Lab Quiz 2 Flashcards
1
Q
refers to the information about the metabolism of bacteria
A
Biologic Characters
2
Q
the chemical reactions that occur within all living organisms
A
metabolism
3
Q
proteins that catalyze biological reactions
A
enzymes
4
Q
the majority of enzyme which function inside a cell
A
endoenzymes
5
Q
many bacteria make these enzymes, which are released from the cell to catalyze reactions outside the cell
A
exoenzymes
6
Q
chemical reactions that release energy from the decomposition of complex organic molecules
A
catabolism
7
Q
organic molecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the ration (CH2O)n
A
carbohydrates
8
Q
simple sugars containing 3-7 carbons
A
monosaccharides
9
Q
composed of 2-20 monosaccharide molecules
A
oligosaccharides
10
Q
the most common oligosaccharide
A
disaccharides
11
Q
consist of 20 or more monosaccharide molecules
A
polysaccharides
12
Q
Exoenzymes are mainly _________ that leave the cell and break down, by the addition of water, large substrates into smaller components, which can then be transported into the cell.
A
hydrolytic enzymes
13
Q
hydrolyzes the polysaccharide starch into smaller carbohydrates
A
amylase
14
Q
a monosaccharide that can be released by hydrolysis
A
glucose
15
Q
chemical reaction that requires the presence of molecular oxygen
A
oxidative catabolism
16
Q
The presence of an _____ is determined by looking for a change in the substrate outside a bacterial colony.
A
exoenzyme
17
Q
chemical reaction that does not require oxygen but may occur in its presence
A
fermentative catabolism
18
Q
nutrient semisolid agar deep containing a high concentration of carbohydrate and a low concentration of peptone
A
OF medium
19
Q
In OF medium, the ____ will support the growth of bacteria that don’t use the carbohydrate.
A
peptone
20
Q
OF medium contains the indicator ______, which turns _____ in the presence of acids, indicating _____ of the carbohydrate.
A
OF medium contains the indicator bromthymol blue, which turns yellow in the presence of acids, indicating catabolism of the carbohydrate.
21
Q
________, caused by he use of the peptone and not of carbohydrate, are indicated by a dark blue color due to ________ production.
A
Alkaline conditions, caused by the used of peptone and not of carbohydrate, are indicated by a dark blue color due to ammonia production.
22
Q
If the carbohydrate is metabolized in both tubes, _____ has occurred.
A
If the carbohydrate is metabolized in both tubes, fermentation has occurred.
23
Q
Many carbohydrates– including monosaccharides such as _____, disaccharides such as _____, and polysaccharides such as _____ – can be fermented.
A
glucose, sucrose, startch
24
Q
used to detect acid and gas production from carbohydrates
A
fermentation tube
25
fermentation that results in acid production will turn the indicator ____ (pH of ___ or below)
yellow, 6.8
26
during prolonged incubation periods (>24 hrs) many bacteria will begin growing _____ on the peptone after exhausting the carbohydrate supplied, causing ____ of the indicator and turning it red because of _____ production.
oxidatively, neutralization, ammonia
27
used to distinguish organisms that produce large amounts of acid from glucose and organisms that produce the neutral product acetoin
MRVP broth
28
MRVP medium in a glucose-supplemented nutrient broth used for what two test?
methyl red (MR) test and Voges-Proskauer (V-P) test
29
If an organism produces a large amount of organic acid from glucose, the medium will remain ___ when methyl red is added in a _____ MR test, indicating that the pH is ______.
red, positive, below 4.4
30
Methyl red is ______ between pH 4.4 and 6.0
orange-red
31
If _____ products are produced, methyl red will turn yellow, indicating a pH _____.
neutral, above 6.0
32
The production of _____ is detected by the addition of potassium hydroxide and alpha-maphthol.
acetoin
33
If acetoin is present the upper part of the medium will turn ____; a negative V-P test will turn the medium _______.
red, light brown
34
Bacteria with the enzyme _____ can break down _____ to from pyruvate, which can be reduced in fermentation.
citratelyase, citrate
35
The indicator ______ changes to blue when the medium is alkalized, indicating a _____ citrate utilization test.
