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Finak Year 3 > Last Yr Final > Flashcards

Last Yr Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following innervates intrinsic muscles of the tongue?
A. Hypoglossal
B. Mandibular
C. Facial
D. Lingual
E. Glossopharyngeal

A

A. Hypoglossal

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2
Q

Which of the following abdominal organ is retroperitoncal?
A. Stomach
B. Ileum
C. Pancreas
D. Transverse colon
E. Liver

A

Pancreas

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following artery is the branch of the celiac trunk?
    A. Superior mesenteric artery
    B. Common hepatic artery
    C. Renal artery
    D. Jejunal arteries
    E. Lumbar arteries
A

B. Common hepatic artery

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the abdominal muscles located anterolaterally?
    A. Rectus abdominis
    B. Psoas major
    C. Internal oblique
    D. Transversus abdominis
    E. External oblique
A

B. Psoas major

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following arrangement is right for the structures of the renal hilum from anterior to posterior?
    A. Renal pelvis - Renal artery - Renal vein
    B. Renal vein - Renal pelvis - Renal artery
    C. Renal artery - Renal vein - Renal pelvis
    D. Renal vein - Renal artery - Renal pelvis
    E. Renal artery - Renal pelvis - Renal vein
A

D. Renal vein - Renal artery - Renal pelvis

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a female internal genital organ?
    A. Ovary
    B. Vagina
    C. Clitoris
    D. Uterus
    E. Uterine tubes
A

C. Clitoris

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely injured during thyroidectomy surgery?
    A. Phrenic nerve
    B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
    C. Internal jugular vein
    D. Common carotid artery
    E. Superior laryngeal artery
A

B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following organs is supplied by the celiac artery during embryological development?
    A. Appendix
    B. Transverse colon
    C. Ileum
    D. Proximal duodenum
    E. Descending colon
A

D. Proximal duodenum

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are correct?
    I.Von Ebner glands are found in fungiform papillae.
    Il. Sublingual salivary glands contain both serous and conspicuous mucous acini.
    Ill. Submucosal glands are only seen in the duodenum but not in the esophagus.
    IV. Pylorus has a simple branched tubular gland.
    V. In the cardia region, the number of gastric pits is less compared to other parts.
    VI. Auerbach nerve plexus locates in the submucosa.
    VIl. Fundus is the rich region for chief and parietal cells.

A. Il. IV. V. VII
B. Il . IIl. V. VI
C. IIl. V. VI
D. II. III- IV. V
E. I- IV. V. VI

A

A. Il. IV. V. VII

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following structure and origin pairings is correct?
    Metanephric mesoderm, Ureteric bud
    A. Bowman’s capsule, Proximal convoluted tubule. Loop of Henle (Renal pelvis, Minor calyx, Collecting duct)
    B. Renal pelvis, Bowman’s capsule, Loop of Henle (Pars recta of the distal tubule, Major calyx,
    Minor calyx)
    C.
A

A

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11
Q
  1. A 30-year-old pregnant woman asks for information regarding gender determination in her unborn child. You explain that the SRY gene on the Y chromosome encodes a protein that determines male gonadal sex and that female reproductive are inhibited from developing in male embryos by the Mullerian-inhibiting factor (MIF).
    Which of the following cells in the embryo and fetus secrete this glycoprotein hormone?
    A. Follicular cells
    B. Leydig cells
    C. Mesothelial cells
    D. Primordial germ cells
    E. Sertoli cells
A

Sertoli cells

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12
Q
  1. Patients with Cushing disease are usually obese and exhibit osteoporosis and muscle wasting. Male patients become impotent, and female patients havelamenorrhea. Which of the following is the cause of organ the disease?
    A. Tumor of the suprarenal medulla
    B. Tumor of the thyroid gland
    C. Tumor of the pituitary gland
    D. Reduced ACTH production
    E. Reduced cortisol production
A

C. Tumor of the pituitary gland

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following explains the normal physiological mechanism for penile erection?
    A. Dilation of helicine arteries
    B. Dilation of spiral arteries
    C. Vasoconstriction of helicine arteries
    D. Vasoconstriction of spiral arteries
    E. Vasoconstriction of trabecular arteries
A

A. Dilation of helicine arteries

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14
Q
  1. A couple presents with a 2-year history of infertility. Oocytes and sperm are subsequently collected for in vitro fertilization. Which of the following cytologic findings provides unambiguous evidence of fertilization?
    A. Dispersal of the corona radiata
    B. Formation of the second polar body
    C. Movement of the female pronucleus
    D. Sperm acrosome reaction
    E. Thinning of the zona pellucida
A

