hypersensitivity?

A

Cytotoxic reactions
- Ab (IgG) binds the allergen and activates the complement system to kill those cells (MAC)

39
Q

What is an example of type II hypersensitivity? What is the treatment?

A

Hemolytic disease of newborn
- blood mixes when the placenta detaches at birth (anti-D)

Treatment: RhoGAM- injection prevents sensitization (given during pregnancy and at birth)

40
Q

What is Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complex reactions
- Ab-Ag complex settles in tissues, triggers inflammatory reactions

e.g. Glomerulonephritis following untreated Streptococcus infection
- M proteins + IgG Ab complex settle in kidneys

41
Q

What is type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Cell mediated

1st exposure: sensitization
- Tc cells (memory T cells) recognize the allergen

2nd and subsequent exposures
- Tc cells migrate to site of exposure
- delayed reaction (hours to days)

42
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder?

A

Occur when the immune system sees self-antigens as foreign and attacks them
- often triggered by traumatic event (even vaccine)
- usually occur later in life
- 2/3 of sufferers are women

43
Q

What are the possible origins of autoimmune disorders?

A
  • problem with clonal deletion
  • non-self Ag similar to some self Ag -> generation of Ab that bind to both
44
Q

What is type II autoimmune disorder?

A

IgG attach to cells/tissues

45
Q

What is Grave’s disease?

A

Type II Autoimmune

Ab bind TSH receptors in Thyroid -> causes hyperthyroidism

46
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Type II Autoimmune

Ab block ACh receptors at neuromuscular junction -> flaccid paralysis

47
Q

What is type III autoimmune disorder?

A

Ab-Ag complexes form

48
Q

What is Lupus Erythematosus?

A

type III autoimmune disorder

complexes settle in many tissues “butterfly rash)

49
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

type III autoimmune disorder

complexes settle in joints

50
Q

What are type IV autoimmune disorders?

A

Tc cells attack normal cells

51
Q

What is thyroiditis?

A

type IV autoimmune disorder

leads to hypothyroidism
- less TH

52
Q

What is Type I diabetes?

A

type IV autoimmune disorders

Islet of Langerhans cells (normally produce insulin) killed in the pancreas

53
Q

What is immunosuppression?

A

partial or complete suppression of the immune system

Genetic - SCID syndrome
Acuired - AIDS

54
Q

What type of immunosuppressant medications can be taken to treat autoimmune disorders?

A

Corticosteroids (Cortisol)
- dampens innate defenses

Cyclosporin
- inhibits B-cell and T-cell activation and differentiation