L10 Flashcards

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1
Q

What did Alexander Flemming discover? From what?

A

penicillin from mold

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2
Q

What did Paul Erlich discover?

A

arsenic to kill syphilis

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3
Q

How does selective toxicity work in regards to chemotherapy?

A

use of chemical selective to kill pathogen with little to no effect on patient; selective toxicity is possible b/c of different structure or metabolism between pathogen and host

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4
Q

What are antibiotics? What is antibiotic resistance?

A

antimicrobial chemicals naturally produced by microorganisms; formerly effective medications have less and less impact on bacteria

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5
Q

What was the first practical antimicrobial used widespread?

A

sulfanilamide

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6
Q

define semisynthetics and synthetics

A

chemically modified antibiotic; entirely synthetic antimicrobial

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7
Q

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis disrupts protection from osmotic pressure, but it’s only effective on? Why?

A

on growing cells because it stops peptidoglycan production so dormant cells are unaffected

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8
Q

How do beta lactams inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?

A

by attaching to enzyme that cross-links NAM subunits

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9
Q

Penicillin G is administered through what route? Penicillin V?

A

injected; oral

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10
Q

Why are synthetic penicillins used?

A

designed to increase the range of bacteria targeted, increase stability, decrease toxicity or confer other beneficial properties

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11
Q

How are cephalosporins different from penicillins?

A

inhibit cell walls similar to penicillin but have a different beta lactam ring

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12
Q

What is augmentin a combination of?

A

broader spectrum antibiotic amoxacillin with potassium clavulanate

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13
Q

Carbapenems are a very broad:

A

spectrum of beta lactams

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14
Q

What is an example of something monobactams treat?

A

Pseudomonas and E. coli

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15
Q

Which cell wall synthesis inhibitor(s) interferes with ala-bridges linking NAM? Which type of cells is it effective on?

A

cycloserin; growing cells

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16
Q

Where is vancomycin obtained from? Is it broad or narrow spectrum?

A

from Streptomyces orientalis; narrow

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17
Q

How does bacitracin work?

A

blocks secretion of NAG and NAM from cytoplasm; is a polypeptide antibiotic

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18
Q

Which antibiotics require months-years of treatment, and why?

A

isoniazid and ethambutol; cells only reproduce every 12-24 hours

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19
Q

What are fungal cell walls composed of?

A

various polysaccharides containing sugar 1, 3-D-glucan

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20
Q

How do echinocandins work?

A

inhibit the enzyme that synthesizes glucan

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21
Q

Why are ribosomes often a target in treatment?

A

because they are different in eukaryotes vs. prokaryotes

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22
Q

What are proteins used for?

A

structure, regulation, metabolism, enzymes

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23
Q

What does aminioglycosides do o the 30s ribosomes?

A

target them, change their shape so it does not read codons correctly

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24
Q

Which docking site does tetracyclines block?

A

tRNA docking site

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25
Q

What do glycyclines inhibit?

A

rapid efflux

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26
Q

Which antibiotic prevents translation by blocking enzymatic site of 50s subunit?

A

chloramphenicol

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27
Q

How do macroslides work?

A

binds 50s subunit and prevents ribosome from moving 1 codon to the next

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28
Q

Streptogramins are a combination of what two drugs?

A

quinupristin and dalfospristin (macroslides)

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29
Q

What restrictions do ketolides have?

A

those related to toxicity

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30
Q

How does mupirocin affect polypeptide production?

A

cripples it

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31
Q

Which drug is used as a last resort for treating resistant gram positive infections?

A

oxazolindinones

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32
Q

This drug is used topically and only effective on gram positive infections:

A

pleuromutilins

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33
Q

What are antisense nucleic acids?

A

RNA or ssDNA molecules designed to be complementary to specific mRNAs of pathogens

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34
Q

Drugs that disrupt cytoplasmic membranes do so by damaging what?

A

integrity

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35
Q

What do polyenes attach to?

A

ergosterol in fungal membrane

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36
Q

Gramicidin forms what through the membrane?

A

a channel

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37
Q

What do azoles inhibit?

A

ergosterol synthesis

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38
Q

What are two examples of allylamine?

A

terbinafine and naftifine

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39
Q

What produces polymyxin? Why is it only used topically?

A

Bacillus polymyxa; b/c it is nephrotoxic

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40
Q

Pyrazinamide would be used to treat what bacterial infection?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

41
Q

Lipipeptides might be used for what type of infection?

A

skin infections

42
Q

How do antiparasitic drugs work?

A

change the permeability of cell membrane of many types of worms

43
Q

What do antimetabolic agents target that’s different from the host?

A

metabolic process

44
Q

What effect does heavy metals have on enzyme?

A

inactivate enzymes

45
Q

Atovaquone interferes with the electron transport chain in?

A

protozoa and fungi

46
Q

Sulfonamides block THF synthesis. Why does this affect the infectious organism and not the human?

A

humans get THF from food, not PABA

47
Q

What do amantadine and rimantadine neutralize and prevent? What are they no longer effective against?

A

neutralize acid of phagolysosome and prevent viral uncoating; type A influenza viruses

48
Q

What effect does protease inhibitors have on HIV?