B. Formation of the second polar body

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15
Q
  1. Based on the history and physical examination, a patient is suspected to have biliary obstruction. An increase in which of the following would support this suspicion?
    A. Bile salt enterohepatic circulation
    B. Dark reddish stool
    C. Destruction of red blood cells
    D. Lipid content in feces
    E. Unconjugated bilirubin
A

D. Lipid content in feces

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16
Q
  1. A pharmaceutical company is developing a drug that activates proteolytic digestive enzymes that are released as zymogens by the pancreas. Which of the following most important natural activators does the company want to mimic?
    A. Bile pigment
    B. Brush border peptidase
    C. Enterokinase
    D. Hydrochloric acid
A

C. Enterokinase

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17
Q
  1. A 40-year-old man undergoes bariatric surgery for the treatment of morbid obesity. Levels of which of the following substances would be expected to be reduced in his brain following recovery?
    A. Glucose
    B. Ghrelin
    C. Leptin
    D. Pro-opiomelanocortin
    E. Neurotensin
A

B. Ghrelin

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18
Q
  1. In which portion of the nephron (labeled A-E on the image) will the tubular fluid osmolality remain constant in the presence of antidiuretic hormone?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 5
A

A

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19
Q
  1. A severely dehydrated patient is admitted to the emergency department. Which of th following would not be elevated in this patient?
    A. Plasma atrial natriuretic peptide
    B. Plasma renin
    C. Plasma ADH
    D. Sympathetic nervous system activity
    E. Plasma aldosterone
A

A. Plasma atrial natriuretic peptide

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20
Q
  1. Nitric oxide synthase contributes to erection by:
    A. Raising cAMP levels that relax smooth muscles.
    B. Blocking phosphodiesterases to increase cGMP levels
    C. Activating soluble guanylate cyclases to increase cGMP levels.
    D. Raising intracellular Ca2+ concentrations.
    E. Raising IP3 levels relax smooth muscles.
A

C. Activating soluble guanylate cyclases to increase cGMP levels.

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21
Q
  1. A 50-year-old man was involved in an accident and a brain hemorrhage occurs. Blood collection in the sella turcica compresses the portal vessels and disrupts the blood flow through the hypothalamus’ to the antepituitary gland. Which of the following hormone may increase in this patient?
    A. TSH
    B. LH
    C. FSH
    D. Prolactin
    E. GH
A

D. Prolactin

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22
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman is breastfeeding her infant. During suckling, which hormonal response is expected in the woman?
    A. Increased secretion of ADH from the supraoptic nuclei
    B. Increased secretion of ADH from the paraventricular nuclei
    C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nuclei
    D. Decreased secretion of neurophysin
    E. Increased plasma levels of both oxytocin and ADH
A

C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nuclei

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23
Q
  1. A 56-year-old male patient, working as a stock breeder, attended our infectious diseases department with swelling, erythema, and painless black eschar (picture) of his left hand, of
    1-week duration. Which of the following microbiological and biochemical definitions correctly describes the possible microorganism causing the above clinic? (Pic)

A. Aerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium
B. Anaerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium
C. Aerobic, gram-negative, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium
D. Aerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, non-spore-forming, motile, hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium
E. Anaerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium

A

A. Aerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium

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24
Q
  1. A 27-year-old woman presents to her physician with popular lesions on her right thumb.
    She states she recently was scratched by a stray cat. Physical examination is notable for several scratches on her right hand and enlarged axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection?
    A. Bartonella henselae
    B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
    C. Pasteurella multocida
    D. Staphylococcus aureus
    E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A

A. Bartonella henselae

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases is likely to be transmitted through rodent urine?
    A. Leptospirosis
    B. Plague
    C. Lyme disease
    D. Cat scratch disease
    E. Salmonellosis
A

A. Leptospirosis

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26
Q
  1. Which one of the following groups of antimicrobial agents acts on microorganisms by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
    A. Fluoroquinolones
    B. Aminoglycosides
    C. Penicillins
    D. Macrolides
    E. Polymyxins
A

C. Penicillins

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describes the reverse blood typing test?
    A. Patient’s serum is tested for anti-A and anti-B antibodies using known A and B red cells.
    B. Patient’s serum is tested for anti-A and anti-B antibodies using known O red cells.
    C. Patient’s red blood cells are tested for A and B antigens using known anti-A and anti-B
    sera.
    D. Patient’s serum is tested for anti-A antibody using known A red cells.
    E. Patient’s serum is tested for anti-B antibody using known B red cells.
A

