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Finak Year 3 > 305 This Yr > Flashcards

305 This Yr Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following structure is located anterior superior aspect of the hypophysis?
    A. Anterior comissure
    B. Pons
    C. Optic chiasma
    D. Basilar artery
    E. Sphenoidal
A

C. Optic chiasma

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is the marked structure with X?

A. Superior laryngeal nerve
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Superior thyroid vein
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Inferior thyroid artery

A

Inferior thyroid artery

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is wrong for the suprarenal glands?
    A. They are located on the superior pole of the kidney retroperitoneally
    B. Renal fascia covers suprarenal gland with kidney
    C. Middle suprarenal arteries are the branches of renal arteries
    D. Glucocorticoids are secreted from zona reticularis
    E. Left suprarenal vein drains into left renal vein
A

C. Middle suprarenal arteries are the branches of renal arteries

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common ONS glioma?
    A. Glioblastoma multiforme
    B. Diffuse astrocytoma
    C. Anaplastic astrocytoma
    D. Meningioma
    E. Ependymal tumors
A

A. Glioblastoma multiforme

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common primary CNS tumors by histologic group?
    A. Astrocytoma
    B. Oligodendroglioma
    C. Pituitary
    D. Meningioma
    E. Nerve sheat
A

D. Meningioma

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6
Q
  1. Among the listed below which is the less common GNS tumor in children aged 0-14?

A. Pilocytic astrocytoma
B. Medulloblastoria
C. Diffuse astrocytonia
D. Malignant glioma
E. Oligodendroglioma

A

Oligodendroglioma

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not the reason of hypocalcemia
    A. Pseudohypoparathysoidism
    B. Resistance to vitamin D
    C. Chronic renal failure
    D. Hungry bone syndrome
    E. Severe hypermagnesemia
A

E. Severe hypermagnesemia

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a clinical finding of hyperparathyroidism?
    A. Hypertension
    B. Tetany
    C. Anemia
    D. Depression
    E. Pancreatitis
A

B. Tetany

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic in case of acromegaly?
    A. Acral extension
    B. Joint pain
    C. Hypotension
    D. Sweating
    E. Carpal tunnel syndrome
A

C. Hypotension

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common manifestation of pituitary adenoma?
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Gigantism
    C. Hyperprolactinemia
    D. Cushing syndrome
    E. Hyperthyroidism
A

C. Hyperprolactinemia

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a clinical finding of Cushing syndrome?
    A. Bufalo hump
    B. Proximal myopathy
    C. Stria
    D. Weight loss
A

D. Weight loss

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong about Whipple’s triad?
    A. It’s a pathological condition that can be scen in insulinoma
    B. Low plasma glucose measured with a precise method
    C. Existence of hypoglycemia symptoms
    D. Relief of symptoms after glucose/dextrose administration
    E. Existence of glucagonoma
A

E. Existence of glucagonoma

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13
Q
  1. A 29-year-old woman complains difficulty of swallowing for the few months and also noted that her voice has been sounding different for the past 2 weeks. On physical exam there is a palpable, nontender nodule in the front of her neck that moves with swallowing. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. Ultrasound of the neck shows a 1.4 cm nodule with microcalcifications. Risk factors include radiation exposure to the head and nock. Which of the following is wrong about this case?
    A. Fine needle aspiration biopsy shows psammoma bodies
    B. Diagnosis of patient is papillary carcinoma
    C. Calcitonin level is necessary for follow up
    D. Total thyroidectomy is the choice of treatment
    E. Thyroglobulin follow up is necessary after
A

C. Calcitonin level is necessary for follow up

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14
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic for increased frequency of urinating. thint.
    She was in a car accident about a month ago, where she had head trauma. Since then, she reports that she has noticed this increased frequency of urination. Cranial tomography is normal. Increased serum osmolarity and decreased urine osmolality are detected. Which of the following is your diagnosis and gold standart test for diagnosis?
    A. Central diabetes insipidus-ACTH stimulation test
    B. Central diabetes insipidus-water deprivation test
    C. Central diabetes insipidus-ADH measurement
    D. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus-dexamethasone supression test
A

