304 This Year Flashcards

1
Q

edical Pharmacology
.1 Which of the following drug and clinical application match is wrong?
A. Allopurinol-chronic gout, adjunct to chemotherapy
B. Probenecid- chronic gout, prolongation of antimicrobial drug action C. Colchicine- chronic & acute gout, familial Mediterranean fever
D. Paracetamol- anti-inflammatory, antithrombotic
E. Aspirin-analgesia, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, antithrombotic

A

D. Paracetamol- anti-inflammatory, antithrombotic

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following drug or drug group and related toxicity match is wrong? A. Ibuprofen- GI toxicity, nephrotoxicity
    B. Celecoxib- Nephrotoxicity, less risk of GIS toxicity than nonselective NSAIDs, greater risk of thrombosis than nonselective NSAIDs
    C. Paracetamol- Hepatotoxicity in overdose
    D. DMARDs- Opportunistic infections & reactivation of latent tuberculosis
    E. Probenecid- Renal cancer
A

E. Probenecid- Renal cancer

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3
Q

Which of the following statement for the acute kidney injury (AKI), the sequelae of crush injury is wrong?
A. The development of AKI can be multifactorial
B. Crush syndrome can cause AKI due to the directly nephrotoxic effects of heme products and the tubular obstruction by myoglobin and urate crystals
C. Hypotension & hypoperfusion may also contribute to AKI
D. There is no risk of hemodialysis
E. Older individuals and those with chronic kidney disease are at increased risk
for progression to end-stage kidney disease

A

D

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4
Q

W4. Which of the following herbal or nutritional supplement and its common intended use match is correct?
A. Garlic- Acute coronary syndrome, angina pectoris
B. Milk thistle- Antidote to Amanita mushroom poisoning .C Glucosamine- Diabetes
D. Melatonin- Hypertension E. Echinacea- Pneumonia

A

B. Milk thistle- Antidote to Amanita mushroom

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the dietary supplements
    and herbal medications is wrong?
    A. They are available with prescription
    B. They are marketed in US and in Turkiye without FDA or other governmental
    premarketing review of efficacy or safety
    C. There is little government oversight of purity, variations in potency, or adverse effects
    D. For many of them, evidence from controlled clinical studies for their medical effectiveness is incomplete or nonexistent
    E. Most of them are not pure substances
A

A. They are available with prescription

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6
Q

6.
A. Continue preop. meds
B. Continue iv fluids
C. Continue eye drops as required
D. Stop Ciprofloxacin, give Cefalexin 500 mg tb, per oral, q8h, for 5days
E. Insulin, SC, p r blood glucose over 150

A

D. Stop Ciprofloxacin, give Cefalexin 500 mg tb, per oral, q8h, for 5days

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7
Q

7.
Which of the following is the most favorable prescription?
A. Paracetamol, 500 mg tb, swallow one tablet with water fi axillary temperature si over 38,5° ,C minimum 6 hours between doses
B. Paracetamol, 500 mg, tid, prn
C. Paracetamol tb, 98h, prn temp. over 38,5° C
D. Paracetamol, 500 mg, 98h, PO, prn temp. over 38,50 C
E. Paracetamol tb, PO, take as directed

A

A. Paracetamol, 500 mg tb, swallow one tablet with water fi axillary temperature si over 38,5° ,C minimum 6 hours between doses

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8
Q

8.
Which of the following is not an example for irrational drug use?
A. Use of too many medicines per patient (polypharmacy)
B. Inappropriate use of antimicrobials, often in inadequate dosage and for non-bacterial infections
C. Over-use of injections when oral formulations would be more appropriate
D. Failure to prescribe in accordance with clinical guidelines
E.Avoiding perverse financial incentives while prescribing

