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Finak Year 3 > 304 > Flashcards

304 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Indicate the mistake in the forensic report about the life-threatening situation.
    A. In order to determine whether there is a life-threatening situation, clinical examination and all laboratory examinations are performed, and if necessary, the patient is observed.
    B. A life-threatening situation does not necessarily result in death.
    C. In an emergency, it can also be stated as a possibility to delay justice.
    D. Life-threatening situation is a very serious one that can cause death.
    E. Penetrating wounds to the thoracie and abdominal cavities can cause a life-threatening
    situation.
A

C. In an emergency, it can also be stated as a possibility to delay justice.

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2
Q
  1. “The scar left after healing of the wound formed within the borders of the face during the injury, is the state of being clearly noticeable at first glance from a distance of verbal dialogue (1-2 meters) between people in daylight or in a well-lit environment.” Which option fits the description above?
    A. Life-threatening
    B. Bone fracture
    C. Persistent weakening of the function of one of his senses or organs
    D. Fixed scar on face
    E. Constant change of face
A

D. Fixed scar on face

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is not required to be included in a forensic report?
    A. Localization of the wound
    B. Preparing a report based on the person’s statement, not the findings
    C. Type of wound (such as abrasion, ecchymosis)
    D. The type of instrument that may cause the wound
    E. Whether the wound is fresh
A

B. Preparing a report based on the person’s statement, not the findings

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4
Q
  1. Which option is not considered within the scope of the physician’s legal responsibilities?
    A. Confidential responsibility
    B. Notification obligation
    C. Physician responsibility and acceptance of the patient in emergency patients
    D. Obligation to inform the patient
    E. Giving a rest report for a special purpose or memory
A

E. Giving a rest report for a special purpose or memory

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5
Q
  1. ….. is to explain the patient or legal representative of the physician in a way that he/she can freely decide about the intervention by explaining the type, form, urgency, side effects and risks of the medical intervention he/she plans to do, and the possible consequences if no intervention is made.”
    Which of the following options would best fit in the blank above?
    A. Consent
    B. Forensic examination
    C. To inform
    D. Medical intervention
    E. Complication
A

C. To inform

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about medical interventions is false?
    A. It is forbidden to take organs and tissues from persons who have not completed the age of eighteen.
    B. Patient consent is required for medical interventions.
    C. Since the diseases whose treatment is mandated by law threaten the public health, the necessary treatment is given even if the informed consent of the patient or his legal representative is not obtained.
    D. The patient has the right to refuse the treatment and to ask for it to be stopped, except for legally obligatory cases and on the patient’s responsibility.
    E. A woman of full age can have uterine evacuation, with the consent of her husband, regardless of the gestational week.
A

E. A woman of full age can have uterine evacuation, with the consent of her husband, regardless of the gestational week.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements explains the etiopathogenesis of Marfan syndrome?
    A. As a result of mutation in the gene encoding LDL receptor protein, intracellular transport of LDL is impaired.
    B. There is a cardiovascular developmental anomaly due to trisomy 21.
    C. Microfibril loss occurs as a result of mutation in the gene encoding the Fibrillin-1 protein.
    D. There are deficiencies in collagen synthesis due to mutations in the genes encoding collagen fibrils.
    E. There is abnormal erythropoiesis as a result of mutation in the gene encoding the beta chain of hemoglobin.
A

C. Microfibril loss occurs as a result of mutation in the gene encoding the Fibrillin-1 protein.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following abnormality is seen in Class II type familial hypercholesterolemia?
    A. Lipid molecules cannot be internalized within clathrin pits.
    B. Transport of the synthesized receptor protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus is impaired.
    C. Dissociation of the receptor and bound LDL does not occur.
    D. There is a complete loss of receptor synthesis.
    E. The recentor is transported to the cell surface but cannot bind LDL
A

B. Transport of the synthesized receptor protein from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus is impaired.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is the reason of difficulties in surgical repair or interventions in patients with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
    A. The development of an extreme allergic reaction on the skin to the surgical material
    B. Easy infectivity of the skin due to the absence of immune system elements in the skin
    C. Irregular structure of elastic fibers due to genetic mutations and difficulty in wound healing
    D. Impairment of smooth muscle development due to TGF-beta II receptor mutation
    E. Lack of tensile strength of the skin due to abnormal collagen structure
A