B. Central diabetes insipidus-water deprivation test

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15
Q
  1. A 27-year-old woman present to the labor and delivery floor for labor. After 2 hours, stic successfully delivered vaginally a 3200 g baby girl. A physical examination of this sewbor demonstrates clitoral enlargement and labial fusion. The baby girl has 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Which of the following is your diagnosis for this baby?
    A. Hyperthyroidisim
    B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    C. Addison disease
    D. Benign pheochromocytomas
    E. Cushing’s disense
A

B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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16
Q
  1. A 3-month-old male infant has a lump in his neck. A biopsy of the lump shows it to be thymic tissue. Based on embryonic origin. which of the following additional structures is most likely to have an ectopic location?
    A. Jugulodigastric lymph node
    B. Lingual tonsil
    C. Parathyroid gland
    D. Submandibular gland
    E. Thyroid gland
A

C. Parathyroid gland

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17
Q
  1. A 3-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital because of a soft. anterior. midline cervical mass. When the patient is asked to protrude his tongue, the mass in the neck is observed to move upward. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. A thyroglossal duct cyst
    B. Defect in sixth pharyngeal arch
    C. A branchial cyst
    D. Cystic fistula of the third pharyngeal arch
    E. Defect in first pharyngeal arch
A

A. A thyroglossal duct cyst

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18
Q
  1. A 15-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe headache and hydrocephalus. Radiographic examination reveals a craniopharyngioma occupying the sella turcica, primarily involving the suprasellar space. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this tumor?
    A. Persistence of a small portion of the Rathke pouch
    B. Abnonnal development of pars tuberalis
    C. Abnormal development of foramina of Mono
    D. Abnormal development of the alar plates that form the lateral wall of diencephalon
    E. Abnormal development of diencephalon
A

A. Persistence of a small portion of the Rathke pouch

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19
Q
  1. Host-specific factors that are thought to predispose diabetic patients to infection include the followings except:
    A. Vascular disease related to diabetes
    B. Minor local trauma in patients with diabetes-associated peripheral neuropathy
    C. Autonomic neuropathy may develop urinary retention and stasis
    D. Skin and mucosal colonization with pathogens
    E. Higher secretion of inflammatory cytokines
A

E. Higher secretion of inflammatory cytokines

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of invasive external otitis (Malignant otitis extera) in dinbetic patients?
    A. Clostridium perfiringese
    B. Bacteroides fragilis
    C. Pseudomonas derugosa
    D. Escherichia colt
    E. Coagulase negative staphylococci
A

C. Pseudomonas aerugosa

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong about growth hormone?
    A. Acts on the liver, stimulating it to release several polypeptide hormones
    B. Stimulates amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in target cells
    C. Stimulates cell growth (cell size and number), specially in muscle and bone
    D. It has no role in fat breakdown
    E. Stimulates protein synthesis
A

D. It has no role in fat breakdown

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22
Q
  1. Steroid hormone precursors are converted to active hormones and diffuse out of the parent cell by which of the following pathways?
    A. Simple diffusion
    B. Facilitated diffusion
    C. Exocytosis
    D. Carrier proteins
    E. Na -K ion channels
A

A. Simple diffusion

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23
Q
  1. Which hormone is secreted from anterior pituitary?
    A. Growth hormone
    B. Vasopressin
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Epinephrine
    E. Glucagon
A

A. Growth hormone

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24
Q
  1. All the following are normal events leading to secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal
    gland except which one?
    A. Renin is released by the laidney in hypovolemin
    B. Angiotensinogen binds to membrane receptors
    C. The phosphoinositol (PI) cycle is activated producing IPs and DAG
    D. Cal- levels in the cell rise
    E. Aldosterone is secreted into the blood
A

B. Angiotensinogen binds to membrane receptors

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for TSH?
    A. Increases thyroxine secretion from the thyroid gland
    B. Increases the degradation of thyroglobulin protease enzyme
    C. Increases the activity of the iodide pump
    D. Increases the number of thyroid cells
    E. Increases iodination
A