A

E.Avoiding perverse financial incentives while prescribing

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9
Q

9.
Which of the following is not advocated by WHO to promote rational drug use? A. Development and use of national essential medicines list
B. Inclusion of problem-based pharmacotherapy training in undergraduate curricula
C. Prescribing drugs based on own personal financial incentives
D. Continuing in-service medical education as licensure requirement
E. Establishment of drug and therapeutics committees in districts and hospital

A

C. Prescribing drugs based on own personal financial incentives

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the procedure for preparing and drawing medications into a syringe is wrong?
    A. Medication should be verified (type, route, dose, the place of storage, expiration date)
    B. The needle should never be contaminated, any contamination of the needle may cause infection
    C. The needle should be inspected for rough edges that could tear the patient’s skin during injection
    D. The health care personnel is responsible for the maintaining sterility of equipment during the procedure
    E. Checking the medication for defects like any foreign particles in the solution and color of the solution si not needed
A

E. Checking the medication for defects like any foreign particles in the solution and color of the solution si not needed

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following
    is not acontraindication of intramuscular injection?
    A. Active infection, cellulitis, or dermatitis at the site of administration
    B. Known allergy or hypersensitivity to the drug
    C. Noncompliant or uncooperative or reluctant patient
    D. Thrombocytopenia and/or coagulation defects E. Myopathies
A

C. Noncompliant or uncooperative or reluctant patien

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following principles of drug therapy ni the geriatric
    patient is wrong?
    A. Taking a careful drug history
    B. Starting with usual adult doses, titration of dose to the desired response is not needed
    C. Prescribing only for a specific and rational indication
    D. Maintaining high index of suspicion regarding drug reactions and interactions including the other drugs and herbals patient is taking
    E. Defining the goal of a drug therapy
A

B. Starting with usual adult doses, titration of dose to the desired response is not needed

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements related with the “summary of product characteristics (SmPC)” is wrong?
    A. Trade or generic name of a drug can be used when searching for a drug’s SmPC
    B. In Turkiye, the equivalent of SmPC is “ Kisa Ürün Bilgisi- KÜB”, in the United States the equivalent of SmPC is the United States Prescribing Information (USPI)
    .C nI Turkiye SmPC of drugs can also be searched from the website of Tuckish Medicines and Medical Devices Agency (Türkiye Ila ve Tibbi Chaz Kurumu-TITCK)
    D. SmPC is a document describing the properties and the officially approved conditions ofuse of a medicine
    .E Information about the pharmaceutical form of the medicine is not included in SmPC
A

E Information about the pharmaceutical form of the medicine is not included in SmPC

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the sedative-hypnotic drugs and their use ni the elderly is wrong?
    A. Many benzodiazepines’ and barbiturates’ half-lives increase
    B. Due to age-related decline in renal function their elimination may decrease
    C. Side effects like ataxia may lead to increased falls & fractures
    D. These drugs should be used carefully by titration
    E. Benzodiazepines don’t have any active metabolites
A

E. Benzodiazepines don’t have any active metabolites

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15
Q
  1. The elderly has increased incidence of which of hte following conditions?
    A. Atherosclerosis
    B. ТуреIDM
    C. Measles
    D. HepatitisA
    E. Congenital heart disease
A

A. Atherosclerosis

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16
Q
  1. A 68-year-old man has chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine level of 2
    mg/L. He has to use an antibiotic that needs renal dosage adjustment. Which of the following dosage should be prescribed according to the estimated creatinine clearance
    (CrCI) and the chart from the Sanford Guide to Antimicrobial Therapy. His body weight is 50 kg.
    Estimated CrCI (ml/min)=(140-Age) X (Weight in kg) / 72 × Serum creatine in mg/dL
A

Vichy

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is not the radiologic finding of osteoarthritis?
    A.
    B. C.
    Joint space narrowing Subchondral sclerosis Osteophyte formation
    D. Subchondralcyst
    E. Soft tissue swelling
A