E. Lack of tensile strength of the skin due to abnormal collagen structure

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10
Q
  1. Which of the followings is the final common pathway for most diseases and organ failures that result in death?
    A. O2 deprivation
    B. Ca?*-induced toxicity
    C. Mitochondrial breakdown
    D. Apoptosis
    *
    E. Necrosis
A

A. O2 deprivation

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following does not occur with aging?
    A. A reduction in lean body mass
    B. A reduction in bone density
    C. A reduction in incidence of falls
    D. A reduction in dermis thickness
    E. A reduction in muscle strength and power
A

C. A reduction in incidence of falls

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a physiological factor that contribute to reduced energy expenditure in older adults?
    A. A reduction in lean body mass
    B. A reduction in physical activity
    C. A reduction in basal metabolic rate
    D. A steady loss in skeletal muscle mass
    E. A marked deterioration in the nervous system
A

E. A marked deterioration in the nervous system

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following does not show a difference in nervous system functions between a healthy 18-year-old male and an 83-year-old healthy male?
    A. The ability to detect and discriminate taste qualities
    B. Vision
    C. The reaction time
    D. Intelligence
    E. To maintain posture and balance
A

D. Intelligence

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a criterion of metabolic syndrome?
    A. Triglyceride level over 150 mg/dL
    B. HDL cholesterol less than 40 mg/dL in men or less than 50 mg/dL in women
    C. Blood pressure over 130/85 mm Hg
    D. Fasting blood sugar over 100 mg/dL.
    E. Waist circumference under 102 &m for men
A

E. Waist circumference under 102 &m for men

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is false for obesity?
    A. A body mass index (BMI) ≥ 30 kg/m? is considered obesity.
    B. Increased levels of circulating free-fatty acids and interleukins cause chronic low-grade inflammation in obesitv.
    C. At least 20% weight reduction is required to reduce risk for CVD, diabetes, obstructive sleep apnea, hypertension and many other comorbidities for obese patients.
    D. Certain cancers such as colon, pancreas, postmenopausal breast and endometrium are related to obesity.
    E. Rapid weight loss can cause formation of gallbladder stones.
A

C. At least 20% weight reduction is required to reduce risk for CVD, diabetes, obstructive sleep apnea, hypertension and many other comorbidities for obese patients.

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16
Q
  1. Which cancer type below can have an early diagnosis by screening the population?
    A. Gastric cancer
    B. Ovarian cancer
    C. Colorectal cancer
    D. Pancreas cancer
    E. Esophageal cancer
A

C. Colorectal cancer

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17
Q
  1. Which test bellow is not required for breast cancer screening?
    A. Mammography
    B. Breast self-examination
    C. Regular physical examination
    D. Breast USG
    E. PET scan
A

E. PET scan

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18
Q
  1. Which of the followings may not cause cancer?
    A. Cigarette smoking
    B. Alcohol
    C. Vegetables
    D. Red meat
    E. Obesity
A

C. Vegetables

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19
Q
  1. Which of the followings is the most common cancer type of males in Turkey?
    A. Colon cancer
    B. Larynx cancer
    C. Lung cancer
    D. Prostate cancer
    E. Bladder cancer
A

C. Lung cancer

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases is likely to be transmitted through rodent urine?
    A. Leptospirosis
    B. Plague
    C. Lyme disease
    D. Cat scratch disease
    E. Salmonellosis
A

A. Leptospirosis

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21
Q
  1. Which one of the following is an important virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis?
    A. Protective antigen
    B. Lipopolysaccharide
    C. Pili
    D. A toxin that inhibits peptide chain elongation factor EF-2
    E. Lecithinase
A

A. Protective antigen

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22
Q
  1. A few postal workers come down with symptoms of shortness of breath, cyanosis, hemoptysis, and chest pain, after being exposed to biological attack. Chest x-ray reveals mediastinal widening. Sputum cultures are negative for all routine respiratory pathogens.
    Serology correctly identifies the causal agent. Which of the following structures is possessed by the causal agent?
    A. Elementary body
    B. Endotoxin
    C. Periplasmic space
    *
    D. Reticulate body
    E. Spore
A