B. Increases the degradation of thyroglobulin protease enzyme

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26
Q
  1. Fill in the blank.
    The subunits of the heterotrimeric G-proteins are called the
    A. a. B, and %.
    B. a. B, and 6
    C. a. %,. and o
    D. a. B, and y
    E. 7. 6, and n
A

Alpha beta gamma

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones termed the “light-of-fight” hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
    A. Epinephrine
    B. Oxytocin
    C. Insulin
    D. Glucagon
    E. Somatostatin
A

A. Epinephrine

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28
Q
  1. Which enzyme is inhibited by insulin?
    A. Phosphofructokinase
    B. Glucolinase
    C. Hexokinase
    D. Pyruvate kinase
    E. Glucose-6-phosphatase
A

E. Glucose-6-phosphatase

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29
Q
  1. Which hormone is secreted by a cells in the pancreas in response to low blood glucos levels?
    A. Insulin
    B. Glucagon
    C. Estradiol
    D. Epinephrinc
    E. Somatostatin
A

B. Glucagon

30
Q
  1. Thyroid hormones are intimately involved in regulating the basal metabolic rate. Choose the wrong statement.
    A. Excess thyroxine shows an increased rate of Os consumption
    B. Excess thyroxine shows increased heat output (thenmogenesis)
    C. Excess thyroxine decreases the ATP concentration in the tisstic
    D. Excess thyroxine causes uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria
    E. Thermogenesis is due to an increased rate of ATP utilization by the thyroxine stimulated
    tissue
A

C. Excess thyroxine decreases the ATP concentration in the tisstic

31
Q
  1. Adipose tissue produces leptin, a hormone that regulates feeding behavior and energy expenditure. Which of the following statements is not related to its mechanism of action?
    A. Leptin maintains adequate reserves of fat
    B. Leptin production and release increase with the number and size of adipocytes
    C. Leptin acts on receptors in the brain, causing the release of anorexigenie (appetite-suppressing) peptides
    D. Leptin stimulated anorexigenic (appetite-suppressing) peptides act in the brain to inhibit eating
    E. Some of the actions of leptin are mediated by AMPK, which is also activated by metabolic stress (ow [AMPI), and by exercise
A

E. Some of the actions of leptin are mediated by AMPK, which is also activated by metabolic stress (ow [AMPI), and by exercise

32
Q
  1. Glucocorticoid receptor are in the cytoplasm. All the following statements about the process by which the hormone influences transcription are correst except wlich one?
    A. The hormone must be in the free state to cross the cell membrane
    B. Cytoplasmic receptors may be associated with heat shock proteins
    C. The receptor-hormone complex is not activated/transformed until it is translocated to the nucleus
    D. In the nucleus, the activated transformed receptor-hormone complex searches for specific sequences on DNA called HREs (hormone receptor elements)
    E. The activated receptor- hormone complex may either activate of repress transcription of specific genes (only one activity per gene)
A

C. The receptor-hormone complex is not activated/transformed until it is translocated to the nucleus

33
Q
  1. If the stalk: between the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary is severed, the pituitary would fail to cause the ultimate release of all of the following hormones except which one?
    A. ACTH
    B. Oestradiol
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Testosterone
    E. Thyroxine
A

C. Oxytocin

34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning the mode of action of G proteins is correct?
    A. G proteins bind the approprate hormone at the cell surface
    B. G proteins interact with cytoplasmic receptors
    C. G proteins are second messengers
    D. G protein causes the regulatory subunits of the protein kinase to dissociate from the catalytic subunits
    E. Activated G protein may either activate or inhibit the production of second messenger
A

E. Activated G protein may either activate or inhibit the production of second messenger

35
Q
  1. Ketone bodies which are overproduced in diabetes and during starvation leads to what metabolic condition?
    A. Ketone body urinary excretion of S125 mg/24 hr
    B. Ketoacidosis
    C. Ketone body blood concentration of <3 mg 100 ml.
    D. High blood pH
    E. Decreased gluconcogenests
A