E. Soft tissue swelling

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18
Q
  1. Which of the below is wrong about osteoarthritis?
    A. Articular cartilage is mainly composed of tissue fluid, Type I Collagen and proteoglycans.
    B. Genetics, gender (female), age and obesity are the risk factors for osteoarthritis.
    C. Chronicpain,jointinstability,stiffnessandjointdeformitiesaremajorsigns and symptoms of osteoarthritis.
    D. Small joints of the hand and foot, knee joint and hip joint are commonly affected.
    E. Heberden’s node and Bouchard’s nodes are small bony growths that appear at the foot.
A

E. Heberden’s node and Bouchard’s nodes are small bony growths that appear at the foot.

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19
Q
  1. Which item is wrong about NCDs (non-communicable diseases)?
    A. NCDs are collectively responsible for not more than half of all deaths worldwide.
    B. The four major risks for NCDs are: Tobacco use, physical inactivity, harmful use of alcohol and unhealthy diets.
    C. WHO’s (World Health Organisation) mission is to provide “surveillance, prevention and control of NCDs.
    D. Development, Poverty, SES (Socio Economic Status) . . . are among “causes of causes” for NCDs.
    E. The main motto to prevent NCSs is “Follow a healthy lifestyle”
A

A

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20
Q
  1. Which item is correct about adult / adult health, adulthood?
    A. Being or status of “minor” means <18 years
    of age, as a legal definition in general.
    B. Less than half of older adults have at least one chronic health condition.
    C. The 4 major warning signs for adults are chronic weight loss, decreasing bowel sounds, shortness of muscle power and hypertension.
    D. Adult health screening tests are not an important part of preventive adult health care.
    E. Blood pressure goal should be below 150/95 unless your doctor sets a different cut off.
A

A. Being or status of “minor” means <18 years
of age, as a legal definition in general

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21
Q
  1. Which choice is correct to fulfil the omitted word / phrase for the expression below?
    “Poor indoor air quality
    can trigger
    •andleads to-
    A. episodes of Legionnaires’ disease, irritation of the bowels
    B. asthma attacks, sick building syndrome C. skin diseases, psychosis
    D. worksite accidents, industrial explosions
    E. kidney cancers, infertility
A

B

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22
Q
  1. Which choice is correct for definitions of related technical terms below?
    A. An outbreak means severely more disease than expected.
    B. Hyperendemic refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.
    C. Cluster refers to degradation of cases grouped in place and time.
    D. Direct implications of zoonotic diseases are seen on health professionals & general public.
    E. A small variety of animal species, domestic & wild, act as reservoirs for zoonotic pathogens.
A

B. Hyperendemic refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.

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23
Q
  1. Which argument si wrong about dynamics of contagious diseases?
    A. The complex nature of the human-animal interface is constantly influenced by the effects
    of climate change.
    B. Geoclimatic change most markedly affects zoonotic diseases transmitted by arthropod
    vectors.
    C. The re-emergence of zoonotic diseases is not driven by pathogen adaptation and animal
    migration.
    D. The efects of climate change are predicted ot be worse for the developing World.”
    E. The Centres for Diseases Control & Prevention-CDC has outlined 10+ priority actions to address climate change.
A

C. The re-emergence of zoonotic diseases is not driven by pathogen adaptation and animal
migration.

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24
Q
  1. More specifically, an epidemic may result from, except?
    A. A recent increase in amount or virulence of the agent.
    B. The recent introduction of the agent into a setting where it has not been before.
    C. An enhanced mode of transmission so that less susceptible persons are exposed.
    D. Epidemics occur when an agent and susceptible hosts are present in adequate numbers.
    E. Epidemics occur when the agent can be effectively conveyed from a source to the hosts.
A