. Spore

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23
Q
  1. All of the following microorganisms cause zoonotic infections except:
    A. Coxiella burnetii
    B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
    C. Bordetella pertussis
    D. Bacillus anthracis
    E. Leptospira interrogans
A

C. Bordetella pertussis

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24
Q
  1. A 13-year-old boy receives multiple bite wounds to his left hand and forearm by a dog.
    Two days following the attack, the boy developed a low-grade fever 38 °C (100.4 °F), redness, pain, and a purulent exudate at the several of the bite wounds. Gram negative coccobacilli were detected in the Gram staining of the pus sample taken from the patient.
    Which of the following bacteria is the most likely causative agent of this bite wound infection?
    A. Acinetobacter baumannii
    B. Corvnebacterium pseudotuberculosis
    *
    C. Pasteurella multocida
    D. Staphylococcus aureus
    E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A

C. Pasteurella multocida

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25
Q
  1. A 27-year-old woman presents to her physician with a papular lesions on her right thumb.
    She states she recently were scratched by stray cat. Physical examination is notable for several scratches on her right hand and enlarged axillary lymph nodes.
    Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection?
    A. Bartonella henselae
    B. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
    C. Pasteurella multocida
    D. Staphylococcus aureus
    E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A

A. Bartonella henselae

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia or ehrlichiosis is the most correct?
    A. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.
    B. Mosquitoes are the vectors.
    C. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice.
    D. Culture is a good method to confirm the
A

A. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnant women?
    A. Influenza vaccine
    B. Pneumococcal vaccine
    C. Varicella zoster vaccine
    D. Bordetella pertussis vaccine
    E. Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine
A

C. Varicella zoster vaccine

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to adults aged 19-64 with chronic medical conditions (chronic heart, lung, or liver disease, diabetes) to protect them from invasive pneumococcal diseases?
    A. A 23-valent capsular polysaccharide vaccine
    B. A vaccine against serogroups A, C, Y, and W135 capsular polysaccharide
    C. A vaccine of polyribosylribitol capsular polysaccharide covalently linked to a protein
    D. A toxoid vaccine
    E. A recombinant viral protein vaccine
A

A. A 23-valent capsular polysaccharide vaccine

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a routine medical indication for meningococcal vaccine?
    A. Complement component deficiency
    B. Functional or anatomical asplenia
    C. Complement inhibitor medication
    D. HIV infection
    E. Pregnancy
A

E. Pregnancy

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30
Q
  1. One major advantage of the conjugate meningococcal vaccines compared with the polysaccharide vaccine is ..
    A. Stimulation of mucosal secretory IgA
    B. Fewer side effects
    C. AT cell-dependent response to vaccine is induced
    D. Inclusion of serogroup B
    E. Induce effective immune response dnly in infants
A

C. AT cell-dependent response to vaccine is induced

31
Q
  1. A 50-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of fever, headache, and malaise. He is a farmer and has daily exposure to many farm animals, especially cattle. He mentions that one of his female cows recently birthed a calf. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.2°F). his pulse is 93 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 118/80 mm Hg. His physical examination is unremarkable. Coxiella burnet IgG antibody was detected 1:64 at hospital admission and 1:256 at follow-up 3 weeks later. Which of the following is the best treatment for this infection?
    A. Ceftriaxone
    B. Doxycycline
    C. Nafcillin
    D. Nitrofurantoin
    E. Penicillin
A

B. Doxycycline

32
Q
  1. What is the correct color coding for infectious medical waste?
    A. Black
    B. Yellow
    C. White
    D. Brown
    E. Green
A

B. Yellow

33
Q
  1. Which one of the following zoonotic illnesses has no arthropod vector?
    A. Plague
    B. Lyme disease
    C. Yellow fever
    D. Chikungunya fever
    E. Rabies
A

E. Rabies

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is one of the main ways brucellosis is contracted?
    A. From bites of infected ticks
    B. From contact with an infected person
    C. From contact with infected farm animals
    D. From an insufficiently sterilized medical equipment
    E. From contact with lake water
A

