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Finak Year 3 > 303 This Year > Flashcards

303 This Year Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Translocation with which of the Y-linked gene to one of the X chromosomes is the case in most testicular disorder of sex development (DSD), known as 46, XX male syndrome?
    A. SRY, sex (determining) region Y chromosome
    B. CFTR. CF transmembrane conductance regulator
    C. AR, androgen receptor
    D. HBB, hemoglobin subunit beta
    E. AZF, azoospermia factor region
A

A. SRY, sex (determining) region Y chromosome

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2
Q
  1. Which one below is caused by mutation in the cystic fibrosis (CFTR) gene?
    A. Congenital absence of vas deferens (CAVD)
    B. SRY -negative 46.XX
    C. Down syndrome
    D. Polycyctic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
    E. 46.XX/47.XYY mosaicism
A

A. Congenital absence of vas deferens (CAVD)

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important precursor of placental steroids?
    A. Inhibin
    B. Maternal LDL cholesterol
    C. Activin
    D. Arachidonic acid
    E. Carnitine
A

B. Maternal LDL cholesterol

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4
Q
  1. A student is nervous for a big exam and is breathing rapidly, what do you expect out of the following?
    A. Metabolic Acidosis
    B. Metabolic Alkalosis
    C. Respiratory Acidosis
    D. Respiratory Alkalosis
    E. Simultaneous respiratory and metabolic acidosis
A

D. Respiratory Alkalosis

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5
Q

Which of the following enzymes convert circulating testosterone to biologically active compo-
unds?
A. ATPase
B. 178-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type II
C. 11B-hydroxylase
D. 5a-reductase
E. Adipose tissue lipoprotein lipase

A

D. 5a-reductase

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6
Q
  1. After meals, pregnant women enter the starved state more rapidly because of increased consumption of glucose and amino acids by the fetus. Choose the wrong answer.
    A. Plasma glucose levels fall rapidly
    B. Plasma amino acids levels fall rapidly
    C. Plasma insulin levels fall rapidly
    D. Glucagon and placental lactogen levels rise
    E. Lipolysis and ketogenesis are inhibited
A

E. Lipolysis and ketogenesis are inhibited

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7
Q
  1. What hormone keeps the uterine lining thick in preparation for pregnancy?
    A. Inhibins
    B. Testosterone
    C. Estrogen
    D. Progesterone
    E. Activins
A

C. Estrogen

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8
Q
  1. If a male does not enter puberty sometime in his teens, his doctor might prescribe which medi-cation(5)?
    A. Estrogen and progesterone
    B. Progesterone
    C. Growth hormone
    D. Testosterone
    E. Growth hormone and follicle stimulating hormone
A

Testosterone

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9
Q
  1. Artery of the ductus deferens is a branch of which artery listed below?
    A. Abdominal aorta
    B. Superior vesical artery
    C. External iliac artery
    D. Renal artery
    E. Median sacral artery
A

B. Superior vesical artery

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10
Q
  1. The androgen receptor is a member of the steroid thyroid superfamily. It elicits its activity by interacting with which of the following?
    A. Specific androgen response elements in the DNA of target genes
    B. A Nuclear membrane protein located in the nuclear pores
    C. A glycoprotein on the membrane of the lysosomes
    D. G-Protein in the plasma membrane
    E. CAMP
A

A. Specific androgen response elements in the DNA of target genes

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following muscle is the continuation of cremasteric muscle in the scrotum?
    A. External oblique abdominis muscle
    B. Transversus abdominis muscle
    C. Fascia transversalis
    D. Internal oblique abdominis muscle
    E. Pyrimadalis muscle
A

D. Internal oblique abdominis muscle

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following structure is not neighbour of posterior surface of the right kidney?
    A. Right twelfth rib
    B. Right psoas major
    C. Right quadratus lumborum
    D. Right genitofemoral nerve
    E. Right ilioinguinal nerve
A