B. Ketoacidosis

36
Q
  1. Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney is the major consequence of which of the following hormones?
    A. Cortisol
    B. Insulin
    C. Vasopressin
    D. Aldosterone
    E. Glucagon
A

. Vasopressin

37
Q
  1. In liver cells, the expression of genes encoding gluconcogenic enzymes such as phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is induced in response to which of the following, molecules?
    A. cGMP
    B. Insulin
    C. ATP
    D. CAMP
    E. Cholesterol
A

D. CAMP

38
Q
  1. What is the most common mutation in somatotroph pituitary adenomas?
    A. MENI mutation
    B. RAS oncogene
    C. Rb gene mutation
    D. CDKNIB mutation
    E. G-protein mutations
A

E. G-protein mutation

39
Q
  1. Which of the below is not associated with aggressive behavior in pituitary adenomas?
    A. Higher proliferation rates
    B. Overexpression of cyclin D1
    C. RAS oncogene deactivation
    D. Brisk mitotic activity
    E. Mutations of TP53
A

C. RAS oncogene deactivation

40
Q
  1. Which of the below is a cause of secondary type hyperparathyroidison?
    A. Chronic renal insufficiency
    B. Nephrocalcinosis
    C. Water-clear cell hyperplasia/
    D. Chief cell adenoma
    E. Chief cell hyperplasia
A

A. Chronic renal insufficiency

41
Q
  1. What is central diabetes insipidus?
    A. Increased leptin levels
    B. Increased G protein secretion
    C. Reduced prolactin secretion
    D. Deficiency oF ADH secretion
    E. Increased growth hormone secretion after the closure of epiphysis
A

D. Deficiency oF ADH secretion

42
Q
  1. Which of the below statements is correct for multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes
    (MEN?
    A. In MEN-I syndrome ganglioneuromas of mucosal surfaces is seen
    B. A single amino acid change in RET is the cause of VEN’ type 2A syndrome
    C. MEN-1 is caused by germ line mutation in the gene encoding protein Menin
    D. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is seen in MEN-L
    E. Prolactin-secreting macroadenoma is a component of MEN type 2B
A

C. MEN-1 is caused by germ line mutation in the gene encoding protein Menin

43
Q
  1. Which of the following metabolic changes increases the risk of bone fracture due to the effect of thyroid hormone in hyperthyroidism?
    A. Decreased use of vitamin D in the body by sympathetic nervous system activity
    B. Decreased osteoblast nutrition by peripheral vasoconstriction
    C. Weakening of the bone cortex with excessive deposition of glycosaminoglycans in the bond matrix
    D. Increased cortical bone porosity with stimulation of bone resorption
    E. Decreased volume of the bone matrix due to atrophy of skeletal muscle
A

D. Increased cortical bone porosity with stimulation of bone resorption

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is not true for Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
    A. It is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies against thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase are formed
    B. The developing dense fibrosis extends beyond the capsule of the gland
    C. Histologically, Hurthle cells, lymphoid follicles with germinal center formation, and atrophic follicles without colloid are required for diagnosis
    D. CDS+ T cells, CD4+ T cells, and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity are responsible for the death of thyroid cells
    E. Patients are at increased risk of developing other auroimmune disenses
A

B. The developing dense fibrosis extends beyond the capsule of the gland

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a molecule released from tumor cells in thyroid medullary. carcinoma that has an important role in both diagnosis and postoperative patient follow-up?
    A. Thyroglobulin
    B. Thyroid peroxidase
    C. Calcitonin
    D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
    E. Catecholamine
A

C. Calcitonin

46
Q
  1. Which of the following pathology develops in the adrenal cortes as a result of endogenous
    ACTH suppression in Cushing’s syndrome due to exogenous glucocorticoid use?
    A. Diffuse hyperplasia
    B. Focal hyperplasia
    C. Functioning adenoma
    D. Lipid deposition
    E. Cortical atrophy
A