bromthymol blue, positive
36
large organic molecules
proteins
37
subunits that make up a protein
amino acids
38
Amino acids bond together by _____ forming a small chain (_____) or a larger molecule (______).
peptide bonds, peptide, polypeptide
39
Bacteria can hydrolyze the _____ or ______ to release amino acids
peptides, polypeptides
40
used primarily in anabolic reactions
amino acids
41
large protein molecules, such as _____, are hydrolyzed by _____, and the smaller products of hydrolysis are transported into the cell.
gelatin, exoenzymes
42
_______ dissolves in warm water (_____), solidifies (gels) when cooled below _____, and liquefies (sols) when heated to _____.
Nutrient gelatin, 50 C, 25 C, 25 C
43
exoenzyme that hydrolyzes gelatin
gelatinase
44
protein in milk
casein
45
consists of skim milk and the indicator litmus
litmus milk
46
Litmus milk medium is opaque due to ____ in colloidal suspension and the litmus is ____.
casein, blue
47
hydrolysis of the milk proteins
peptonization
48
Litmus milk is also used to detect _____, because litmus turns pink in the presence of acid.
lactose fermentation
49
Excessive amounts of acid will cause ______ of the milk
coagulation (curd formation)
50
_________ will result in an alkaline (purple) reaction of litmus milk.
catabolism of amino acids
51
Some bacteria can _____, causing the litmus indicator to turn white in the bottom of the tube.
reduce litmus
52
waste product of protein digestion and is excreted in the urine
urea
53
enzyme that liberates ammonia from urea
urease
54
contains peptone, glucose, urea, and phenol read. The pH of the prepared medium is 6.8 (phenol red turns yellow)
urea agar
55
During incubation in urea agar, bacteria possessing urease produce _____, which _____ the pH of the medium, turning the indicator _____ at pH ____
ammonia, raises, fuchsia, 8.4
56
After hydrolysis, the pH of urea agar is _____
high (basic)
57
After hydrolysis, gelatin will _____ at 22 C
liquefy
58
the removal of an amino group
deamination
59
removal of carbon dioxide from an amino acid
decarboxylation
60
enzymes that remove hydrogen sulfide H2S from the sulfur-containing amino acids: cysteine and methionine
desulfhydrases
61
performed by inoculating a bacterium into tryptone broth and detecting indole via the addition of dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (_____)
indole test, Kovacs reagent
62
a single culture medium in which motility, indole production, and ornithine decarboxylase activity can be determined
MIO
63
were developed as a means of separating members of the Enterobacteriaceae (enterics), particularly the coliforms, to determine whether water was contaminated with sewage
IMViC test
64
I in IMViC
indole production from tryptophan
65
M in IMViC
methyl red test for acid production from glucose
66
V in IMViC
Voges-Proskauer test for production of acetoin from glucose
67
C in IMViC
use of citrate as the sole carbon source
68
have been developed that provide a large number of results from one inoculation
rapid identification methods
69
generally, ___ kills microbes; ____ inhibits microbial growth
heat, cold
70
name the 5 optimal growth ranges
psychrophilic, psychrotrophic, mesophilic, thermophilic, and hyperthermophilic
71
0C-20C
psychrophilic
72
20C-30C
psychrotrophic
73
25C-40C
mesophilic
74
45C-65C
thermophilic
75
80C and higher
hyperthermophilic
76
denatures enzymes, dehydrates microbes, and kills by oxidation effects
dry heat
77
Standard application of dry heat in a hot-air oven is _____ for ___ hours.