C. From contact with infected farm animals

35
Q
  1. A previously healthy 51-year-old farmer woman complains of a I-month history of fatigue, myalgia, arthralgia, and intermittent fever. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F) and her physical examination is unremarkable. Blood cultures are obtained and after 6 days the Gram stain shows small gram-negative coccobacilli. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
    A. Bacillus anthracis
    B. Bartonella henselae
    C. Brucella abortus
    D. Pasturella multocida
    E. Klebsiella pneumonae
A

C. Brucella abortus

36
Q
  1. Which is the most common complication of brucellosis?
    A. Osteoarticular involvment
    B. Endocarditis
    C. Meningitis
    D. Uveitis
A

A. Osteoarticular involvment

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is the typical skin findings of Lyme disease?
    A. Ervthema infectiosum
    B. Erythema nodosum
    C. Erythema multiforme
    D. Ervthema migrans
    E. Erythema marginatum
A

D. Ervthema migrans

38
Q
  1. A 47-year-old man presents with slowly progressive arthritis in his knees. The patient is concerned about Lyme disease. The result of an EIA for Lyme borreliosis is positive.
    What should be done now?
    A. A biopsy specimen of the synovium of a knee joint should be examined for B. burgdorferi.
    I
    B. The patient should be given an antibiotic to treat Lyme disease.
    C. PCR on the patient’s plasma should be done to detect B. burgdorferi.
    D. A serum specimen should be submitted for immunoblot assay to detect antibodies reactive with B. burgdorferi antigens.
    E. Culture of synovial fluid on blood and chocolate agar.
A

D. A serum specimen should be submitted for immunoblot assay to detect antibodies reactive with B. burgdorferi antigens.

39
Q
  1. Which of the following may cause the waterborne outbreaks?
    A. West Nile virus
    B. Bartonella henselae
    C. Francisella tularensis
    D. Pasturella multocida
    E. Borrelia burgdorferi
A

C. Francisella tularensis

40
Q
  1. A 34-year-old man presents with faver, chills, and headache of 3-day duration. He is an rabbit hunter and in the past several months he has skinned rabbits. On examination, his temperature is 38.8°C (101.9°F) and a small ulcer with a raised border and black base is seen on his right index finger. The epitrochlear lymph nodes on his right arm are swollen.
    Scrapings from the ulcer show rare gram-negative coccobacilli. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this infection?
    A. Bacillus anthracis
    B. Borrelia burgdorferi
    C. Coxiella burneti
    D. Francisella tularensis
    E. Staphylococcus aureus
A

D. Francisella tularensis

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is not always internationally notifiable diseases?
    A. Smallpox
    B. Poliomyelitis due to wild-type poliovirus
    C. Human influenza caused by a new subtype
    D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
    E. Outbreaks due to varicella zoster
A

E. Outbreaks due to varicella zoster

42
Q
  1. Which of the followings is among the most heat sensitive vaccines?
    A. Hepatitis B vaccine
    B. Hepatitis A vaccine
    C. MMR vaccine
    D. Rabies vaccine
    E. Pneumococcal conjugated vaccine
A

C. MMR vaccine

43
Q
  1. For which of the following is not given post-exposure prophylaxis in health care workers?
    A. Hepatitis B
    B. Hepatitis C
    C. HIV infection
A

B

44
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccine is recommended only in specified settings for health care workers?
    A. TdaP
    B. Hepatitis A
    C. MMR
    D. Annual influenza
    E. Varicella
A

B. Hepatitis A

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of re-emerging disease?
    A. COVID-19
    B. MERS
    C. SARS-1
    D. Measles
    E. Zika
A

D. Measles

46
Q
  1. How many cells exposed to an LDs dose are most likely to be killed (%)?
    A. 5
    B. 25
    C. 50
    D. 75
    E. 95
A

C. 50

47
Q
  1. Which cells are likely to be the most resistant to ionizing radiation?
    A. Bone marrow cells
    B. Neuronal cells
    C. Lymphoid tissue cells
    D. Spermatids
A

B. Neuronal cells

48
Q
  1. Choose the false statement about “principles of screening”.
    A. There should be an accepted treatment for patients with recognized disease.
    B. There should be a recognizable latent or early symptomatic phase.
    C. The screened condition may not be an important health problem.
    D. The test should be acceptable to the population.
    E. There should be an agreed policy on whom to treat as patients.
A