D. Right genitofemoral nerve

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13
Q
  1. A 39 years old woman is admitted to the hospital with pelvic pain. Radiographic examination reveals a benign tumor on the left ovary. An ovariectomy is performed and the ovarian vessels
    vessels are ligated?
    are ligated. Which of the following structures has the highest risk of injury when the ovarian
    A. Uterine artery
    B. Vaginal artery
    C. Ureter
    D. Internal pudendal artery
    E. Pudendal nerve
A

C. Ureter

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14
Q
  1. A 64 years old man is admitted to the emergency department due to increasing difficulty in urinating over a period of several months. Physical examination reveals prostatic hypertrophy.
    After several unsuccessful attempts to catheterize the penile urethra, the urologist orders drainage of the urinary bladder by the least invasive procedure, avoiding entry into the peritoneal cavity or the injury of any major vessels or organs. Which of the following spaces needs to be traversed by the needle to reach the bladder?
    A. Ischioanal fossa
    B. Perineal body
    C. Retropubic space of Retzius
    D. Superficial perineal cleft
    E. Deep perineal pouch
A

C. Retropubic space of Retzius

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following structure is located in the deep perineal space (pouch) of male?
    A. Ischiocavernosus
    B. Bulb of penis
    C.Bulbospongiosus
    D.Bulbourethral glands
A

D.Bulbourethral glands

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is the narrowest part of the male urethra?
    A. Prostatic sinus
    B. Internal urethral orifice
    C. External urethral orifice
    D. Posterior of navicular fossa
    E. Bulbar fossa
A

C. External urethral orifice

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the anterior division branch of the internal iliac artery?
    A. Inferior vesical artery
    B. Middle rectal artery
    C. Internal pudendal artery
    D. Inferior gluteal artery
    E. Superior gluteal artery
A

E. Superior gluteal artery

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18
Q
  1. A 46 years old woman is admitted to the hospital with severe uterine bleeding. Radiographic examination reveals uterine fibroids. A uterine artery embolization is performed. Which of the following arteries will supply collateral circulation to the uterus?
    A. External iliac
    B. Inferior mesenteric
    C. Ovarian
    D. Internal pudendal
    E. Superior mesenteric
A

C. Ovarian

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19
Q
  1. Radiographic studies of a 42-vear-old woman reveal that she has a vulvar malignancy involving the clitoris. Removal of all affected lymph nodes would be indicated to avoid spread of this cancer. Which are the first lymph nodes to filter the lymphatic drainage of the involved
    area?
    A. Superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes
    B. Internal iliac lymph nodes
    C. Paraaortic lymph nodes
    D. Presacral lymph nodes
    E. Popliteal lymph nodes
A

A. Superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes

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20
Q

A 30-year-old industrial worker presents with anxiety. She is heavily exposed to oral and inhaled arsenic at her workplace, and she has just found out that she is 4 weeks pregnant. She has done some research and is concerned about the element affecting a structure termed “mesonephric duct? in the ferus.
20. Which of the following structures might be affected in the fetus?
A. Distal convoluted tubules
B. Major urinary calyces
C. Urinary bladder
D. Penile part of the urethra
E. Navicular fossa of the urethra

A

B. Major urinary calyces

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21
Q

A 30-year-old industrial worker presents with anxiety. She is heavily exposed to oral and inhaled arsenic at her workplace, and she has just found out that she is 4 weeks pregnant. She has done some research and is concerned about the element affecting a structure termed “mesonephric duct? in the fetus

  1. During a routine second-trimester ultrasound, she finds out that the sex of the fetus is male.
    Unfortunately, the radiologist also reports that the mesonephric duct has actually undergone severe developmental defects. Which of the following organs should still be normal in the new-
    bom?
    A. Epididymis
    B. Vas deferens
    C. Seminal vesicles
    D. Prostate gland
    E. Ejaculatory duct
A