A

interfere with action of protease that HIV needs near the end of replication cycle

49
Q

Why are reverse transcriptase inhibitors harmless to humans?

A

humans don’t have that enzyme

50
Q

Drugs that inhibit nucleic acids are usually used in?

A

cancer

51
Q

Nucleotide/nucleoside analogs prevent what? What infection/disease are they good for?

A

further replication; HIV

52
Q

Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to prevent what?

A

uncoiling/coiling bacterial DNA

53
Q

Rifampin is used on slowly __ pathogens. It binds to prokaryotic __.

A

metabolizing; RNA polymerase

54
Q

How does clofazimine work?

A

binds DNA of Mycobacterium leprae and prevents normal replication and transcription

55
Q

How do pentamide and propamine isethionate prevent reproduction/metabolism?

A

binds protozoan DNA

56
Q

Actinomycin binds DNA and blocks DNA synthesis and RNA in both bacteria and __ cells.

A

eukaryotic

57
Q

Viral attachment is prevented by drugs like artidone by blocking what?

A

peptide and sugar analogs of attachment or receptor proteins

58
Q

Penconaril is an agonist to what?

A

receptors of picornavirus like some colds, poliovirus and coxsackie virus

59
Q

What does maraviroc target?

A

receptors HIV uses to bind cell

60
Q

What does enfuvirtide inhibit?

A

HIV

61
Q

Raltegravir is what type of inhibitor?

A

competitive

62
Q

What is acyclovir used for?

A

herpes

63
Q

What does ribavirin accelerate?

A

mutation in RNA viruses

64
Q

Cidofovir treats CMV of the?

A

of the eye

65
Q

Arlidone is used to prevent poliovirus __.

A

uncoating

66
Q

Which drugs prevent viral exit?

A

zanamivir (Relenza) and oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

67
Q

Interferons inhibit what? They are used in what type of infection?

A

spead of infected cells; viral hepatitis

68
Q

Griseofulvin is useful for what type of fungal infections? What does it block?

A

dermatophyte of hair and nails; microtubule assembly

69
Q

Tolnaftate is what type of acid?

A

undecylemnic acid, fatty acid

70
Q

Pentamidine does what to DNA?

A

appears to bind

71
Q

Quinine treats what? What type of side effects?

A

malaria; psychotic side effects

72
Q

What is quinacrine used for?

A

giardiasis

73
Q

This drug is used for intestinal amoebic infections:

A

diiodohydroxyquin (iodoquinol)

74
Q

Metronidazole is a what? And acts on what type of anaerobes? What conditions does it treat?

A

antiparasitic; obligate; vaginitis, giardiasis, amoebic dysentery, Trichomonas vaginalis, Clostridia

75
Q

Nitazoxanide is an anti__

A

protozoan

76
Q

Niclosamide treats what? What does it inhibit?

A

tapeworm infection; ATP infection under aerobic conditions

77
Q

Praziquantel alters what? What does it cause helminths to do?

A

permeability of plasma membrane; undergo muscule spasms and become susceptible to attack on the immune system

78
Q

These are broad spectrum antihelminthics and are used in?

A

mebendazole and albendazole

79
Q

What drug would you use to treat scabies, ticks, and headlice?

A

ivermectin

80
Q

List 6 clinical considerations:

A
  1. cost
  2. availability
  3. stability
  4. mode of administration
  5. nontoxic/nonallergenic
  6. selective toxicity
81
Q

What is the difference between narrow and broad spectrum drugs?

A

narrow work on only a few pathogens; broad effective against many kinds of pathogens

82
Q

What is superinfection?

A

development of infections by microbes not affected by the antimicrobial

83
Q

What is an example of a pathogen that arises from reduced normal flora?

A

C. albicans

84
Q

What is a zone of inhibition?

A

a clear area surrounding the disk where microbes don’t grow

85
Q

What does a Kirby-Bauer test test for?

A

susceptibility

86
Q

What does MIC stand for? How is it determined?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration; via broth dilution tests

87
Q

What does MBC stand for? What is it?

A

minimal bactericidal concentration; minimum amount required to kill microbe

88
Q

Topical drugs treat what type of infections?

A

external

89
Q

What type of compliance is often seen with oral drugs?

A

lower, less

90
Q

IM injection allows diffusion of the drug through?

A

blood in muscle

91
Q

IV drugs diminish at what rate? How?

A

rapidly; liver and kidney remove it

92
Q

What causes black, hairy tongue?

A

from Hb breakdown accumulating in papillae of the tongue

93
Q

What is the therapeutic window?

A

range of concentrations of drug that are effective without being toxic

94
Q

What percent of Americans are allergic to penicillin?

A

.1%

95
Q

How are R plasmids/R factors acquired?

A

through transformation, transduction or conjugation

96
Q

What are examples of common multiple drug resistant pathogens, encountered in the medical environment?

A

Staph, Strep, Enterococcus, Plasmodium, Pseudomonas

97
Q

When resistance to one drug confers the resistance to similar drugs it’s said to be?

A

cross resistant

98
Q

What is synergism?

A

chemotherapeutic effect of 2 drugs greater than either given alone

99
Q

What is antagonism?

A

simultaneous use of drugs less effective than used alone