C. The screened condition may not be an important health problem.

49
Q
  1. Which of the followings is false bout newborn tests?
    A. Heel test scans allow early diagnosis and treatment of endocrine, metabolic or genetic disorders in the newborn.
    B. Phenylketonuria may cause irreversible brain damage if not treated early.
    C. Profound biotinidase deficiency can cause seizures, weak muscle tone (hypotonia), breathing
    D. The heel test is performed on an empty stomach immediately after birth.
    E. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs.
A

D. The heel test is performed on an empty stomach immediately after birth.

50
Q
  1. Choose the false statement about newbor hearing test.
    A. Hearing screening test must be performed in hospital within the first 72 hours after the baby is born.
    B.
    “Automated Auditory Brainstem Response test measures sound waves produced in the inner ear.
    C. Cases found to be suspicious during screening should be referred to secondary or tertiary healthcare institutions without delay.
    D. Hearing problems if not detected and treated early, cause speech and comprehension problems.
    E. A tiny probe is placed just inside the baby’s ear canal while performing “Otoacoustic
    Emissions” test.
A

Automated Auditory Brainstem Response test measures sound waves produced in the inner ear.

51
Q
  1. Which of the followings is false bout children’s periodic examinations?
    A. All babies born before the 32nd week and/or weighing less than 1500 grams should be routinely referred to the ophthalmology physician.
    B. The baby should have an ultrasound scan of the hip between 4 and 6 weeks old if a doctor, midwife or nurse thinks their hip feels unstable.
    C. Iron prophylaxis should be performed in infants between 4-12 months.
    D. Hemoglobin should be evaluated once in the 5-year-old and early, middle and late adolescent periods.
    E. All babies beginning from 6 months, until the age of 1-2 year should be given 400 IU vitamin D per day.
A

E. All babies beginning from 6 months, until the age of 1-2 year should be given 400 IU vitamin D per day.

52
Q
  1. Which of the followings is false about children’s periodic examinations?
    A. Undescended testis can only be detected on ultrasound examination.
    B. Dental visits should begin from the first tooth come in and repeat every six months.
    C. Arterial blood pressure should be measured annually in children ≥3 y of age and adolescents.
    D. The acceptable total cholesterol value in children and adolescents is <130 mg/dl.
    E. A family physician should counsel about breastfeeding at every visit.
A

A. Undescended testis can only be detected on ultrasound examination.

53
Q
  1. Which of the followings is false about adult periodic examinations?
    A. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus is a valid reason to screen for diabetes at any age.
    B. It is recommended to carry out Thyroid Function Tests every five years for all adults over the age of 35.
    C. Cardiovascular risk assessment should be performed for individuals over 40 years, regardless of the application reason.
    D. Waist circumference values are recommended to be <80 cm in women and <94 cm in men to minimize the risk of cardiovascular disease.
    E. For those whose first-degree relatives had colorectal cancer, colon screenings should begin two years before the age of patient.
A

E. For those whose first-degree relatives had colorectal cancer, colon screenings should begin two years before the age of patient.

54
Q
  1. Which of the following disease incidence is not increased in the elderlv?
    A. Alzheimer disease
    B. Parkinson disease
    C. Stroke
    D. Heart failure
    E. Type I diabetes mellitus
A

E. Type I diabetes mellitus

55
Q
  1. Which of the following changes associated with aging is the most important for the changes in pharmacokinetics of drugs?
    A. Concurrent disease
    B. Decline in cardiac index
    C. Decline in renal functions
    D. Decline in maximal breathing capacity
    E. Changes in gastric emptying
A

C. Decline in renal functions

56
Q
  1. Which of the following side effect - drug or drug class match is wrong?
    A. Aspirin- gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding
    B. NSAIDs- renal damage
    C. Corticosteroids- osteoporosis
    D. Haloperidol- delirium
    E. Aminoglycosides- renal toxicity
A

