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Finak Year 3 > 301 This Yr > Flashcards

301 This Yr Flashcards

1
Q

84- What should be the second line in the abdominal physical examination?
A. Percussion
B. Auscultation
C. Palpation
D. Rectal Examination
E. Inspection

A

B. Auscultation

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2
Q

83-Hematochezia usually indicates lower GI bleeding but may result from which of the following?
A Ingestion of bismuth
B. Bleeding from a source in the right colon
C. Colonic Diverticulosis
D. Upper GI bleeding with rapid transit of blood through the intestines
E. Ingestion of supplemental iron

A

D. Upper GI bleeding with rapid transit of blood through the intestines

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3
Q

82- Which of the following statements about taking anamnesis is not correct?
A. The physician should talk to the patient alone, if possible.
B. Enough time should be allocated.
C. The best and most accurate history is taken from the patient’s relatives.
D. The aim should not be to get more information but to get the accurate and n
information.
E. Developments should be noted in chronological order.

A

C. The best and most accurate history is taken from the patient’s relatives.

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4
Q

81-Which of the following statements is not a part of chronic liver disease etiology?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis D
C. Otoimmun Hepatitis
D. Wilson disease
E. Alpha- I antitrypsin (alpha-1 AT) deficiency

A

A. Hepatitis A

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5
Q

75- All radiological and endoscopic findings are normal in a patient who presents with non-bloody, watery diarrhea. Which of the following pathological changes is most lik seen on a diagnostic bowel biopsy?
A. Fat-laden enterocytes
B. Spur cells
C. Crypt distortion
D. Subepithelial dense collagen
E. Mucosal ulceration

A

D. Subepithelial dense collagen

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about this disease (Wilson) is false?
    A. Men are more often affected.
    B. Most patients have elevated antimitochondrial antibodies.
    C. Most patients have a characteristic finding on cholangiography.
    D. Serum alkaline phosphatase values are usually high.
    E. Inflammatory bowel disease may accompany.
A

B. Most patients have elevated antimitochondrial antibodies.

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7
Q

73-A 32-year-old woman presents with a six-week history of progressive abdominal damage and lower extremity edema. She also experienced progressive difficulty with tren cognitive impairment. The patient had no history of upper or lower gastrointestinal t and no family history of significant liver disease. On general examination, a b discoloration is observed around a blue iris. Cardiovascular, pulmonary, and abl examinations are normal except for abdominal distention and lower extremity Neurological examination is remarkable for bilateral hand tremors and ataxia witho signs. In the laboratory evaluation, hemoglobin and albumin are low, liver function t impaired, and ANA (antinuclear antibody) and ASMA (anti-smooth muscle antibo negative. Ceruloplasmin 8 mg/dL (normal: 20-40 mg/dL), free serum copper, 68 (Normal: 1.6-2.4 mol/L), urine copper 100 micrograms in 24 hours (Normal: <40 m
Hepatitis A, B and C serologies are negative. On a CT scan of the brain, increased de noted in the basal ganglia. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on liver this patient?

A. Micro and macrovesicular steatosis, focal hepatocellular necrosis, cirrhosis, and red-staini pigment with Rhodamine in hepatocytes
B. In hepatocytes blue staining pigment in a periportal to pericentral distribution with cirrho:
C. Significant steatohepatitis with a neutrophilic inflammatory infiltrate with cirrhosis
D. Periportal granulomas with cirrhosis
E. Plasma cell-dominated chronic inflammation in the portal area, fibrosis around the bile du

A

A. Micro and macrovesicular steatosis, focal hepatocellular necrosis, cirrhosis, and red-staini pigment with Rhodamine in hepatocytes

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8
Q

72- Which of the following is not a characteristic of pancreatic cancer?
A KRAS is the most frequently altered oncogene in pancreatic cancer
B. More than half of pancreatic cancers is localized to the head of the gland.
C. The majority of cancers in the pancreas are neuroendocrine tumors.
D. Pancreatic cancers that progress to the retroperitoneal area invade the nerves in this ar cause severe pain.
E. Intense fibrotic reaction develops in the tissue surrounding the tumor.