D. Prostate gland

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22
Q
  1. A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital because of a palpable mass located external to the aponeurosis of the external oblique. Radiographic examination reveals that the mass is an ectopic testis, classified as interstitial. Failure of normal development of which of the following embryologic structures is responsible for ectopic testis?
    A. Gubernaculum
    B. Processus vaginalis
    C. Genital tubercle
    D. Seminiferous cords
    E. Labioscrotal swellings
A

A. Gubernaculum

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23
Q
  1. Which molecules have an activating role in the differentiation of the gonads towards the ovary?
    WTI
    Sf1
    SOX9
    WNT4
    role
A

No role
No role
No role
Has role

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct about the Sertoli cell?
    I. Synthesis of insulin-like protein 3 (INSL3)
    IL. Basally located, clear, oval nucleus with a large, centrally positioned nucleolus
    II.
    The lateral cell membranes form occluding junctions for blood-testis barrier
    IV.
    Synthesis of activin
    V. Contains crystals of Reinke
    VI. Synthesis and release of anti-mullerian hormone
    A.I-III- V. VI
    B.I-I-IV- V
    C. II- II- V. VI
    D.II- III-IV-VI
    E.I-II-III-IV
A

D.II- III-IV-VI

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are shown by arrows in the micrograph? Hair band purple

A. Primary spermatocyte
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Leydig cell
D. Sertoli cell
E. Elongated spermatid

A

D. Sertoli cell

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following organs is shown in the micrograph? Hollow 4 leaf

A. Ureter
B. Ductus epididymis
C. Urethra
D. Ductus deferens
E. Ductus efferent

A

D. Ductus deferens

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27
Q
  1. Which of the followings is correct for epididymis?
    A. Corpora amylacea is found in epididymis
    B. It contains tubuloalveolar gland
    C. Fructose is secreted by epididymis
    D.Glycerophosphocholine is secreted by epididymis
    E. Fertilization promoting peptide is secreted by epididymis
A

D.Glycerophosphocholine is secreted by epididymis

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the function of the renal structure indicated by the red arrows in the image?

A. Bulk reabsorption of solutes
B. Erythropoietin production
C. Formation of the corticopapillary gradient
D. Urine-concentrating mechanisms
E. Urine-diluting mechanisms

A

C. Formation of the corticopapillary gradient

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29
Q
  1. The image below is used to explain the kidneys’ ability for tubuloglomerular feedback in response to increased renal arterial pressure. Which of the sites labeled 1-4 are correctly identified as the sites where a change is sensed and the site primarily respond to the change?
A
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30
Q

31

A
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31
Q
  1. A patient experiences unexplained low blood clotting, and a problem in reabsorption is eventually considered. Under normal conditions, which segment labeled on the image below (1-7) reabsorbs the largest percentage o Inad of magnesium?
A
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32
Q
  1. Colonic crypt cells were studied in order to see whether aldosterone and antidiurt
    (ADH) act in the gastrointestinal system the same way as they do in renal principal they act in which of the following ways?
    Action of aldosterone
    Action of ADH
A

Na* reabsorption and K* secretion

Water reabsorption

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is expected to happen after intravenous infusion of 0.5 saline solution in a healthy adult male?
    A. Decreased androgen synthesis /
    B. Decreased atrial natriuretic peptide synthesis
    C. Increased aldosterone synthesis
    D. Increased angiotensin synthesis
    E. Increased antidiuretic hormone synthesis
A

E. Increased antidiuretic hormone synthesis

34
Q
  1. A 38-yearold man who has galactorrhea is found to have a prolactinoma. His physician treats him with bromocriptine, which eliminates the galactorrhea. Which of the following is the
    basis for the therapeutic action of bromocriptine?
    A. Antagonizes the action of prolactin on the breast
    B. Enhances the action of prolactin on the breast
    C. Inhibits prolactin release from the anterior pituitary
    D. Inhibits prolactin release from the hypothalamus
    E. Enhances the action of dopamine on the anterior pituitary
A