C. An enhanced mode of transmission so that less susceptible persons are exposed.

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25
Q
  1. Which item is wrong about pathogenesis of infectious diseases?
    A. Nature canhelpustounderstandhealthcrises,wheretheycomefrom.
    B. Nature can help us how the socio-economic fallout from such disasters can be mitigated.
    C. The three main components of infection chain are agent / host / port of entry.
    D. The main strategy for halting an epidemic is breaching the weakest loop of infection
    chain.
    E. Communicable disease prevention cannot be focused on basic risk reduction principles.
A

E

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26
Q
  1. The UDHR (Universal Declaration on Human Rights) imposes, except?
    A. Everyone has the right to work.
    B.
    All workers is free to choice o f employment.
    C.
    The UDHR approves: Labor has the right to just (fair) and favorable conditions of work.
    D.
    Everybody has the right to protection against unemployment.
    E. UDHR describes: Occupational diseases are hte exposure ot risk factors arising frgm work activities and the diseases) contracted by the worker.
A

E. UDHR describes: Occupational diseases are hte exposure ot risk factors arising frgm work activities and the diseases) contracted by the worker.

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27
Q
  1. Which statement is wrong about air pollution?
    A.
    Pollution of air at the workplace, being indoors in the work premises, or during work outdoors.
    B.
    WHO General Programme of Work (2019-23) states climate change / disaster mitigation. C.
    Air pollution may be classified by outdoor, household and workplace air pollution.
    D. PM1o can also reach the alveoli and may cause pneumoconiosis.
    E. Healthier technologies and fuels ensure all populations breathe air that meets the standards of WHO’s Air Quality Guidelines.
A

D. PM1o can also reach the alveoli and may cause pneumoconiosis.

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28
Q
  1. Which choice is correct considering the prevention of occupational exposure?
    A. Thepreventionofoccupationalexposuretoworkplaceairpollutiondoesnotneed
    a well-established hierarchy of interventions.
    B. Priority is given to elimination or substitution of the occupational hazard, as the most effective intervention
    C. Engineering controls to reduce exposure, such as encapsulation, local and general ventilation and wet processes must take the top priority.
    D. The well effective measures for control of air pollution are administrative controls. E. Use of personal protective equipment for respiratory protection si the #I measure.
A

B. Priority is given to elimination or substitution of the occupational hazard, as the most effective intervention

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29
Q
  1. Which item is wrong about radiation & human health?
    A. Radiation can damage the DNA in our cells.
    B. High doses of radiation can cause acute radiation syndrome and/or cutaneous radiation
    injuries.
    C. “Becquerel (Bq) “ is used as the unit of the radiation exposure
    dose necessary to know the effect of radiation to which a person is exposed.
    D. High doses of radiation could lead to cancer later in life.
    E. Radioactive materials emit radiation, and this ability is called as “radioactivity”
A

C. “Becquerel (Bq) “ is used as the unit of the radiation exposure

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct about radiation &human health?
    A.
    In general, beta, gamma and x-ray radiation can be stopped by simple tools.
    B.
    The three main protective measures are reducing time / increasing distance / use of shielding.
    C.
    A risk of radiation-induced hereditary effects has been definitively demonstrated in human populations.
    D. Time required for the amount of the radionuclides outside the body to reduce to half is
    biological half-life.
    E. Deterministic effects are also referred to as “tissue reactions” or stochastic effects.
A

B The three main protective measures are reducing time / increasing distance / use of shielding.

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31
Q
  1. Examine the picture below about environmental health and choose the most reasonable inference. Green

A. Environmental health is concerned with assessing, controlling, and improving the impact people make on their environment and the impact of the environment on them, mutually.
B. Thefieldofenvironmentalhealthisconcernedwithsomeelementsoftheenvironment
that may influence people’s health and well-being.
C. The conditions of workplaces, homes or communities, may include many chemical, physical, and psychological factors.
D. Existing factors in the environment that affect human health, are of important consideration.
E. Environment can potentially affect positively the health of present and future generations.