A. Patient’s serum is tested for anti-A and anti-B antibodies using known A and B red cells.

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a medical indication for the meningococcal vaccine?
    A. Complement component deficiency
    B. Functional or anatomical asplenia
    C. Complement inhibitor medication
    D. HIV infection
    E. Pregnancy
A

E. Pregnancy

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?
    A. Giardiasis
    B. Hydatidosis
    C. Ascariasis
    D. Schistosomiasis
    E. Lymphatic filariasis
A

A

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnant women?
    A. Influenza
    B. Streptococcus pneumonia
    C. Varicella zoster virus
    D. Bordetella pertussis
    E. Haemophilus influenza type B
A

C. Varicella zoster virus

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31
Q
  1. A 19-year-old young man presents with a history of diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever a few days after acquiring a pet turtle. Which of the following is the likely cause of his diarrhea?
    A. Campylobacter jejuni
    B. E. coli 0157:H7
    C. Salmonella spp
    D. Shigella spp
    E. Vibrio cholera
A

C. Salmonella spp

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32
Q
  1. A young woman presents with malaise, fever, and loss of appetite. On examination her sclera reveals jaundice. Initial testing reveals negative tests for HBs antigen and anti-HBs antibody. Which of the following tests would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis of acute infection with hepatitis B virus?
    A. Delta antigen
    B. Anti-HBc IgM antibody
    C. Anti-HBe antibody
    D. HBe antigen
    B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
A

B. Anti-HBc IgM antibody

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33
Q
  1. A 22-year-old male presents with a painless rectal ulcer that has been present for 2 weeks.
    There is inguinal adenopathy but this has not ulcerated. There is no penile discharge.
    Which of the following is the most likely cause?
    A. Herpes simplex virus
    B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    C. Treponema pallidum
    D. Lice
    E. Haemophilus ducrevi
A

C. Treponema pallidum

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34
Q
  1. Empiric treatment of an asymptomatic urinary tract infection is not recommended. What is the one exception to this rule?
    A. School age children under 18 years of age
    B. Elderly men 75+
    C. Elderly women 75+
    D. Pregnant women
    E. Young women of childbearing age
A

D. Pregnant women

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35
Q
  1. A male child was born at 35 weeks, and microcephaly was confirmed with other congenital abnormalities. The mother had gone on a holiday to Brazil at 12 weeks of pregnancy. During her 2-week holiday, she describes a short illness of headache, muscle pain, and swelling in the small joints of her hands. The illness was self-resolved. Which of the following do you want to test first?
    A. Zika virus
    B. Varicella zoster virus
    C. Herpes simplex viruses
    D. HIV
    E. Cytomegalovirus
A

A. Zika virus

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36
Q
  1. How long should brucellosis be treated at least?
    A. Two weeks
    B. Three weeks
    C. Four weeks
    D. Five weeks
    E. Six weeks
A

E. Six weeks

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is among the most freeze-sensitive vaccines?
    A. TdaP
    B. Varicella
    C. MMR vaccine
    D. Rabies vaccine
    E. Oral polio vaccine
A

A. TdaP

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs inhibits bacterial nucleic acid synthesis by blocking the production of tetrahydrofolic acid?
    A. Ceftriaxone
    B. Erythromycin
    C. Metronidazole
    D. Rifampin
    E. Trimethoprim
A

E. Trimethoprim

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39
Q
  1. The glutamate produced by the removal of amine groups from amino acids by the transamination step is then deaminated by oxidative deamination using which one of the following enzymes?
    A. Alanine aminotransferase
    B. Aspartate aminotransferase
    C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
    D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
    E. Glutaminase
A

D. Glutamate dehydrogenase

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40
Q
  1. Which enzyme activity deficiency in the pentose phosphate pathway leads to the hemolysis of erythrocytes?
    A. Glucokinase
    B. Hexokinase
    C. Aldolase
    D. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
    E. Pyruvate kinase
A

D. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following metabolite integrates glucose and fatty acid metabolism?
    A. Acetyl CoA
    B. Pyruvate
    C. Citrate
    D. Lactate
    E. Fumarate
A

A. Acetyl CoA

42
Q
  1. Classic neurotransmitters are small molecules, synthesized in axon terminals, and stored in vesicles. Which one is a gas neurotransmitter?
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Nitric oxide
    D. Histamine
    E. GABA
A