C. Inhibits prolactin release from the anterior pituitary

35
Q
  1. Which is not characteristic of a normal postpubertal male?
    A. Inhibin from the Sertoli cells decreases FSH secretion.
    B. Testosterone has paracrine effects on the Sertoli cells.
    C. Testosterone stimulates GRH from the hypothalamus.
    D. Testosterone inhibits LH secretion.
    E. GuRH from the hypothalamus is released in pulses.
A

C. Testosterone stimulates GRH from the hypothalamus.

36
Q
  1. What is the cause of acquired cystic disease of the kidney?

A. Multicystic dysplasia
B. Long term dialysis
C. Renal hypoplasia

A

B. Long term dialysis

37
Q
  1. Which is not a component of nephritic syndrome?
    A. Hematuria
    B. Proteinuria, usually in the subnephrotic range with or without edema
    C. Azotemia
    D. Hypertension
    E. Hypercalcemia
A

E. Hypercalcemia

38
Q
  1. Which of the below is a morphologic subtype of renal cell carcinoma? I
    A. Clear cell carcinoma
    C. Invasive papillary carcinoma
    D. Low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma
    E. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

A. Clear cell carcinoma

39
Q
  1. Which of the below glomerulonephritis is associated with Henoch-Schönlein purpura and the most common cause of recurrent microscopic or gross hematuria?
    A. Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
    B. Anti-GBM antibody-mediated crescentic glomerulonephritis
    C. IgA nephropathy
    D. Dense deposit disease
A

C. IgA nephropathy

40
Q
  1. Which of the below is a nonneoplastic epithelial disorder of the vulva?
    A. Condyloma lata
    B. Sarcoma botyroides
    C. Extramammary Paget disease
    D. Lichen sclerosus
    E. VAIN
A

D. Lichen sclerosus

41
Q
  1. Which of the below disease might be associated with HPV type 16 infection?
    A. Sarcoma botyroides
    B. Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia (EIN)
    C. Lichen simplex chronicus
    D. Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma
    E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva
A

E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva

42
Q
  1. Which of the below morphologic features is unnecessary for a diagnosis of uterine leio-myosarcoma?
    À. Mitotic count in 40 HPF
    B. Tumor necrosis
    C. Palisading pattern
    D. Cytologic atypia
A

C. Palisading pattern

43
Q
  1. Which of the below conditions is a complication of tubal pregnancy?
    A. Hematosalpinx
    B. Follicle cyst
    C. Funisitis
    D. Placenta accreata
    E. Hydatidiform mole
A

A. Hematosalpinx

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the microscopic findings observed in chronic pyelone-
    phritis?
    A. Atrophie tubules with PAS-positive cast in their lumens
    B. Interstitial fibrosis
    C. Vessels with mild arteriosclerosis
    D. Periglomerular sclerosis
    E. Liquefactive necrosis of the renal parenchyma
A

E. Liquefactive necrosis of the renal parenchyma

45
Q
  1. Which of the below definitions regarding testicular embryonal carcinoma are not correct?
  2. They are most often seen in young men between the ages of 20-30
    II. Tumor cells differentiate into cells resembling placental trophoblasts
    III. More than half of embryonal carcinomas metastasize at the time of diagnosis
    IV. Histologically typical appearance ler-Duval bodies
    V. Tumor includes foci of hemorrhage and necrosis
    A. I. II. V
    B. II. IV. V
    C. I. II. III
    D. II. IV
    E. I. V
A

D. IL. IV

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cervical epithelial change with the highest risk of cancer gression?
    A. Metaplastic change in endocervical polyp epithelium
    B. High-grade cervical intraepithelial lesion
    C. Chronic cervicitis
    D. Low-grade cervical intraepithelial lesion
    E. Squamous metaplasia
A