A

A. Environmental health is concerned with assessing, controlling, and improving the impact people make on their environment and the impact of the environment on them, mutually

32
Q
  1. Which of the following statement about “Vulnerability and public’s health” is wrong?
    A. Infant mortality rates, which have been falling for decades, are now on the same trend for black Americans, fortunately.
    B. The single most established finding in health is the importance of socio economic status in
    determining the course of future illness, disability, and mortality.
    C. Socially vulnerable populations include those who have special needs.
    D. Socially vulnerable populations are especially at risk during public health emergencies.
    E. According to the WHO (to Beaglhole & Bonita): Identifying poverty as the greatest
    continuing threat to health worldwide is a must.
A

A. Infant mortality rates, which have been falling for decades, are now on the same trend for black Americans, fortunately.

33
Q
  1. Which of the following statement about screening is wrong?
    A. Eforts to reduce harmful factors may reduce risk for disease during predisease stage.
    B. If the disease-producing process is underway, but no symptoms of disease have become apparent, the disease is said to be in the latent stage.
    C. A screening test is not intended to be diagnostic.
    D. Sensitivity is the ability of the test to correctly identify those without the disease.
    E. Screening is not the same as early diagnosis.
A

D. Sensitivity is the ability of the test to correctly identify those without the disease.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following disease is not ni the “newborn screening program” ni Turkey?
    A. Phenylketonuria
    B. Biotinidase deficiency
    C. Cystic fibrosis
    D. Congenital hypothyroidism .
    E Iron deficiency
A

E Iron deficiency

35
Q
  1. Choose the wrong statement about
    periodic health examinations recommended by hte Republic of Turkey Ministry of Health.
    A. Individuals over the age of 40 should be evaluated in terms of cardiovascular risks, regardless of their main complaint.
    B. Individuals over 18 years of age and carrying at least one risk factor for cardiac diseases should be screened for serum lipid profile every five years.
    C. There is no need to screen an individual for Diabetes Mellitus who is 30 years old and Body Mass index si 29 kg/m.?
    D. Individuals over the age of 35 should be screened for Thyroid Function Tests (especially
    TSH) every five years.
    E. All women aged 40-69 years should have a routine clinical examination by a physician
    annually and a digital/conventional mammogram every two years.
A

C. There is no need to screen an individual for Diabetes Mellitus who is 30 years old and Body Mass index si 29 kg/m.?

36
Q
  1. Which
    of the following statement about home care is wrong?
    A. Home care services include preventive, therapeutic and rehabilitative health services.
    B. Home care service cannot be provided as a rule if there is a need for medical equipment.
    C. In Turkey, the regulation on the delivery of Home Care Services entered into force after being published in the Official Gazette (Resmi Gazete) dated 10 March 2005.
    D. Home care includes not only the provision of medical services, but also the social services that the individual may need.
    E. Short-term home care services are predominantly medical care and is generally limited to 30 days.
A

B. Home care service cannot be provided as a rule if there is a need for medical equipment.

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a component of declarative memory? A. Memory of the surroundings
    B. Memory of time relationships
    C. Memory associated with motor activities of the body
    D. Memory of the meaning of the experience
    E. Memory of one’s deductions that were left in the person’s mind
A

C. Memory associated with motor activities of the body

38
Q
  1. Which of the structural change does not occur in synapses during development of long-
    term
    memory?
    A. An increase in vesicle release sites for secretion of transmitter substance B. An increase in the number of transmitter vesicles released
    C. An increase in the number of presynaptic terminals
    D. Changes in structures of the dendritic spines that permit transmission
    of stronger signals
    E. Continual neural activity resulting from nerve signals that travel in a circuit of
    reverberating neurons
A

E. Continual neural activity resulting from nerve signals that travel in a circuit of
reverberating neurons

39
Q
  1. Which of the following does not contribute to cellular death mechanisms?
    A. Aerobic metabolism
    B. Ca?*-induced toxicity
    C. Mitochondrial breakdown D. Ion gradient changes
    E. Excitotoxicity
A