D. Haloperidol- delirium

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements related to heart failure and digoxin use is wrong?
    A. In geriatric patients, incidence of digitalis-induced arrhytmias is high.
    B. Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypoxemia contribute to digitalis-induced arrhytmias.
    C. In geriatric population, clearance of digoxin is usually reduced.
    D. Less common toxicities of digitalis such as delirium, visual changes occur less in older than in younger patients.
    E. Heart failure is common and particularly lethal disease in the elderly.
A

D. Less common toxicities of digitalis such as delirium, visual changes occur less in older than in younger patients.

58
Q
  1. Which of the following principles for drug therapy in the geriatric patient is not suitable?
    A. Taking a careful drug history
    B. Starting with usual doses is acceptable, titration of dose to the desired response is not needed
    C. Prescribing only for a specific and rational indication
    D. Maintaining high index of suspicion regarding drug reactions and interactions including the other drugs and herbals patient is taking
    E. Defining the goal of a drug therapy
A

B. Starting with usual doses is acceptable, titration of dose to the desired response is not needed

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong about “summary of product characteristics (SmPC)*?
    A. Trade or generic name of a drug can be used when searching for a drug’s SmPC.
    B. In Türkiye, the equivalent of SmPC is “ Kisa Ürtin Bilgisi-KÜB”, in the United States the equivalent of SmPC is the United States Prescribing Information (USPI).
    C. In Türkiye SmPC of drugs can be searched from the website of Turkish Medicines and Medical Devices Agency (Türkiye Ilaç ve Tibbi Cihaz Kurumu-TITCK).
    D. SmPC is a document describing the properties and the officially approved conditions of use of a medicine.
    E. Information about the pharmaceutical form of the medicine is not included in SmPC.
A

E. Information about the pharmaceutical form of the medicine is not included in SmPC.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of noncompliance to drugs?
    A. Developing a routine for taking medications
    B. Fail to obtain medication
    C. Fail to take the medication as prescribed
    D. Discontinue the medication prematurely
    E. Take medication inappropriately (e.g., sharing a medication with others)
A

A. Developing a routine for taking medications

61
Q
  1. Which of the following poor prescription writing example and leading situation is not suitable?
    A. Misplaced and ambigous degimal point (e.g. ,1 or 1,0) - Misread, tenfold overdose
    B. Using the abbreviation “U” for units- “U* - Misread as “O” (e.g.,10 U= 100)
    C. Using the abbreviated form of microgram (“ug”) - Misread as “mg,” a 1000-fold
    overdose
    D. Ordering “one ampule of furosemide*- Acceptable, ampules contain 20, 40, or 100 mg of the drug
    E. Unclear handwriting- can be lethal when drugs with similar names but very different effects
A

D. Ordering “one ampule of furosemide*- Acceptable, ampules contain 20, 40, or 100 mg of the drug

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a contraindication of intramuscular injection?
    A. Active infection, cellulitis, or dermatitis at the site of administration
    B. Thrombocytopenia
    C. Coagulation defects
    D. Uncooperative patient
    E. Known allergy or hypersensitivity to the drug
A

D. Uncooperative patient

63
Q
  1. Which of the following organizational website does not provide a free drug/herbal-drug/herbal interaction- checker”?
    A. UpToDate.com (https://www.uptodate.com/druginteractions/)
    B. Medscape (https://reference.medscape.com/drug-interactionchecker ),
    C. RxList (https://www.rxlist.com/drug-interaction-checker.htm
    D. Drugs.com https://www.drugs.com/drug_ interactions.html)
    E. Drugbank (https://go.drugbank.com/drug-interaction-checker
A

A. UpToDate.com (https://www.uptodate.com/druginteractions/)

64
Q
  1. Considering World Mental Health issues, which item is wrong?
    A. Mental health-neglected for far too long- is crucial to the overall well-being.
    B. Policies that are urgently needed to ensure that stigma and discrimination are broken down.
    C. Identifying poverty as the greatest continuing threat to health worldwide.
    D. Turkish version of DSM-V is still not available.
    E. Turkish Constitution have provisions on mental health problems.
A

D. Turkish version of DSM-V is still not available.

65
Q
  1. Examine the definitions of technical term below and choose the wrong one.
    A. Impairment is the act of impairing something or the state or condition of being impaired.
    B. Disability is a physical or mental condition that limits a person’s movements, senses, or activities.
    C. A disadvantage or handicap, especially one imposed or recognized by medical disciplines.
    D. Diminishment or loss of function or ability is described as impairment.
    E. Deterioration in the functioning of a body part, organ, or system can be defined as impairment.
A