A

C. The majority of cancers in the pancreas are neuroendocrine tumors.

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9
Q

71- Which of the following statements can explain tissue reperfusion injury in ischemic bowel disease?
A Vasodilation in some vessels with reperfusion causes most of the blood to return to circulation and hypoxia increases.
B. With reperfusion, intense blood flow damages the vessel wall and ischemia develops.
C. Reperfusion does not eliminate the hypoxic state and tissue damage persists.
D. Surface epithelium is very sensitive to a hypoxic state, reperfusion cannot stop cell death.
E. Free radical products and inflammatory cytokines released during reperfusion after hypoxia contributes to tissue damage.

A

E. Free radical products and inflammatory cytokines released during reperfusion after hypoxia contributes to tissue damage.

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10
Q
  1. A ten-month-old baby is brought to the doctor by his mother with complaints of diarrhea, mild weight loss, and abdominal discomfort and tension. The mother says that the baby has been breastfed for 9 months and started solid food a month ago, No infection or other cause is identified that explains diarrhea and other findings. It is done with some serological tests and a biopsy is taken from the duodenum of the baby, Which of the following findings is not expected in the histological examination of this biopsy?
    A. Villous atrophy
    B, Intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration
    C. Crypt hyperplasia
    D. Crypt abscess
    E. Loss of brush border surface in enterocytes
A

D. Crypt abscess

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11
Q

68- Which of the below is not an etiologic cause for acute acalculous cholecystitis?
A. Sepsis
B. Cholesterol stones
C. Severe dehydration
D. Major surgery
E. Gallbladder stasis

A

B. Cholesterol stones

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12
Q

66- What is “accumulation of bilirubin in liver tissue” called?
A. Steatosis
B. Mallory body
C. Ground glass cells
D. Ductular reaction
E. Cholestasis

A

E. Cholestasis

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13
Q

67- What is the prominent morphologic finding in fulminant liver failure?
A. Cholestasis
B. Steatosis
C. Massive hepatic necrosis
D. Ground-glass hepatocytes
E. Bridging fibrosis

A

C. Massive hepatic necrosis

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14
Q

65- Which type of molecular defect is associated with the development of typ adenocarcinoma in Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome?
A. Germline mutation in LKB I gene
B. Mutation of the base excision repair gene MUTYH
C. Germline mutation of APC gene
D. Sporadic mutation in HER2

A

C. Germline mutation of APC gene

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15
Q

64- Comparing the cecal-right-sided and left-sided colorectal adenocarcinomas which of th below is wrong?
A. Fatigue and weakness due to iron deficiency anemia are seen more in right-sided carcinom
B. Right-sided carcinomas may cause cramping-type pain in the abdomen
C. Left-sided carcinomas may cause changes in bowel habits
D. Left-sided carcinomas may cause occult bleeding
E. Right-sided carcinomas rarely cause luminal obstruction

A

B. Right-sided carcinomas may cause cramping-type pain in the abdomen

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16
Q

63- Which microorganism causes enterocolitis with flask-shaped ulcers as seen micrograph?
A. Shigella
B. Giardia lamblia
C. M. avium
D. Entamoeba hystolytica
(Purple volcano)

A

D. Entamoeba hystolytica

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17
Q

62- Which one of the below features is not associated with intestinal-type gastric carcin‹
A. Develops on intestinal metaplastic background
B. Grows in an ulcero-vegetative pattern
C. Seen more in advanced age & males
D. Stains positive with chromogranin & synaptophysin
E. Signet ring cells are very frequent

A

E. Signet ring cells are very frequent

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18
Q

61- Which of the below choices is a cause for secondary achalasia?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Hiatal hernia
C. Chagas disease
D. Aphthous ulcer
E. Parkinson’s disease

A

C. Chagas disease

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19
Q

60- Which one of the below oral lesions is a precancerous lesion?
A. Erythroplakia
B. Periodontitis
C. Pyogenic granuloma
D. Xerostomia
E. Sialadenitis