C. Nitric oxide

43
Q
  1. Which hormone is made only during pregnancy?
    A. Progesterone
    B. hCG
    C. Estrogen
    D. Activin
    E. Inhibin
A

B

44
Q
  1. Which one of the following effects is wrong for the mode of action of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) in carbohydrate and fat metabolism?
    A. Activated by elevated [AMP]
    B. Activated by decreased [ATP]
    C. Activates the fatty acid synthesis and lipolysis in adipose tissue
    D. Activated by peptide hormones (leptin, adiponectin) produced in adipose tissue
    E. Activates fatty acid and glucose uptake and oxidation in heart and skeletal muscle
A

C. Activates the fatty acid synthesis and lipolysis in adipose tissue

45
Q
  1. Ketone bodies that are overproduced in diabetes and during starvation lead to what metabolic condition?
    A. Ketone body urinary excretion of ≤125 mg/24 hr
    B. Ketoacidosis
    C. Ketone body blood concentration of <3 mg/100 mL
    D. High blood pH
    E. Decreased gluconeogenesis
A

B. Ketoacidosis

46
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is true for microcytic anemia?
    A. Folate deficiency
    B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
    C. Iron deficiency
    D. Blood loss
    E. Vitamin D deficiency
A

C. Iron deficiency

47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis is wrong?
    A. Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, while ulcerative colitis is located in the mucosa and submucosa.
    B. Ulcerative colitis can affect any part of the bowel, but Crohn’s disease always involves the rectum and progresses proximally.
    C. Skip lesion is seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.
    D. Stricture does not occur in ulcerative colitis but is frequently seen in Crohn’s disease.
    E. In Crohn’s disease, the noncaseating granuloma is observed histomorphological in 1/3 of the cases, while granuloma is not observed in ulcerative colitis.
A

B. Ulcerative colitis can affect any part of the bowel, but Crohn’s disease always involves the rectum and progresses proximally

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is an autoimmune cholangiopathy?
    A. Cholestasis due to extrahepatic cholelithiasis
    B. Gilbert syndrome
    C. Biliary atresia
    D. Neonatal hepatitis
    E. Primary biliary cholangitis
A

E. Primary biliary cholangitis

49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about endometriosis is false?
    A. Pelvic pain and painful intercourse are some of the complaints of patients.
    B. Endometriosis is most often seen in pelvic structures such as the ovaries, pouch of Douglas, and uterine ligaments.
    C. Histologically, endometriosis is only the presence of endometrial glands in organs other than the uterus.
    D. Patients with endometriosis have a higher risk of developing certain ovarian cancers than women without endometriosis.
    E. One of the theories regarding its pathogenesis is metaplasia of the mesothelial cell to the endometrial cell in the pelvis or abdomen.
A

C. Histologically, endometriosis is only the presence of endometrial glands in organs other than the uterus.

50
Q
  1. A 27-year-old woman requests a mammogram because both her mother and sister died of metastatic breast cancer before 40 years of age. Which of the following would add to this patient’s risk factors for breast cancer?
    A. Multiparity
    B. High-fiber diet
    C. Oral contraceptive use
    D. BRCA-1 mutation
    E. Bilateral fibroadenomas
A

D. BRCA-1 mutation

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most important stimulus that triggers insulin release from pancreatic beta cells?
    A. Glucose entry into beta cells
    B. Decreased protein synthesis
    C. Inflammation
    D. VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) increase
    E. Gastric emptying
A

A. Glucose entry into beta cells

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is a neuroendocrine tumor with calcitonin secretion from th parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?
    A. Pheochromocytoma
    B. Medullary carcinoma
    C. Papillary carcinoma
    D. Gastrinoma
    E. Anaplastic carcinoma
A

B. Medullary carcinoma

53
Q
  1. Mutations in which types of genes are the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia?
    A. Genes encoding structural proteins
    B. Mitochondrial genes
    C. Genes encoding enzyme proteins
    D. Genes encoding proteins that regulate cell growth
    E. Genes encoding receptor proteins or channels
A

E. Genes encoding receptor proteins or channels

54
Q
  1. A 32-year-old male patient has an irregularly circumscribed mass of 1.5 em in diameter in his right testis. A lesion with suspected malignancy in the lung is observed simultaneously in the general body scan. In the histopathological examination of the testicular mass, malignant cells with the appearance of primitive epithelial cells are observed between the foci of diffuse hemorrhage and necrosis. What is your most likely diagnosis for this poor prognosis testicular tumor with lung metastases at the time of diagnosis?
    A. Classical seminoma
    B. Choriocarcinoma
    C. Embryonal carcinoma
    D. Mature teratoma
    E. Leydig cell tumor
A