Aerobic metabolism

40
Q
  1. Aging has only minor effects on which of the following organ system?
    A. Cardiovascular system
    B. Gastrointestinal system
    C. Respiratory system
    D. Musculoskeletal system
    E. Nervous system
A

B. Gastrointestinal system

41
Q
  1. Which of the below is a gut hormone related with the control of adiposity?
    A. Leptin
    B. Thyroxin
    C. Adiponectin
    D. Insulin
    E. Ghrelin
A

E. Ghrelin

42
Q
  1. Which one of the below features of obesity, is not associated with carcinogenesis?
    A. Elevated insulin-like growth factor- 1 levels
    B. Increased estrogen hormone levels
    C. Low HDL-cholesterol levels
    D. Reduced adiponectin levels
    E. Proinflammatory state
A

C. Low HDL-cholesterol levels

43
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases depicts all the features described below?
  2. It is a group of diseases with defects in collagen synthesis and production.
    II. The skin is extremely stretchable.
    III. Post-surgical skin repair is difficult due to the lack of normal tensile strength.
    IV. It has subtypes: vascular, kyphoscoliotic, and classical.
    V. There may be a rupture of the colon or great arteries due to structural insufficiency.
    A. Marfan syndrome
    B. Familial hypercholesterolemia
    C. Ehler-Danlos syndrome
    D. Glycogen storage disease
    E. Triple-X syndrome
A

C. Ehler-Danlos syndrome

44
Q
  1. Which of the following options would best fit the description below?
    “It is any activity performed directly or indirectly by the person authorized to practice the medical profession for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment.”
    A. Active euthanasia
    B. Profession and inexperience in the arts
    D. Medical intervention
    E. Medical malpractice
A

D. Medical intervention

45
Q
  1. Which of the following virus infection during pregnancy is most likely to cause a birth defect in the brain called microcephaly?
    A. Yellow fever virus
    B. Dengue virus
    C. Chikungunya virus
    D. Zika virus
    E. West Nile virus
A

D

46
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccine is recommended only in specified settings for health care workers?
    A. TdaP
    B. Meningococcal B
    C. MMR
    D. Annual influenza
    E. Varicella
A

B

47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Dengue Fever is wrong?
    A. There are 4 different Dengue Virus serotypes
    B. It is a member of the Flaviviridae family
    A: It is an RNA virus
    D. There is a vaccine against Dengue Fever
    E. Infection with one serotype protects against future dengue infections with the other serotype
A

E. Infection with one serotype protects against future dengue infections with the other serotype

48
Q

61.What is the correct color coding for waste at risk of infection?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Brown
E. Green

A

B

49
Q

A 56-year-old male patient, working as an animal breeder, attended our infectious diseases department with a swelling, erythema and painless black eschar (picture) of his left hand, of
1-week duration.
A. Aerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic, rod-shaped bacterium
B. Anaerobic, gram-positive, encapsulated,-Spore-forming, non-motile, non-hemolytic,

A

A

50
Q

63.A 14-year-old boy receives multiple bite wounds to his left hand and forearm by a dog. Two days following the attack, the boy developed a low-grade fever 37.8°C, redness, pain, and a purulent exudate at the several of the bite wounds. Gram negative coccobacilli were detected in the Gram staining of the pus sample taken from the patient. Which of the following bacteria is the most likely causative agent of this bite wound infection?
A. Acinetobacter baumanni
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

B

51
Q

64.Which of the following diseases is likely to be transmitted through rodent urine?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Plague
C. Lyme disease
D. Cat scratch disease
E. Salmonellosis

A

A

52
Q

65.A 29-year-old woman presents to her physician with a papular lesions on her left thumb. She states she recently were scratched by stray cat. Physical examination is notable for several scratches on her left hand and enlarged axillary lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection?
A. Bartonella henselae
B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Streptococcus progenes