A

A. Erythroplakia

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20
Q

59- Which of the following statement is correct for viral gastroenteritis?
A. Rotavirus, norovirus, adenovirus, and astroviruses account for most cases of acute viral gastroenteritis
B. Bloody diarrhea is the most common finding in almost every case
C. The treatment of viral gastroenteritis is based on symptomatic support
D. Gastroenteritis caused by viruses is generally characterized by the acute

A

B. Bloody diarrhea is the most common finding in almost every case

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21
Q

58- Which of the following microorganisms is the most common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium septicum
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Clostridium botuli;

A

C. Clostridium difficile

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22
Q

85- Which of these diseases is linked with chronic diarrhea?
A. Celiac disease
B. Irritable bowel syndrome
C. Diabetes
D. Cronh Colitis
E. A, B, C and D

A

A, B, C and D

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23
Q

57- Which of the following parasites pass through the lungs during their life cycle?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Taenia saginata

A

B. Ascaris lumbricoides

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24
Q

56- Which of the following parasites causes microcytic hypochromic anemia in infestation?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
E. Giardia lamblia

A

A. Ancylostoma duodenale

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25
Q

54 Which of the following parasite can enter through intact skin?
A. Giardia
B. Whip worm
C. Strongyloides
D. Trichinella
E. Taenia

A

Strongyloides

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26
Q

55- Hydatid disease of the liver is caused by:
A. Strongyloides
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Tania solium
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Diphyllobothrium latum

A

B. Echinococcus granulosus

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27
Q

53- Match the following viruses with the below.
1. Hepatitis A virus
2. Hepatitis B virus
3. Hepatitis C virus
4. Hepatitis D virus a.
Enveloped DNA virus that is transmitted by blood
b. Enveloped RNA virus that has the surface antigen of another virus
c. Enveloped RNA virus that is the most common cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis
d. Nonenveloped RNA virus that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
A. la, 2d, 3c, 46
B. 1b, 2a, 3d, 4C
C. 1b, 2a, 3d. 4c
D. Id, 2a, 3c, 46
E. Id, 2a, 3b, 4c

A

D

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28
Q

52- A young woman presents with malaise, fever, and loss of appetite. On examination he sclera reveals jaundice. Initial testing reveals negative tests for HBs antigen and anti-HIB antibody. Which of the following tests would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis of acut infection with hepatitis B virus in the window’s period?
A. Delta antigen
B. Anti-HBc IgM antibody
C. Anti-HBe antibody
D. HBe antigen
E. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

A

B. Anti-HBc IgM antibody

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29
Q

51-A 3-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because “something” appears in the child’s rectum after a bowel movement. The mother states that the girl has been having intermittent diarrhea for the past few weeks. The child’s vitals are normal. Stool ova and parasite evaluation recover the below ovum:

Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection?
A Ancvlostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Taenia saginala
E. Trichuris trichiura

A

E. Trichuris trichiura

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30
Q

50- A 60-year-old male in the intensive care unit recovering from back surgery requirec intubation for respiratory support. Forty-eight hours after intubation, he developed ventilator associated pneumonia. The microorganism isolated from tracheal secretions aspirated from th patient is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive, obligate aerobe that produces a multitude virulence factors including proteases, toxins, and adhesins. Which is the most likely causativ agent of this patient’s infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influen-ae
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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31
Q

49- A 19-year-old young man presents with a history of diarrhea, abdominal cramps, a few days after acquiring a pet turtle. Which of the following is the likely cause of his
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. E. coli 0157.:H7
C. Salmonella spp
D. Shigella spp
I
E. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

C

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32
Q

48- A 52-year-old man leaves work shortly after lunch with nausea, abdominal cramps, a vomiting. Early that morning he had consumed several cream-chocolate eclairs at an off breakfast. Several of his coworkers are also experiencing similar symptoms. By the n morning, he is feeling fairly well and is able to return to work. Which of the following is most likely causative agent?
A. Anaerobic gram-positive rods with spores
B. Aerobic gram-positive rods with spores
C. Microaerophilic curved gram-negative rods
D. Aerobic gram-positive cocci in clusters
E. Aerobic gram-negative rods.