C. Embryonal carcinoma

55
Q
  1. Which one of the below risk factors is not associated with esophageal adenocarcinoma?
    A. Barrett esophagus
    B. Gastrosophageal reflux disease
    C. Tobacco use
    D. Helicobacter pylori infection
    E. Previous radiation therapy
A

D. Helicobacter pylori infection

56
Q
  1. Which one of the below choices is not a type of clinicopathologic presentation of viral
    hepatitis?
    A. The carrier state
    B. Fulminant hepatic failure
    C. Chronic hepatitis
    D. Acute asymptomatic infection with recovery
    E. Portal hypertension
A

E. Portal hypertension

57
Q
  1. 56 years old male patient applied to a urologist with hesitancy, urinary urgency, intermittent interruption while voiding & frequency for micturition. The blood workup showed an increased PSA level. After rectal digital examination prostate biopsy was performed which revealed variable proportions of proliferating glandular structures in a proliferating stroma.
    The hyperplastic glands are lined by tall, columnar epithelium with a peripheral layer of flattened basal cells. Some glandular structures contain luminal proteinaceous secretory material (corpora amylacea). What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Prostate cancer
    B. Benign prostate hyperplasia
    C. High-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia
    D. Granulomatous prostatitis
    E. Chronic bacterial prostatitis
A

B. Benign prostate hyperplasia

58
Q
  1. Which of the below conditions is caused by sclerosis of small renal arteries and arterioles that is strongly associated with hypertension?
    A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
    B. Nephronophthisis
    C. Nephrosclerosis
    D. Nephrolithiasis
    E. Nephrotic syndrome
A

C. Nephrosclerosis

59
Q
  1. Which of the below conditions is a malignant skeletal muscle neoplasm that can be a primary vaginal malignancy?
    A. Sarcoma botryoides
    B. Leukoplakia
    C. Clear cell adenocarcinoma
    D. Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia
    E. Extramammary Paget disease
A

A. Sarcoma botryoides

60
Q
  1. Which of the below choices is a morphologic change of primary hyperparathyroidism seen in distant organs?
    A. Chief cell hyperplasia
    B. Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism
    C. Water-clear cell hyperplasia
    D. Clusters of oxyphil cells
    E. Endocrine atypia in parathyroid adenoma
A

B. Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism

61
Q
  1. Which one of the below neoplasms is considered a small, round, blue-cell tumor of childhood?
    A. Osteosarcoma
    B. Hepatoblastoma
    C. Teratoma
    D. Hodgkin lymphoma
    E. Retinoblastoma
A

E. Retinoblastoma

62
Q
  1. Which of the below lesions is a precursor lesion for endometrial cancer?
    A. Endometrial polyp
    B. Leiomyoma
    C. Condylomata acuminata
    D. Leukoplakia
    E. Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia
A

E. Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia

63
Q
  1. Which of the following “body of the prescription” is the clearest?
    A. Ibuprofen, 400 mg, tid, prn
    B. Ibuprofen tb, q8h, prn temp. over 38,5 °C
    C. Ibuprofen, 400 mg, q8h, PO, prn temp. over 38,5 °C
    D. Ibuprofen, 400 mg tablet, swallow one tablet with water if the axillary temperature is over 38,5 °C, minimum 8 hours between doses
    E. Ibuprofen tb, PO, take as directed
A

D. Ibuprofen, 400 mg tablet, swallow one tablet with water if the axillary temperature is over 38,5 °C, minimum 8 hours between doses

64
Q
  1. Which of the following poor prescription writing example and the leading situation is not suitable?
    A. Misplaced and ambiguous decimal point (e.g., 1 or 1,0)- Misread, tenfold overdose
    B. Using the abbreviation “U” for units- “U” - Misread as “O” (e.g. 10 U= 100)
    C. Using the abbreviated form of a microgram (“ug*) - Misread as “mg,” a 1000-fold
    overdose
    D. Unclear handwriting- lethal when drugs with similar names but very different effects
    E. Ordering “one ampule of furosemide”- Acceptable, ampules contain 20, 40, or 100 mg of the drug
A