B. High-grade cervical intraepithelial lesion

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of endometriosis?
    A. Endometriotic tissue releases proinflammatory factors such as PGE2, IL-1B, and INFa.
    B. Activation of macrophages called by factors secreted by endometrial stromal cells is the cause of inflammation.
    C. Changes in the glandular epithelium in endometriotic tissue are precancerous for endom carcinoma.
    E. Endometriosis is considered an immune-related chronic inflammatory disease.
A

C. Changes in the glandular epithelium in endometriotic tissue are precancerous for endom carcinoma.

48
Q
  1. Transvaginal ultrasound is applied to a 59-year-old female patient who presented with mild, persistent pain in the right lower abdomen and weight loss of 8 kilograms in two months. Trans-vaginal ulirasound examination showed a right unilocular solid tumor 68×39×53 mm, with ane-choic content and multiple papillary projections. The mass is resected. In histopathological exam-ination; it was observed that atypical cubic epithelial cells formed papillary structures with hierarchical branching, contained concentrically laminated calcified concretions at the ends of the papillae, and some atypical cells were shed from the ends of the papillae. The stromal invasion
    was not observed.
    What is your prediagnosis based on these findings?
    A. Immature teratoma
    B. Serous borderline ovarian tumor
    C. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
    D. Brenner tumor
    E. Endometrioid tumor
A

B. Serous borderline ovarian tumor

49
Q
  1. Which gestational trophoblastic disease is described below?
    I. All genetic content is provided by two spermatozoa (or a diploid sperm).
    II. Iris not compatible with embryogenesis and does not contain fetal parts.
    III. Light microscopic examination shows a loose myxomatosis edematous strong dropic swelling of poorly vascularized or avascular chorionic villi and diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia.
    A. Complete hydatiform mole
    B. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
    C. Gestational choriocarcinoma
    D. Invasive mole
    E. Partial hydatiform mole
A

A. Complete hydatiform mole

50
Q

SI A 36-year-old man presents to his physician with urethral discharge and painful urination of 4rday duration. He had unprotected sexual intercourse as a one-night stand. His temperature is
37.1°C (98.8°F) and his blood pressure is 102/80 mm Hg. Physical exam reveals mucopurulent urethral discharge. No inguinal lymphadenopathy, genital, or rectal lesions are noted. A culture and Gram stain from the urethral discharge are sent to the microbiology laboratory and the Gram stain is shown as follow. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Ureaplasma urealyticum

A

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

51
Q

52.A 25-year-old man complains of a urethral discharge. You perform a Gram stain on a specimen of the discharge and see neutrophils but no bacteria. Of the organisms listed, the one most likely to cause the discharge is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Candida albicans
C. Coriella burneti
Treponema pallidum

A

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

52
Q

53.A 23-year-old man visits his physician because of a sore on his penis. He states that the sore does nor hunt, but he is concerned because it has been present for about 2 weeks. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F) and his pulse is 85 beats per minute. Physical examination reveals a single, indurared ulcer with well-demarcated edges on the penile shaft. No urethral discharge is noted.
Mid inguinal lymphadenopathy is observed, and the lymph nodes are firm and nontender. Which of the following is most likely to be found in scrapings from the genital ulcer?
A. Gram-negative rods
B. Gram-negative diplococci
C. Intraepithelial cell inclusions
D. Multinucleated giant cells
E. Spirochetes

A

E. Spirochetes

53
Q

54.A woman presents to her gynecologist complaining of pelvic pain, heavy bleeding during her period inadion to bleeding berween periods for the past3 months. Patient history is significant for fleshy, cauliflower-like raised lesions on the woman’s vulva 4 years ago. A Pap test is taken and the results indicate abnormal epithelial cells. A colposcopic biopsy reveals projections of ke-ratinized, squamous epithelium that is invading the underlying cervical stroma. A vaccine for
A. Hepatitis B virus
which of the following viruses can protect against this type of tumor?
B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
D. Hepatitis C virus
E. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

A

E. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

54
Q
  1. HIV can infect all of the following cells except:
    A. CD4- subset of lymphocytes
    B. Macrophages
    C. Monocytes
    D. Dendritic cells
    E. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
A

E. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

55
Q

Examination of the anus reveals the findings seen in the following image. The rest of his physical is unremarkable. The MHA-TPA (a treponemal antibody test) is negative. What is the most diagnosis?