A

D. Aerobic gram-positive cocci in clusters

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33
Q

47- Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin?
A. ADP ribosylation of Elongation Factor 2
B. Depolymerization of actin.
C. Hydrolysis of lecithin
D. Interaction with G proteins causing increased intracellular cAMP
E. Formation of cation-selective pores in cell membranes

A

D. Interaction with G proteins causing increased intracellular cAMP

34
Q

46- A 65-year-old healthy female goes to a developing country on her yearly vacation. She uses the local water to make her fruit juice. Thirty-six hours later, she develops profuse watery diarrhea, severe cramping, and abdominal pain. She is diagnosed with Escherichia coli-related diarrhea. Which of the following E. coli types is characterized by the presence of heat-labil (LT) and heat-stable (ST) toxin proteins?
A. Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
C. Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)
D. Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
E. Enteroinvazive (EIEC)

A

B. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)

35
Q

45- Which of the following is correct regarding Enterobacteriaceae?
A. All fermented glucose, and lactose
B. All are oxidase positive, catalase negative
C. All can grow only under anaerobic conditions
D. All have core polysaccharide
E. All K antigens are heat-labile flagellin proteins.

A

D. All have core polysaccharide

36
Q

44- A 68-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease is presented with a high fever and admitted to the hospital for possible sepsis. After 24 hours, Gram stain from blood cultures demonstrates the presence of pink, rod-shaped organisms. Based on the Gram stain results, which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent of this infection?
A. Candida albicans
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Helicobacter pvlori
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Staphylococcus aureus

A

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

37
Q

43- Which disease below is inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Type I diabetes
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Colon cancer
E. Pancrealitis

A

C. Ulcerative colitis

38
Q

42- What is the name of the disease caused by mutations in the protease serine I (PRSSI) gene some of which can cause premature conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin?
A. Hereditary pancreatitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Type I diabetes
D. Colon cancer
E. Alagille Syndrome

A

A. Hereditary pancreatitis

39
Q

41-Which one is the precursor of the potent vasoconstrictor serotonin?
A. Histidine
B. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glycine
E. Glutamate

A

C. Tryptophan

40
Q

40- Gluconeogenesis is not an exact reversal of glycolysis and different reactions are required to convert pyruvate to glucose. Which of the following incorrectIv pairs a glycolytic enzyme with the gluconeogenic enzyme that catalyzes the “reverse” reaction?
A. Phosphofructokinase-fructose 1,6 bisphosphates
B. Pyruvate kinase-pyruvate carboxylase
C. Hexokinase-glucose 6-phosphatase
D. Pyruvate kinase-phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
E. Pyruvate kinase-pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

D. Pyruvate kinase-phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

41
Q
  1. Which of the following incorrectly pairs a pathway with one of its regulated enzymes?
    A. TCA cycle: fumarase
    B. B-oxidation of fatty acids: carnitine acy| transferase II (CAT I)
    C. Glycolysis: phosphoglycerate kinase
    D. Fatty acid synthesis: acetyl CoA carboxylase
    E. Urea cycle: carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I)
A

Urea cycle: carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I)

42
Q

38- A person suffering from phenylketonuria on the consumption of food containing hig phenylalanine may lead to the accumulation of which of the following substances?
A. Phenylpyruvate
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
D. Isoleucine
E. Alanine

A

A. Phenylpyruvate

43
Q

37- The two nitrogens in urea enter the urea synthesis pathway in what molecular form?
A. Both as ammonia
B. One as ammonia and one as the amide of glutamine
C. One as ammonia and one as the a-amino group of aspartates
D. One as ammonia and one as the a-amino group of glutamines
E. Both as the amide of glutamine

A

C. One as ammonia and one as the a-amino group of aspartates

44
Q

36- Choose the correct answer for the necessary coenzyme for transamination reactions.
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Thiamine pyrophosphate
C. Coenzyme A
D. Tetrahydrobiopterin
E. Folate

A

A. Pyridoxal phosphate

45
Q

35- Which carriers are used to transport the ammonia produced in muscle degradation of nitrogenated compounds through the blood to the liver?
A. Alanine and glutamine
B. Urea and alanine
C. NH4+ and glutamate
D. Glutamate and glutamine
E. a-Ketoglutarate and urea