E. Ordering “one ampule of furosemide”- Acceptable, ampules contain 20, 40, or 100 mg of the drug

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of intramuscular drug use?
    A. Expert and a trained person are required
    B. The onset and duration of the drug’s action is not adjustable.
    C.Intramuscular injection at the appropriate landmarks may be difficult in a child as well as in patients requiring physical restrain
    D. Highly efficacious in emergency scenarios such as acute psychosis and status epilepticus
    E. In case of inadvertent scenarios such as anaphylaxis or neurovascular injuries, additional intravenous routes for emergency drug administration need To be secured
A

D. Highly efficacious in emergency scenarios such as acute psychosis and status epilepticus

66
Q
  1. What is a “brown bag” analysis or review of medicines?
    A. It is a procedure in which that doctor give a bag of prescribed medications to the associated elderly.
    B. It is a process that doctors to look for elderly patients’ medical documents
    C. It is a procedure that examines of patient’s bag to ensure that he or she took all the necessary prescribed medication.
    D. It is a common practice that involves encouraging patients to bring all of their medicines and supplements to their visit to the doctor and reviewing them
    E. There is no analysis or review mentioned
A

D. It is a common practice that involves encouraging patients to bring all of their medicines and supplements to their visit to the doctor and reviewing them

67
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be considered as a predisposing factor for Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs)?
    A. Any previous history of an ADR
    B. Normal hepatic and/or renal function
    C. Elderly patient
    D. Neonatal patient
    E. Using multiple drugs simultaneously (Polypharmacy)
A

B. Normal hepatic and/or renal function

68
Q
  1. Extrapyramidal symptoms have been associated with which drug?
    A. Metoclopramide
    B. Sucralfate
    C. Aprepitant
    D. Bisacodyl
    E. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
A

A. Metoclopramide

69
Q
  1. An elderly patient with a history of heart disease has difficulty breathing and is diagnosed with acute pulmonary edema. Which treatment is indicated?
    A. Acetazolamide
    B. Furosemide
    C. Chlorthalidone
    D. Spironolactone
    E. Hydrochlorothiazide
A

B. Furosemide

70
Q
  1. Which is contraindicated in a patient with hyperkalemia?
    A. Acetazolamide
    B. Hydrochlorothiazide
    C. Spironolactone
    D. Ethacrynic acid
    E. Chlorthalidone
A

C. Spironolactone

71
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is routinely added to calcium supplements and milk to prevent rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults?
    A. Cholecalciferol
    B. Calcitriol
    C. Gallium nitrate
    D. Sevelamer
    E. Plicamyein
A

A. Cholecalciferol

72
Q
  1. To supplement another oral type 2 diabetes medication, a patient is prescribed a drug to inhibit the intestinal absorption of carbohydrates. What would be an appropriate drug
    A. Metformin
    B. Acarbose
    C. Repaglinide
    D. Insulin lispro
    E. Pioglitazone
A

B. Acarbose

73
Q
  1. An 18-month-old boy dies from an accidental overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s death?
    A. Arrhythmia
    B. Hemorrhagic stroke
    C. Liver failure
    D. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
    E. Ventilatory failure
A

C. Liver failure

74
Q
  1. Which of the following teratogenic effects result from thalidomide (a drug formerly used for nausea-vomiting of pregnant women and resulted in the Thalidomide Disaster)?
    A. Phocomelia
    B. Irreversible renal damage
    C. Mental retardation
    D. Neural tube defects
    E. Cardiac malformations
A

A. Phocomelia

75
Q
  1. Which one is the complete definition of maternal mortality?
    A. The female deaths from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management during pregnancy and childbirth or within 42 days of termination of
    Dresnancy.
    B. The Female deaths from all causes during pregnancy, delivery, and lactation.
    C. The Female deaths from all causes related to or aggravated by the pregñancy or its
    management during pregnancy and childbirth or within 6 months of termination of pregnancy.
    D. The Female deaths from all causes related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management during pregnancy and childbirth or within 1 year of termination of pregnancy.
    E. The Female deaths particularly from pre-eclampsia and eclampsia during pregnancy or its management during pregnancy and childbirth or within 1 year of termination of pregnancy
A

The female deaths from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management during pregnancy and childbirth or within 42 days of termination of
Dresnancy.