170C, 2
78
microorganisms that are more or less permanent in the body
normal microbiota
79
microbes that are present in the body only for days or weeks
transient microbiota
80
discovered the importance of handwashing in preventing disease and the incidence of puerperal fever
Ignaz Semmelweis
81
Less _____ occurred in patients attended by midwives, who did not touch cadavers
puerperal sepsis
82
single most important procedure for preventing healthcare-associated infections
handwashing
83
3-5 minutes of scrubbing with an antimicrobial soap will remove _____
transient microbiota
84
disease-producing microorganism
pathogen
85
organism that harbors the pathogen
host
86
can be spread either directly or indirectly from one host to another
communicable diseases
87
cannot be transmitted from one host to another
noncommunicable diseases
88
the science that deals with when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in the human population
epidemiology
89
diseases that are constantly present in the population. give an example
endemic diseases; pneumonia
90
When many people in a given area acquire the disease in a relatively short period of time
epidemic disease
91
first reported patient in a disease outbreak
index case
92
should include the typical symptoms of patients identified as cases in an outbreak investigation
case definition
93
disease transmitted when microorganisms are carried on liquid drops from a cough or sneeze. example of direct contact.
droplet infection
94
transmitted by contact with contaminated inanimate objects
fomites
95
insects and other arthropods that carry pathogens
vectors
96
insects carry a pathogen on their feet and may transfer the pathogen to a person's food
mechanical transmission
97
continual source of an infection
reservoir
98
humans who harbor pathogens but who do not exhibit any signs of disease
carriers
99
compiles data on the incidence of a disease and its method of transmission and tries to locate the source of infection to decrease the incidence
epidemiologist
100
gives a visual display of the outbreak's magnitude and time trend
epidemic curve
101
infected persons who did not come in direct contact with the source, but was exposed by another host
secondary cases
102
transfers heat energy to the microbial cell more efficiently than dry air, resulting in the denaturation of enzymes
moisture
103
name the 3 moist heat methods
pasteurization, boiling, and autoclaving
104
In _____, the temperature is maintained at 63 C for 30 minutes, or 72 C for 15 minutes to kill designated organisms that are pathogenic or cause spoilage
pasteurization
105
______ (100 C) for 10 minutes will kill vegetative bacterial cells; however, it does not inactivate endospores
boiling
106
most effective method of moist heat sterilization
autoclaving
107
15 psi, at 121 C for 15 minutes. usually sufficient to kill endospores and render materials sterile
standard condition for autoclaving
108
length of time required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture at a given termperature
Thermal Death Time (TDT)
109
the temperature required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture in 10 inutes
Thermal Death Point (TDP)
110
the time, in minutes, in which 90% of a population of bacteria at a given temperature will be killed
Decimal Reduction Time (DRT, or D value)
111
in what ways does radiation differ?
in wavelength and energy
112
x rays and gamma rays are forms of:
ionizing radiation
113
principal effect is to ionize water into highly reactive free radicals that can break strands of DNA
ionizing radiation
114
Some ______ wavelengths are essential for biochemical processes.
nonionizing
115
nonionizing radiation between 15 and 400 nm
ultraviolet (UV)
116
most lethal wavelengths are sometimes called ____, and are in the _____ range
biocidal, UVC
117
range 200-290nm and wavelengths corresponding to the optimal absorption wavelengths of DNA
UVC
118
____ wavelengths 290-320 nm can also cause damage to DNA
UVB
119
____ wavelengths 320-400 nm are not as readily absorbed and are therefore less active on living organisms
UVA
120
UV light induces _____ in DNA which results in a mutation
thyamine dimers
121
repair mechanism where thyamine dimers are exposed to visible light, photolyases are activated; these enzymes split the dimers, restoring the DNA to its undamaged state
light repair, photoreactivation
122
Another repair mechanism, _______, is independent of light. Dimers are removed by endonuclease, DNA polymerase replaces the nucleotides, and DNA ligase seals the sugar-phosphate backbone
dark repair
123
types of light for highest energy to lowest
gamma rays, x rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, radiowaves
124
visible light color form highest energy to lowest
violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
125
wide variety of chemicals available for controlling the growth of microbes
antimicrobial agents
126
chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surfaces
disinfectants
127
chemicals used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes
antiseptics
128
result in bacterial death
bactericidal agents
129
cause temporary inhibition of growth
bacteriostatic agents
130
the standard method for measuring the effectiveness of a chemical agent
American Official Analytical Chemist's use-dilution test
131
which three strains of bacteria are typically used in the use-dilution test
salmonella enterica, staphylococcus aureus, and pseudomonas aeruginosa
132
what is the use-dilution test limited to?