A

A. Alanine and glutamine

46
Q

34- Which enzyme activity deficiency in the pentose phosphate pathway leads to the hemolysis of erythrocytes?
A. Glucokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. Aldolase
D. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
E. Pyruvate kinase

A

D. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

47
Q

33- Under starvation conditions which of the following substances is the preferred source of fuel for brain tissue?
A. Glucose
B. Fatty acids
C. Liver glycogen
D. Acetone
E. Acetoacetate (2 Acetyl-CoAs)

A

E. Acetoacetate (2 Acetyl-CoAs)

48
Q

32-All of the following statements about the enzymic complex that carries out the synthesis of
ATP during oxidative phosphorylation are correct except which one?
A. It is located on the matrix side of the inner mitochondrial membrane
B. It is inhibited by oligomycin
C. It can exhibit A TPase activity
D. It is inhibited by CO.
E. It can bind molecular 02

A

E. It can bind molecular 02

49
Q

80- Which of the following adverse events related to the use of antimalarial drugs causes arrhythmia?
A. Cinchonism
B. Conduction defects (QT interval prolongation)
C. Vertigo and tinnitus
D. Hemolysis in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)-deficient patients
E. Folate deficiency

A

B. Conduction defects (QT interval prolongation)

50
Q

79- Which of the following can not be used for this patient who has the following abdominal X-ray due to nonobstructive distension?

A. Nasogastric decompression
B. Metoclopramide
C. Neostigmine
D. Erythromisin
E. Loperamide

A

E. Loperamide

51
Q

78- Which of the following drugs is used for prevention of motion sickness and better tolerated as a transdermal patch?
A. Scopolamine
B. Dolasetron
C. Haloperidol
D. Metoclopramide

A

A. Scopolamine

52
Q

77-Proton pump inhibitors have a short serum half-life of about 1.5 hours, but acid inhibition lasts up to 24 hours owing to which of the following?
A. Administration as inactive prodrugs
B. Formulations for delayed release
C. Administration on an empty stomach
D. Irreversible inactivation of the proton pump
E. Prodrug trapping (>1000-fold) in the parietal cell canaliculi

A

D. Irreversible inactivation of the proton pump

53
Q

31- The ileum and distal jejunum of a 34-year-old man is ruptured in an automobile accident.
The entire ileum and a portion of the jejunum are resected. What is most likely to occur in this
man?
A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Constipation
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

E. Vitamin B12 deficiency

54
Q

30- Which changes would be expected to stimulate hunger in a person who has not eaten for
hours?
A. Increased NPY in the hypothalamus
B. Increased leptin secretion
C. Increased peptide YY (PYY) secretion
D. Decreased ghrelin secretion
E. Activation of hypothalamic POMC neurons

A

Increased NPY in the hypothalamus

55
Q

42 in search of novel acid neutralizing compounds, a therapeutic peptide intravenously in dogs; then pancreatic sodium bicarbonate secretion is measured in the presence and absence of additional vagal stimulation. The results are shown in the image and resemble the normal humoral response of a natural peptide. The drug peptide is most likely an analog of which of the following natural peptides?

A. Gastrin
B. Gastrin-releasing peptide
C. Enkephalin
D. Secretin
E. Vasoactive intestinal peptide

A

Secretin

56
Q

28- Gastrin gene knockout (GAS-KO) mice do not produce gastrin-17 (*little gastrin”) in response to food. As a direct consequence, which of the following substances will most likely be diminished in these animals?
A. Amino acids
B. Bile acids
C. Fatty acids
D. Hydrochloric acid
E. Glucose

A

Hydrochloric acid

57
Q

27-Glucose-galactose malabsorption is a rare disorder caused by mutations in SGLT-1. Infants with this disorder develop severe osmotic diarrhea if they consume certain carbohydrates. Of the following, which would not be expected to cause symptoms in these patients?
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Amylopectin
D. Lactose
E. Fructose

A

Fructose

58
Q

26- A chronic alcoholic is urged to abstain from alcohol, because of which of the following consequences of liver failure?
A. Absorption of all nutrients will be impaired.
B. Plasma levels of ammonia will rise.
C. Plasma oncotic pressure will rise.
D. Severe hyperglvcemia will develop.
E. The chance for venous thrombosis will rise.