76
Q
  1. About child deaths, which item is wrong?
    A. Coefficient for IMR (Infant mortality rate is 10K (ten thousand).
    B. Nearl all of these deaths occur in poor countries.
    C. Almost every one of them can be avoided and prevented.
    D. The public health approach to solving this problem includes using surveillance data.
    E. Without accurate and timely data, public health programs suffer from infant deaths.
A

A

77
Q
  1. Find the correct answer about maternal healt
    A. Important progress has not been made in the last two decades in reducing
    B. Current global maternal mortality is unacceptably high.
    C. Maternal mortality causes are 3 main groups: Direct, Indirect, and Social.
    D. DM (Diabetes Mellitus) is a direct maternal death cause.
    B. Unsate abortion is an indirect maternal death cause
A

B. Current global maternal mortality is unacceptably high.

78
Q
  1. For vulnerable groups and health, which item is wrong?
    A. Vulnerability must examine the balance between determinants of health and immediate needs.
    B. The single most established finding in health is the importance of SES (socio-economic status).
    C. Social class is not the fundamental determinant of health.
    D. SES indicators are associated with almost every measure of health and health care.
    E. SES resources as a major cause of health disparities.
A

C. Social class is not the fundamental determinant of health.

79
Q
  1. Within the context of environmental pollution and health, which item is wrong
    A. Environmental toxic, carcinogen, mutagenic, and genotoxic chemicals cannot be deposited in the human skeleton.
    B. Threshold limits were exceeded for the accumulation of environmental hazardous factors in humans.
    C. Environmental chemicals cause negative impacts by over-threshold (stochastic accumulation.
    D. We, as humanity, in fact, face increasing environmental disease epidemics.
    E. Due to environmental degradation, people recognize that humankind is on an unsustainable path
A

A. Environmental toxic, carcinogen, mutagenic, and genotoxic chemicals cannot be deposited in the human skeleton.

80
Q
  1. Which item is wrong about noise and healthy relationships?
    A. In general, the aim is to reduce the noise hazard to levels of 100 BA.
    B. Noise-induced hearing impairment is bilateral and permanent.
    C. Noise-induced hearing impairment is only a gradual, progressive loss of
    communication
    D. Putting a silencer on the machine instead of ear protectors on the workers is more effective.
    B. Periodic audiometry is a secondary prevention tool for early diagnosis.
A

A. In general, the aim is to reduce the noise hazard to levels of 100 BA.

81
Q
  1. The 4 essential universal principles of ethics are;
    A. Non maleficiance / Beneficence / autonomy / sanction
    B. Don’t be harmful / serve beneficence / act autonomous / award
    C. Primum non nocere / be beneficial / pay respect patients decision / treat orderly
    D. Primum non nocere / be beneficial / pay respect patients decision / treat fairly
    E. Primum non nocere / be faithful / pay respect autonomy / treat justified
A

D

82
Q
  1. Within the framework of health & rights of health care workers, detect the wrong item.
    A. Physicians may not be asked to testify during jurisdiction about the events they witnessed.
    B. Turkish laws authorize physicians’ right to refrain from testifying under certain
    conctions.
    G. Under urgen conditions. Daysicians have the rient to apply required medical
    intervention on the patients without prior legal consent.
    D. Physicians diagnose and apply the necessary treatment in accordance with scientific
    B. Doctor may leave the patient without completing the treatment for professional/personal reasons under certain conditions
A

A. Physicians may not be asked to testify during jurisdiction about the events they witnessed.

83
Q
  1. What does “single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) cause mutated hemoglobin protein (Hb) in sickle cell anemia” mean?
    A. Six nucleotides’ change results in specific changes in certain amino acids of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb
    B. One nucleotide change results in a specific change in the amino acid at the 6th position of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb
    C. One nucleotide change results in a non-specific (random) change in the amino acid at any position of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb
    D. One nucleotide change results in a non-specific change in the amino acid at any of certain positions of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb
    E. Six nucleotides’ change results in 3 non-specific and 3 specific changes in certain amino acids of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb
A

B. One nucleotide change results in a specific change in the amino acid at the 6th position of the beta-globin chain of the mutated Hb

84
Q
  1. What is the maternal age effect on the genome of the embryo?
    A. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as a higher occurrence of a genetic disorder in the embryo
    B. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as the higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the embryo
    C. Increased risk of an aberration in the somatic cells manifested as a higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the mother
    D. Increased risk of an aberration in the somatic cells manifested as a higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the embryo
    E. Decreased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as a healthy embryo
A

A. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as a higher occurrence of a genetic disorder in the embryo

85
Q
  1. Fill in the blank region of the following sentence: If a couple with a cystic fibrosis child goes on to have another child, the risk of having an affected child is
    for the new
    pregnancy
    A. Higher
    BLower
    C. Stable
    D. Variable
    E. Unknown
A