bactericidal compounds, it cannot evaluate bacteriostatic compounds
133
metal rings are dipped into standardized cultures of test bacteria, removed, and dried. rings are next placed into solution of disinfectant, then transferred to a nutrient medium to permit growth of surviving bacteria
use-dilution test
134
infecting an animal with pseudomonas aeruginosa protects them against what?
bacillus anthracis
135
(against life), inhibition of a microbes
antibiosis
136
a substance produced by a microorganism that inhibits other microorganisms
antibiotic
137
produce nearly 70% of all antibiotis
streptomyces
138
antimicrobial chemicals used internally, whether natural or synthetic
antimicrobial drugs
139
disease-causing organism
pathogen
140
petri plate with agar growth medium is inoculated uniformly. paper disks with various antimicrobial agents are placed on the surface of the agar. the agent diffuses from the paper disk, from an area of high concentration to lower. measured by zones of inhibition
disk-diffusion method
141
standardized method for agar diffusion methods
Kirby-Bauer test
142
agar used in Kirby-Bauer test that allows the antimicrobial agent to diffuse freely
Mueller-Hinton agar
143
The ______ of an antibiotic is determined by testing for bacterial growth in dilutions of the antibiotic in nutrient broth.
minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
144
eukaryotic cells that can be unicellular or multicellular, and obtain nutrients by absorbing dissolved organic material through their cell walls and plasma membranes.
fungi
145
Fungi, with the exception of ____, are aerobic
yeasts
146
generally grow better in more acidic conditions and tolerate higher osmotic pressure and lower moisture. larger than bacteria
fungi
147
nonfilamentous, unicellular fungi that are typically spherical or oval in shape. frequently found on fruits and leaves as white powdery coating.
yeasts
148
when buds fail to detach themselves in yeast, a short chain of cells forms
pseudohypha
149
multicellular filamentous fungi
molds
150
macroscopic mold colongy
thallus
151
mass of strands that forms the thallus
mycelium
152
each strand of a mold
hypha
153
strands of mold that grow in or on the surface of the growth medium
vegetative hyphae
154
aerial hyphae that originate from the vegetative hyphae
reproductive hyphae
155
produced by reproductive hyphae
spores
156
cross wall that separates individual mold cells
septum
157
hyphae that contain a cross wall
septate hyphae
158
hyphae that lack septa and are continuous mass of cytoplasm with multiple nuclei
coenocytic hyphae
159
fungi are classified into phyla based on similarities in their ___
rRNA
160
fungus-like algae
oomycota
161
motile asexual spores formed by fungus-like algae
zoospores
162
members of phylum are saprophytic molds that have coenocytic hyphae
zygomycota
163
obtains its nutrients from dead organic matter, and usually do not cause disease
saprophyte
164
zygomycota spore sac
sporangium
165
zygomycota asexual spores formed inside the spore sac
sporangiospores
166
zygomycota sexual spores formed by the fusion of two cells
zygospores
167
include molds with septate hyphae and some yeasts. called sac fungi
ascomycota
168
ascomycota sexual spores
ascospores
169
ascomycota spore sac
ascus
170
saprophytic molds (penicillin, aspergillus) usually produce _____ asexually
conidiospores
171
include the fleshy fungi, or mushrooms
basidiomycota
172
basidiomycota sexual spores
basidiospores
173
club-shaped stalk that produces sexual spores in basidiomycota
basidium
174
majority of the fungi classified, few are pathogens
saprophytes
175
selective medium commonly used to culture fungi, has low pH that inhibits growth of other organisms, and simple nutrients
sabouraud agar
176
nutrients in sabouraud agar
glucose and peptone
177
secreted by oil glands and inhibits bacterial growth
sebum
178
most bacteria on the skin are _____ and _____
gram-positive, salt-tolerant
179
selective media for salt-tolerant organisms
mannitol salt agar
180
mannitol salt agar is differential in that mannitol-fermenting organisms will produce acid, turning the indicator in the medium _____
yellow
181
enzyme that clots the fibrin in blood
coagulase
182
which pathogen produces coagulase?
staphylococcus aureus