A

Plasma levels of ammonia will rise.

59
Q

25- A 65-year-old man eats a healthy meal. Approximately 40 minutes later the ile sphincter relaxes and chyme moves into the cecum. Gastric distention leads to relaxation ileocecal sphincter by way of which reflex?
A. Enterogastric
B. Gastroileal
C. Gastrocolic
D. Intestino-intestinal
E. Rectosphincteric

A

Gastroileal

60
Q

24- A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis due to the complete absence of electrical slow waves at the gastroduodenal junction. The pediatric gastroenterologist explains to the parents that in the bowel section where food transits from the stomach to the small intestine, a certain tvpe of cell that initiates motility is missing. Which of the following is most likely the missing cell type?
A. Enteric mast cells
B. Enteroendocrine cells
C. Interstitial cells of Cajal
D. Parietal cells
E. Secretomotor neurons

A

C. Interstitial cells of Cajal

61
Q

21- The pancreas delivers an alkaline pH fluid to the duodenum that helps to neutralize the acidity of gastric juice, protect the small intestine, and provide an optimum pH for hydrolytic enzymes present in the lumen. What portion of the exocrine pancreas secretes most of this bicarbonate- and sodium-rich alkaline fluid?
A. Intercalated ducts
B. Interlobular ducts
C. Intralobular ducts
D. Pancreatic duct of Santorini
E. Pancreatic duct of Wirsung

A

Intercalated ducts

62
Q

23 Picture histo

A. Enterocvtes- Mucus
B. Goblet cells- Mucus
C. Macrophages- Lysozyme
D. Paneth cells- a-defensins
E. Plasma cells- Lysozyme

A

Paneth cells- a-defensins

63
Q

22 pic histo
A. Liver remark cords. Branch of hepatic art. Bile duct
B. Pancreas Islet of Langerhans. Centroasines Serous aciner
C stomach Billroth cords Paristal cell. Chief selk.
D. Liver Portal triad Branch of portal vein.Bile duct

A

D

64
Q

20- Your laboratory instructor asks you to discuss the endocrine, exocrine, absorptive, and secretory functions of the liver. Secreted proteins such as albumin, clotting factors, and nonimmune globulins enter what microscopic cavity before entering the liver sinusoid?
A. Duct of Santorini
B. Duct of Wirsung
C. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus
D. Space of Disse
E. Space of Mall

A

D. Space of Disse

65
Q

18- One of your classmates casually mentions that the Liver produces about 1 L of bile As you attempt to confirm this surprising information through an independent study, ) that cholangiocytes continuouslv monitor the flow of bile. What subcellular org sensitive to the directional flow of bile in the biliary tree?
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Hemidesmosomes
D. Microvilli
T
E. Stereocilia

A

A. Cilia

66
Q

17- A 58-year-old woman with a history of indigestion after meals and “heartburn’ with upper abdominal pain. She is currently being treated with proton pump inhi gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following types of epithelia proton pumps and generates hydrochloric acid (HCI) within the lumen of the stoma‹
A. Chief cells
B. Enterocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Paneth cells
E. Parietal cells

A

E. Parietal cells

67
Q

16- A 45-year-old man complains of difficulty swallowing and a tendency to regurg food. Further studies demonstrate a complete absence of peristalsis and failure of ! esophageal sphincter to relax upon swallowing. These clinicopathologic findings are s as a deficiency (or absence) of which of the following structures in the distal esophag
A. Ganglion cells in the Auerbach plexus
B. Ganglion cells in the Meissner plexus
C. Presvnaptic parasympathetic nerves
D. Presynaptic sympathetic nerves
E. Smooth muscle in the muscularis externa

A

A. Ganglion cells in the Auerbach plexus

68
Q

15- Which statement does not depict features of the ileum?
A. Narrower and often loaded
B. Pever’s patches present
C. Vasa recta shorter and more numerous
D. Mesentery has numerous arterial arcades, 3 or 6 in number
E. Wall is thicker and more vascular