A

A

53
Q

66.Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia or ehrlichiosis is most correct?
A. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.
B. Mosquitoes are the vectors.
C. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice.
D. Culture is a good method to confirm the diagnosis.
E. Ehrlichia are typically found in lymphocytes

A

A. Dogs

54
Q

67.There is no post-exposure prophlaxis in health care workers against which of the following?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C
C. HIV infection
D. Meningococcal disease
E. Varicella

A

B

55
Q

68.How do most people become infected with Coxiella?
A. Through inhalation of dried birthing fluids of farm animals
B. From eating undercooked meat
C. From human-to-human transmission via the fecal-oral route
D. From a farm animal’s bite
E. From a cat scratch or bite

A

A. Through inhalation of dried birthing fluids of farm animals

56
Q
  1. Which two vaccines are routinely recommended during pregnancy?
    A. Influenza vaccine and the combined Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Pertussis (Tap) vaccine
    B. Varicella and measles vaccines
    C. Herpes zoster and varicella vaccines
    D. 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and conjugate meningococcal vaccine
    E. 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine and conjugate meningococcal vaccine
A

A. Influenza vaccine and the combined Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Pertussis (Tap) vaccine

57
Q

70.Which of the following is not a medical indication for meningococcal vaccine?
A. Complement component deficiency
B. Functional or anatomical asplenia
C. Complement inhibitor medication
D. HIV infection
E. Pregnancy

A

E

58
Q

71.Which of the following vaccines should be administered to adults aged 19-64 with chronic medical conditions (chronic heart lung or liver disease, diabetes) to protect them from invasive pneumococcal diseases?
A. A 23-valent capsular polysaccharide vaccine
B. A vaccine against serogroups A, C, Y, and W135 capsular polysaccharide
C. A vaccine of polyribosylribitol capsular polysaccharide covalently linked to a protein
D. A toxoid vaccine
E. A recombinant viral protein vaccine

A

A. A 23-valent capsular polysaccharide vaccine

59
Q

72.A 65-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician to ensure that her vaccinations are up to date. Patient history is significant for ongoing chemotherapy treatment for liver cancer.
The vaccine for which of the following pathogens is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Inactive Influenza
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Haemophilus influenzae, type B

A

C

60
Q

73.Which of the following is transmitted to humans through contact with infected rodents?
A. Lassa fever
B. Ebola virus disease
C. Typhoid fever
D. Lyme diseases
E. Chikungunya

A

A. Lassa fever

61
Q

74.Which of the following is an example of an emerging infectious disease that emerges from ecological change?
A. Brucellosis
B. Anthrax
C. Lyme disease
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Tuberculosis

A

C. Lyme disease

62
Q

75.Plague continues to exist in many parts of the world. Which of the following most favors this persistence?
A. Fleas and deer
B. Ticks and wild rodents
C. Fleas and wild rodents
D. Mosquitoes and urban rats

A

C. Fleas and wild rodents

63
Q

76.How long should brucellosis be treated at least?
A. Two weeks
B. Three weeks
C. Four weeks
D. Five weeks
E. Six weeks

A

E

64
Q

77.Which of the following is correct for brucellosis?
A. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite.
B. The principal reservoirs of Brucellae are small rodents.
C. Brucellae infect reticuloendothelial cells in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.
D. Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human cell culture.
E. Brucellosis are transmitted only dairy products

A

C. Brucellae infect reticuloendothelial cells in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

65
Q

78.A 47-year-old man presents with slowly progressive arthritis in his knees. The patient is concerned about Lyme disease. The result of an EIA for Lyme borreliosis is positive. What should be done now?
A. A biopsy specimen of the synovium of a knee joint should be examined for B. burgdorferi.
B. The patient should be given an antibiotic to treat Lyme disease.
C. PCR on the patient’s plasma should be done to detect B. burgdorferi.
D. A serum specimen should be submitted for Inmunoblot assay to detect antibodies reactive with B. burgdorferi antigens.
E. Culture of synovial fluid on blood and chocolate agar.