A. Chancroid
B. Condyloma acuminata
C. Genital herpes
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
E. Secondary syphilis

A

B. Condyloma acuminata

56
Q

30-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of vaginal itching and a yellow discharge. She also complains of painful urination. She admits to being sexually acure with several men in the past two weeks. Cultures are negative for bacterial growth, but organisms are visible via a wet preparation on low power. Which of the followings is the most likely causal agent?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Candida albicans
C.Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Trichophyton rubrum
E. Chlamvdia trachomatis

A

C.Trichomonas vaginalis

57
Q

58.If an E coli is introduced into the urinary bladder by mechanical disruption of the perineal
A. Enterotoxin
flora, which of the following would give it the best chance to produce pyelonephritis?
B. Urease production
C. P fimbriae
D. IgA protease
E. LPS endotoxin

A

C. P fimbriae

58
Q

39.A 23-year-old woman is symptomatic of a lower urinary tract infection but urine sample demonstrated sterle prana. Which of the following is not cause of sterile pyuria?
A. Renal tract Mycobacterium tiberculosis infection
B. Chlamvdia trachomatis urethritis
C. Antibiotic-treated Escherichia coli urinary tract infection
D. Neiseria gonorrhoece infection
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus urinary tract infection

A

E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus urinary tract infection

59
Q
  1. A young woman is identified as a sexual partner of a man recently diagnosed with gonococcal urethrits. She is in good health with no genital pain or discharge. The best way to determine if she has gonorrhea is:
    A. Pilin serology
    B. Opa serology
    C. Gram stain
    D. Fist catch urine
    E. Cervical culture
A

E. Cervical culture

60
Q

61.A 29-year-old woman has persistent vaginal discharge and itching. Which one of the following would establish a diagnosis of trichomoniasis?
A. Vaginal clue cells seen by cytology
B. Visualization of organisms by KOH
C. Vaginal fluid for ova and parasites
D. Visualization of motile organisms in vaginal fluid
E. White blood cells with no organisms seen in vaginal fluid

A

D. Visualization of motile organisms in vaginal fluid

61
Q
  1. Which of the following does not cause genital ulcers?
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoea
    B. Treponema pallidum
    C. Herpes simplex
    D. Haemophihis ducreyi
    E. Klebsiella granulomatis
A

A. Neisseria gonorrhoea

62
Q
  1. Which of the following inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme, can be used for the treatment
    A. Furosemide
    of glaucoma, prevention of altitude sickness and may cause metabolic acidosis?
    B. Spironolactone
    C. Ethacrynic acid
    D. Acetazolamide
    E. Mannito!
A

D. Acetazolamide

63
Q
  1. Loop diuretics may cause mostly which of the following acid-base disturbances?

A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. Mixed type acid base disturbances

A

A. Metabolic alkalosis

64
Q
  1. Which of the following diuretic’s major clinical application is treatment of edematous states (e.g. heart failure, acute pulmonary edema)?
    A.Acetazolamide
    B. Furosemide
    C. Spironolactone
    D. Mannitol
    E. Hydrochlorothiazide
A

B. Furosemide

65
Q
  1. Which of the followings is not an expected toxicity of estrogen containing oral contraceptives?

A. Thromboembolism
B. Gallbladder disease
C. Migraine headache
D. Hypertension
F. Hirsutism

A

F. Hirsutism

66
Q

67.Which of the folowing acid-base disturbance occurs due to drug-induced respiratory depresion

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Merabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Mixed type acid-base disturbances