A

E. Wall is thicker and more vascular

69
Q

During endoscopy cholecystectomy on a 64 year old what artery should be clamped

A

Cystic

70
Q

13- A 63-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department with acute pain mandible. An MRI examination reveals an acute inflammation of the Temporomandibul due to arthritis. Which of the following muscles will most likely be affected inflammatory process of the temporomandibular joint of this patient?
A. Temporalis
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Buccinator
E. Masseter

A

C. Lateral pterygoid

71
Q

12- Which of the following artery does anastomosis on the greater curvature of the
A. Left gastric artery
B. Right gastric artery
C. Short gastric artery
D. Inferior phrenic artery
E. Right gastroepiploic artery

A

E. Right gastroepiploic artery

72
Q

11- Which of the following structures is not a part of the stomach bed?
A. Diaphragm
B. Splenic artery
C. Anterior surface of the pancreas
D. Left suprarenal gland
E. Left colic flexure

A

E. Left colic flexure

73
Q

10- Which of the following anatomical structures of the anterior abdominal we remnant of any embryological structure?
A. Median umbilical fold
B. Medial umbilical fold
C. Ligament of teres hepatis

A
74
Q

9Which of the following structures participate in forming the anterior wall canal?
A. Cremasteric muscle
B. Quadratus lumborum muscle
C. Rectus abdominis muscle and rectus sheath
D. Internal and external oblique
E. Iransversus abdominis muscle and transversals fascia

A

D. Internal and external oblique

75
Q

8- Which of the following structures is one of the anterior neighbors of guadratus lumb.
A. Subcostal nerve
B. Genitofemoral nerve
C. Cecum
D. Testicular vessels
E. Ureter

A

A. Subcostal nerve

76
Q

7- A 48-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain. A radiog examination reveals a tumor in the tail of the pancreas. A diagnostic arteriogram shows tumor has compromised the blood supply to another organ. Which of the following g most likelv to have its blood supply compromised by this tumor?
A. Duodenum
B. Gallbladder
c. Kidney
D. Liver
E. Spleen

A

E. Spleen

77
Q

6-Which of the following vein does not drain directly into the inferior vena cava?
A. Hepatic veins
B. Renal veins
C. Lumbar veins
D. Inferior mesenteric vein
E. Right testicular vein

A

D. Inferior mesenteric vein

78
Q

S- The internal anal sphincter receives its nerve supply from which of the following nerves?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Inferior hypogastric plexus
C. Obturator gerve
D. Pudendal nerve
E. Pudendal nerve and the perineal branch of S4

A

B. Inferior hypogastric plexus

79
Q

4- A 17-year-old female is brought to the hospital with fever, nausea, and diffuse paraumbilical pain which later becomes localized in the lower right quadrant. An appendectomy procedure is begun with an incision at McBurney’s point. Which of the following landmarks best describes.
McBumey’s point?
A. The midpoint of the inguinal Ligament in line with the right nipple
B. Iwo-thirds of the distance from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine
C. A line that intersects the upper one third of the inguinal ligament
D. A line that intersects the lower third of the inguinal ligament, about 2 cm from the pubic tubercle
E. One-third of the distance from the the umbilicus to semilunar line.

A

Iwo-thirds of the distance from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine

80
Q

3- A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and a high white blood cell count. He reports having suffered a small stab wound in his back a few months ago. Because it was a shallow wound, he did not seek medical attention. The physician states that he has a retroperitoneal abdominal infection. Which of the following structures is most likely to be affected?
A. Descending colon
B. Jejunum
C. Iransverse colon
D. Stomach
E. Appendix vermiformis

A

A. Descending colon

81
Q

2- A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of a small intestine. obstruction. Upon CT examination it is found that the horizontal part of the duodenum is being compressed by a large vessel. Which of the following vessels will most likely be causing the compression?
A. Inferior mesenteric artery
B. Superior mesenteric artery.
C. Inferior mesenteric vein
D. Portal vein
E. Splenic vein

A

B. Superior mesenteric artery.

Finak Year 3 (11 decks)

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