C. A disadvantage or handicap, especially one imposed or recognized by medical disciplines.

66
Q
  1. The 4 basic universal principles of Ethics are;
    A. Non maleficiance / Beneficence / autonomy / sanction
    B. Don’t be harmful / serve beneficence / act autonomous / award
    C. Primum non nocere / be beneficial / pay respect patients decision / treat fairly
    D. Primum non nocere / be beneficial / pay respect patients decision / treat orderly
    E. Primum non nocere / be faithful / pay respect autonomy / treat justified
A

C

67
Q
  1. Taking into account The Helsinki and WMA Declarations, choose the correct statement.
    A. Interventions may be evaluated for safety, effectiveness, efficiency, accessibility.
    B. The Declaration of Geneva of the WMA does not bind the physician.
    C. Medical Ethics declares, “A physician shall act in the patient’s best interest.”
    D. Medical progress is based on research that ultimately include studies involving humans.
    E. Physicians’ duty is to promote and safeguard the health by treatment services.
A

C. Medical Ethics declares, “A physician shall act in the patient’s best interest.”

68
Q
  1. Within the framework of health & rights of health care workers, choose the wrong statement.
    A. Physicians may be asked to testify before the court about the events they witnessed.
    B. Turkish laws don’t authorise physicians right to refrain from testifying under certain conditions.
    C. Under emergency conditions, physicians have a right to apply medical intervention on the patients.
    D. Physicians diagnose and apply the necessary treatment in accordance with scientific requirements.
    E. Doctor may leave the patient without completing the treatment for Professional/personal
    reasons.
A

B. Turkish laws don’t authorise physicians right to refrain from testifying under certain conditions.

69
Q
  1. Which expression is wrong about noise and health relationship?
    A. In general, the aim is to reduce the poise hazard to levels of 85 or 80 BA.
    B. Noise-induced hearing impairment is not so common.
    C. Noise-induced hearing impairment is only a gradual, progressive loss of communication.
    D. Putting a silencer on the machine instead of ear protectors on the workers is more effective.
    E. Periodic odiometry is a secondary prevention tool for early diagnosis.
A

B. Noise-induced hearing impairment is not so common.

70
Q
  1. Environmental factors can mainly be classified as:
    A. Atmospheric, biological, social, and economical factors
    B. Air, water, land, and human factors
    C. Climatic, disasters, nature, and manufactured factors
    [D. Physical, biological, social, and psychosocial factors
    E. Humanistic, animal, plantal and spacial factors.
A

D. Physical, biological, social, and psychosocial factors

71
Q
  1. Within the content of environmental pollution and health, which statement is wrong?
    A. Environmental toxic, carcinogen, nlutagenic, genotoxic … chemicals accumulate in the human body.
    B. Threshold limits were exceeded for accumulation of environmental hazardous factors in humans.
    C. Environmental chemicals cause over-threshold (stochastic) negative effects.
    D. We, as humanity, don’t face with an increasing environmental disease epidemic.
    E. Due to environmental degradation, people recognize that humankind is on an unsustainable path.
A

D. We, as humanity, don’t face with an increasing environmental disease epidemic.

72
Q
  1. For vulnerable groups and health, which statement is wrong?
    A. Vulnerability must examine the balance between determinants of health and immediate needs.
    B. The single most established finding in health is the importance of SES (socio-economic
    status).
    C. SES indicators are associated with almost every measure of health and health care.
    D. SES resources as a major cause of health disparities.
    E. Social class is not the fundamental determinant of health.
A

E. Social class is not the fundamental determinant of health

73
Q
  1. Evaluating the Impacts of War on Global Health, find the wrong statement.
    A. War and armed conflict causes a significant loss to human life.
    B. War and armed conflicts are major cause of disability worldwide.
    C. This displacement can be incredibly detrimental to health.
    D. War inevitably reduces access to clean water, food, and sanitation.
    E. The impacts of war on health are not strongly gendered.
A

E. The impacts of war on health are not strongly gendered.

Finak Year 3 (11 decks)

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