A

C. Respiratory acidosis

67
Q
  1. What is the article in which sexual dysfunctions are claimed as grounds for divorce according to the Civil Code?
    A. Adultery
    B. Intruding on life, very bad or dishonorable life
    C. Committing a crime and leading a dishonorable life
    D. Abondonment
    E. Disruption of the marriage union
A

E. Disruption of the marriage union

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a guiding information in collecting biological evidence from the victim’s body in sexual crimes?
    A. Whether he knew the suspect beforehand
    C. Whether he went to toilet after the incident
    B. Whether he changed the inner and outer clothes he was wearing at the time of the incident
    D. Whether he was washed after the event
A

A. Whether he knew the suspect beforehand

69
Q
  1. Which of the following finding is not expected during acute cystitis?
    A. Dysuria
    B. Urgency
    C. Frequency
    D. Flank pain
    E. Suprapubic pain
A

D. Flank pain

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is not included in causes of prerenal acute kidney injury?
    A. Acute gastroenteritis
    B. Hemorhage
    C. Shock
    D. Congestive cardiac failure
    E. Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis
A

E. Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis

71
Q
  1. The presence of chronic kidney disease cannot be defined in:

A. Presence of microalbuminuria more than 3 months
B. Glomerular filtration rate 50 ml/minute more than 3 months
C. Presence of single renal cyst
D. Presence of polycystic kidney disease
E. Persistent renal rubular acidosis

A

D. Presence of polycystic kidney disease

72
Q
  1. Which one below is not related to prerenal kidney insufficiency?
    A. Cyclosporine use
    B. Rhabdomyolysis
    C. Severe burn
    D. Hepatorenal syndrome
    E. Congestive heart failure
A

B. Rhabdomyolysis

73
Q
  1. In urine test, which one is diagnostic for glomerular disease?
    A. Isomorphic erythrocytes
    B. Hyalene casts
    C. Calcium carbonate crystals
    D. Red blood cell cast
    E. Granular casts
A

D. Red blood cell cast

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true for MEOT (Malign epithelial ovarian tumors)?
  2. The most second common malignant tumor of the female genital system
    B. When the patients had the diagnosis of cancer, 70% of the cases are in early stage
    C. The most common age period for these tumors is postmenopausal
    D. The lifetime risk is 1.4%
    E. They have the worst prognosis in female genital tumors
A

B. When the patients had the diagnosis of cancer, 70% of the cases are in early stage

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true for CA-125 tumor marker?
    A. Ir is common in serious epithelial, endometrioid and, clear cell patients, less expressed in mucinous tumors
    B. It is used as a standard marker
    C. It is more useful in follow-up and recurrent cases
    D. Highly sensitive
    E. It can increase in different types cancers and benign conditions
A

D. Highly sensitive

76
Q
  1. What is Naegele rule in obstetrics?
    A. Last menstrual date
    B. Birth date estimation
    C. Baby’s weight calculation
    D. Maternal age calculation
    D. Vaginal test type
A

B. Birth date estimation

77
Q
  1. What is nulligravity?
    A. Women never have been pregnant
    B. Women never have been extrauterine pregnant
    C. Women never had abortion
    D. Women never have given birth
    E. Women never had cesarean section
A

A. Women never have been pregnant

78
Q

79 Patient with abdominal pain and vomiting. Which answer best describes the X-ray appearances and what does the anatomical landmark marked on image represent?
À. Normal, psoas edges
B. Normal, normal bowel gas
C. Pneumoperitoneum, Rigler’s double wall sign
D. Kidneys, staghorn renal calculus

A

À. Normal, psoas edges

79
Q
  1. What is the artifact shown in this image?
    A. Biliary stent radiology
    B. Colonic stent
    C. External tubing
    D. Percutaneous nephrostomy tube
    E. Ureteric stent
A

E. Ureteric stent

Finak Year 3 (11 decks)

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