A

D. A serum specimen should be submitted for Inmunoblot assay to detect antibodies reactive with B. burgdorferi antigens

66
Q

79.A 36-year-old man living in a wooded area presents to the emergency department in complaining of dizziness. On physical examination, his heart rate is 38 beats/min, and the ECG demonstrates acute heart block. He has two dogs that often roam in the woods and have been found with ticks on many occasions. He is otherwise healthy. His chemistry panel shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely cause of complete heart block in this individual?
A. Chikungunya
B. Nipah disease
C. Lyme disease
D. Brucellosis
E. Monkeypox

A

C. Lyme disease

67
Q

80.Which of the following is among the group A bioterrorism agents?
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Pseudomonas aeruginos
C. Brucella spp.
D. Francisella tularensis
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

D. Francisella tularensis

68
Q

81.Which of the following subspecies of F. tularensis is the most virulent for humans?
A. tularensis
B. holarctica
C. mediasiatica
D. novicida

A

A. tularensis

69
Q

82.Which of the following is not among the always internationally notifiable diseases?
A. Smallpox
B. Poliomyelitis due to wild-type poliovirus
C. Human influenza caused by a new subtype
D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
E. Outbreaks due to varicella zoster

A

E. Outbreaks due to varicella zoster

70
Q

83.Which of the following is among the most heat sensitive vaccines?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Hepatitis A vaccine
C. Varicella
D. Rabies vaccine
E. Pneumococcal conjugated vaccine

A

C. Varicella

71
Q

84.Which one of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for metabolic syndrome?
A. Having central obesity
B. Having raised serum triglycerides
C. Being treated for hypertension
D. Having low LDL levels
E. Having been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes

A

D. Having low LDL levels

72
Q
  1. During starvation, for about how long do the body’s carbohydrate stores (i.e. glycogen) last?
    A.24 h
    B. 72 h
    C. I week
    D. 2 weeks
    E. 10 h
A

A.24 h

73
Q
  1. What is the recommendation for physical activity to prevent weight gain?
    A. 30 min of moderate activity on 3-4 days a week
    B. 30 min of moderate activity each day
    C. 45-60 min of moderate activity on 3-4 days a week
    D. 45-60 min of moderate activity each day
    E. 10 min of moderate activity on 3-4 days a week
A

D. 45-60 min of moderate activity each day

74
Q

87.Bariatric surgery can be considered once BMI is which one of the followings?
A. >20 kg/m?
B. >30 kg/m?
C. >40 kg/m°
D. >50 kg/m?
E. >35 kg/m?

A

C. >40 kg/m°

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a biochemical change observed in old age?
    A. Decrease in hormone production
    B.Decline in creatinine clearance
    C.Decrease in nitric oxide synthesis
    D. Decrease in insulin activity
    E. Increased ability to handle sodium and potassium
A

E. Increased ability to handle sodium and potassium

76
Q

89.Which of the following statement about the biochemical and physiological changes of the elderly is wrong ?
A. The conversion of the nutrients into the basic building blocks as proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates is impaired with aging
B. Rates of total body protein, lean body mass and protein synthesis decrease with aging C.Susceptibility to diseases and adverse environmental factors increase
D. Weakening on homeostatic control results in decline of functional reserves of organ systems
E. Vasodilating prostaglandins are decreased at baseline in normal older adults and this contributes to decreased risk of renal injury with use of NSAIDs in older people

A

E. Vasodilating prostaglandins are decreased at baseline in normal older adults and this contributes to decreased risk of renal injury with use of NSAIDs in older people

77
Q
  1. Which cancer type below can have an early diagnosis by screening the population?
    A. Gastric cancer
    B. Ovarian cancer
    C. Colorectal cancer
    D. Pancreas cancer
    E. Esophageal cancer
A

C. Colorectal cancer