C

86
Q
  1. Pediatric tumors often occur in tissues that are …….and such tumors typically have fewer mutations than adult tumors. Leukemias and lymphomas, which are diseases of……..blood cells, can also often develop early in life. What are the words in the blank
    regions of the given sentences, in the right order?
    A. Self-renewing, nonself-renewing
    B. Nonself-renewing, self-renewing
    C. Differentiating, mature
    D. Multipotent, unipotent
    E. Pluripotent, unipotent
A

B. Nonself-renewing, self-renewing

87
Q
  1. Which of the following enzyme deficiency causes ambiguous genitalia and hypertension in male newborns?
    A. 3-beta OH steroid dehydrogenase deficiency
    B. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
    C. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency
    D. 17-alfa hydroxylase deficiency
    E. 20,22 desmolase deficiency
A

D. 17-alfa hydroxylase deficiency

88
Q
  1. Which of the following short statures is characterized by normal bone age?
    A. Constitutional growth delay
    B. Familial short stature
    C. Growth hormone deficiency
    D. Thyroidoid hormone deficiency
    E. Malnutrition
A

B. Familial short stature

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is not within the causes of prolonged jaundice?
    A. Hemolysis,
    B. Hereditary glucuronyl transferase deficiency
    C. Physiologic jaundice
    D. Hypothyroidism
    E. Intestinal obstruction
A

C. Physiologic jaundice

90
Q
  1. Which of the following is the main cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis?
    A. Group B streptococcus
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    C. Klebsiella
    D. Escherichia coli
    E. Coagulase negative staphylococcus
A

A. Group B streptococcus

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong during pregnancy?
    A. There is no ovulation and new follicle development in the ovaries
    B. Corpus luteum supplies estrogen and progesterone until the 12th week of pregnancy.
    C. During pregnancy luteoma and theca-lutein cysts may develop in the ovaries
    D. Surgical removal of the ovaries before the 8th week causes abortion.
    E. Cervix softens 1 month after the implantation (Goodell sign)
A

B. Corpus luteum supplies estrogen and progesterone until the 12th week of pregnancy.

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for uteroplacental blood flow during pregnancy?
    A. There is a progressive increase in uteroplacental blood flow.
    B. It reaches 500-700 ml/minute at term
    C. Autoregulation plays an important role in placental blood flow.
    D. Both estrogen and progesterone are responsible for blood flow increase.
    E. IgG can pass the transplacental barrier
A

C. Autoregulation plays an important role in placental blood flow.

93
Q

How much weight gain during pregnancy is expected in normal BMI?
A. 3-4 kg
B. 5-6 kg
C. 7-8 kg
D. 12-14 kg
E. 18-20 kg

A

D

94
Q
  1. Which branch of forensic science examines issues such as the type of poison, whether the determined amount will cause death, and how the toxic substance is taken by using various analysis methods in criminal cases?
    A. Forensic psychiatry
    B. Forensic toxicology
    C. Forensic palynology
    D. Forensic anthropology
    E. Forensic entomology
A

B. Forensic toxicology

95
Q
  1. The harm to a patient due to ignorance, inexperience, or indifference; is the bad practice of medicine. Which of the following options fits the description above?
    A. Active euthanasia
    B. Passive euthanasia
    C. Complication
    D. Professional liability
    E. Medical malpractice
A

E. Medical malpractice

96
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions are not the decompensation sign of Chronic Liver Disease?
    A. Varices bleeding
    B. Ascites
    C. Vomiting
    D. Encephalopathy
    E. Jaundice
A

C. Vomiting

97
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions can cause extrahepatic cholestasis?
    A. Viral hepatitis
    B. Autoimmune hepatitis
    C. Medicine associated hepatotoxicity
    D. Pregnancy cholestasis
    E. Choledocholithiasis
A

E. Choledocholithiasis

98
Q
  1. Which gastrointestinal disease causes Murphy’s sign?
    A. Peritonitis
    B. Acute cholecystitis
    C. Diverticulitis
    D. Acute appendicitis
    E. Pancreatitis
A

B. Acute cholecystitis

99
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases is the most common genetic cause of indirect hyperbilirubinemia?
    A. Gilbert’s Syndrome
    B. Mirizzi Syndrome
    C. Rotor Syndrome
    D. Crigler Najjar Syndrome
    E. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
A

A. Gilbert’s Syndrome

100
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is not associated with chronic liver disease?
    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis A
    C. Autoimmune hepatitis
    D. Alcohol abuse
    E. Alpha- I antitrypsin deficiency
A

B. Hepatitis A

Finak Year 3 (11 decks)

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