E. Cortical atrophy

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a factor that causes an acute crisis in an individual with adrenal cortical insufficiency?
    A. Autoimmune adrenalitis
    B. Massive adrenal hemorrhage in patients receiving anticoagulant therapy
    C. Any stress that forces limited physiological reserve I
    D. Rapid discontinuation of steroids in patients receiving exogenous sterond theraps
    E. Waterhouse-Friederischen syndrome
A

A. Autoimmune adrenalitis

48
Q
  1. Which of the following mechanisms is wroug regarding the effect of oberity on the pathogenesis of Type 2 Diabetes?
    A. Intracellular triglycerides, which increase as a result of the liver taking circulating fatty acids into the cell, inhibit insulin signaling
    B. Decreased adiponectin level, which partially increases the insulin sensitivity of peripheral tissues, decreases insulin sensitivity
    C. Excess free fatty acids within beta cells activate inflammation and inhibit insulin signaling
    D. Fatty acid metabolism products, which are powerful insulin activators, decrease due to the deterioration of fat metabolism
    E. Excess free fatty acid increases the release of proinflammatory cytokines from macrophages, and cytokines inhibit insulin signaling in peripheral tissue
A

D. Fatty acid metabolism products, which are powerful insulin activators, decrease due to the deterioration of fat metabolism

49
Q
  1. Which of the following pathologies develops in large vessels due to diabetes?
    A. Medial calcinosis
    B. Endothelial dysfunction
    C. Accelerated atherosclerosis
    D. Serous thickening
    E. Basal membrane thickening
A

C. Accelerated atherosclerosis

50
Q
  1. What is the characteristic change in the pancreas in nondiabetic newbors of diabetic mothers?
    I
    A. Reduction in the number and size of islets
    B. Intense fibrosis around the islet
    C. Peri-islet leukocyte infiltration
    D. Duct atrophy
    E. Increase in the number and size of islets
A

E. Increase in the number and size of islets

51
Q
  1. Which of the following tumors does not show localized amyloid deposition?
    A. Ovarian serous papillary carcinoma
    B. Pheochromocytoma
    C. Pancreatic islet tumors
    D. Medullary tumors of the thyroid gland
    E. Undifferentiated carcinomas of the stomach
A

A. Ovarian serous papillary carcinoma

52
Q
  1. A 36-year-old female patient presents with stomach pain unresponsive to medications and severe diarrhea two weeks before the onset of pain. Upper gastrointestinal endorcopic examination reveals multiple superficial ulcers in the stomach and duodenum and a solid mass of 1.5 cm in diameter in the pancreatic body on abdominal tomography. With these findings. what is your most likely diagnosis for the mass in the pancreas?
    A. Neuroblastoma
    B. Gastrinoma
    C. Insulinoma
    D. Pancreatic adenocarcinosha
    E. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm
A

B. Gastrinoma

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most important stimulus that triggers insulin relcase from pancreatic beta cells?
    A. Gastric emptying
    B. Decreased protein synthesis
    C. Inflammation
    D. Glucose entry into beta cells
    E. VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) increase
A

D. Glucose entry into beta cells

54
Q
  1. Which of the following findings is not compatible with isolated growth hormoos deficiency?
    A. Disproportionate short stature
    B. Baby face appreance
    C. Normal birth height
    D. Prolonged neonatal cholestatic jaundice
    E. Micropenis in boys
A

A. Disproportionate short stature

55
Q
  1. Which of the following findings Is not compatible with diabeter intipidus?
    A. Polyuria
    B. Polydipsia
    C. Hyponatremia
    D. Serum osmolality is > 300 mOsm/kg
    E. Urine osmolality is «300 mOsm/kg
A

C. Hyponatremia

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common enzyme deficiency seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
    A. 3-beta OH steroid dehydrogenase deficiency
    B. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
    C. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency
    D. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
    E. 20.22 desmolase deficiency
A

B. 21 hydroxylase deficiency

57
Q
  1. Which of the following enzyme deficiency cause hypertension and incomplete virilization?
    A. 3-beta OH steroid dehydrogenase deficiency
    B. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
    C. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency
    D. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
    E. 20,22 desmolase deficiency
A

D. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for oxytocin?
    A. May lead to placental abruption and’or uterine rupture as an adverse effect
    B. Used for tocolysis
    C. Used for induction and augmentation of labor
    D. Used to control of uterine hemonhage after delivery
    E. Can be used as intravenous infusion
A

B. Used for tocolysis

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about vasopressin?
    A. It is synthesized in the posterior pituitary gland
    B. It increases directly salt reabsorption in the collecting tubales and ducts
    C. It increases plasma osmolality
    D. It increases urine osmolality
    E. It directly stimulates thirst
A

D. It increases urine osmolality

60
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs of hormones and the corresponding action is incorrest?
    A. Glucagon- increased glycogenolysis in liver
    B. Glucagon- increased glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle
    C. Glucagon- increased gluconcogenesis
    D. Cortisol- increased gluconcogenesis
    E. Cortisol decreased glucose uptake in muscle
A

B. Glucagon- increased glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

61
Q
  1. Which hormone is largely unbound to plasma proteins?
    A. Cortisol
    B. 14
    C. ADH
    D. Estradio)
    E. Progesterone
A

ADH

62
Q
  1. Which change would be expested to occur with increased binding of a hormone to plaimas proteins?
    A. Increase in plasma clearance of the hormone
    B. Decrease in half-life of the hormone
    C. Increase in hormone activity
    D. Increase in degree of negative feedback exerted by the hormone
    E. Increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormons
A

E. Increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormons

63
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman is breastfeeding ber infant. During sucking which hormonal response is expected in the woman?
    A. Increased secretion of ADH from the supraoptic nuclei
    B. Increased secretion of ADH from the paraventricular nucle
    C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nuclei
    D. Decreased secretion of neurophysin
    E. Increased plasma levels of both oxytocin and ADH
A

C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nucla

64
Q
  1. A 40-year-old woman consumes a high-potassium diet for several weels. Which hormona) change is most likely to occur?
    A. Increased socretion of DHEA
    B. Increased secretion of cortisol
    C. Increased secretion of aldosterone
    D. Increased secretion of ACTH
    E. Decreased secretion of CRH
A

Increased secretion of aldosterone

65
Q
  1. A 37-year-old woman presents to ber physician with an enlarged thyroid gland and high plasma levels of T4 and T3. Which of the following is likely to be decreased?
    A. Heart rate
    B. Cardinc output
    C. Peripheral vascular resistance
    D. Ventilation rate
    E. Metabolic rate
A

C. Peripheral vascular resistance

66
Q
  1. Cortisone is chronically administered to a patient for the treatment of an autostrume disease. Which of the following would least likely occur in response to the cortisone trestmen
    A. Hypertrophy of the adrenal glands
    B. Increased plasma levels of C-peptide
    C. Decreased CRI secretion
    D. Increased blood pressure
    E. Hyperglycemia
A

A. Hypertrophy of the adrenal glands

67
Q
  1. GH secretion would most likely be suppressed under which condition?
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Gigantism
    C. Deep sleep
    D. Exercise
    E. Acute hyperglycemia
A

E. Acute hyperglycemia

68
Q
  1. What does not increase when insulin binds to its receptor?
    A. Fat synthesis in adipose tissue
    B. Protein synthesis in muscle
    C. Glycogen synthesis
    D. Gluconcogenesis in the liver
    E. Intracellular tyrosine kinase activity
A

D. Gluconcogenesis in the liver

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the carly stages of type 2 disbeles?
    A. Increased insulin sensitivity
    B. Decreased hepatic glucose output
    C. Increased plasma levels of C-peptide
    D. Increased plasm (B-hydrosybutync acid)
    E. Hypovolemia
A

C. Increased plasma levels of C-peptide

70
Q
  1. A 45-year-old woman has a mass in the sella furcica that compressca the portal tesscla disrupting pituitary access to hypothalamic scerctions. The aForetion rate of which hormone would most likely increase in this patient?
    A. ACTH
    B. GH
    C. Prolactin
    D. LH
    E TSH
A

Prolactin

Finak Year 3 (11 decks)

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