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RLM Vet dentistry flashcards > JVD 2012 > Flashcards

JVD 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats:
A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases
Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

How many cats died due to orofacial trauma?

A

Zero

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2
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

What percentage of all cats examined (out of 83 cats) suffered at least one orofacial injury?

A

66% of all cats examined (55/83) had at least one orofacial injury.

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3
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

What was the percent of cats with epistaxis?

% unilateral vs bilateral

A

36% of cats had epistaxis

Bilateral in ALL of these cats.

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4
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

What was the incidence of mandibular fracture?

What was the incidence of TMJ injury based on physical exam findings?

A

None of the cats experienced clinically apparent mandibular fracture or temporomandibular joint (TMJ) injury based on physical examination findings (2 cats had suspect TMJ but no definitive evidence was available)

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5
Q

What is the arrow pointing to in photo A?

In photo B and C, what are the astrix and arrow identifying?

A

Photo A: Major palatine neurovascular bundle

Photo B and C: the major maxillary foramen

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6
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

What was the most common injury?

A

Facial soft tissue injury was the most common finding and was noted in 51.8 % (43/83) of all cats

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7
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

There were two groups: Cats seeing the dental service and the cats seeing emergency service. In group A (seeing dental service), what was the most common injury?

A

In group A cats, the most common injury was a fracture in the midline of the hard palate with or without torn palatal soft tissue 78.6 % (11/14)

Torn soft tissue along the midline palate was invariably full-thickness at some point along its length, although the actual length and width of the defect, as well as bony involvement, varied

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8
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

In Group A (dental service seen cats) fter palatal injury, what was the next most common injury seen? Incidence?

How did this differ from the findigns of all cats?

A

In group A - Facial soft tissue injury and dental trauma were the second most common injuries, both seen in 71.4 % (10/14) of group A cats (Table 4).

In all cats – facial soft tissue was the most common finding noted at 51.8% and slightly lower for those seen by just emergency (48%)

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9
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

Of all cats in this study, what was the occurrence of tongue injury?

Other oral soft tissue injury?

A

Of all cats in the present study, tongue injury and other oral soft tissue injury occurred in 10.8 % and 8.4 %, respectively

In group A, 37.7 % of cats exhibited tongue injury. Other oral soft tissue injuries consisting of lacerations and abrasions were seen in 14.3 % of group A cats and 7.3 % of group B cats.

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10
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

Luxated teeth were only found in which teeth?

Abrasion was found only of one type of tooth, what was it?

What were the most commonly fractured teeth? Incidence in group A? Incidnece of ALL cats?

What was the second most commonly fractured TEETH in group A? Incidence?

A

Only incisors were found to be luxated

Abrasions were only found in lower canine teeth

Canine teeth with an incidenc of 35.7% in group A; 12.4% of ALL cats

The second most commonly fractured teeth were the maxillary or mandibular fourth premolar teeth, which were fractured in 14.3 % of cats in group A

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11
Q

In Orofacial Manifestations of High-Rise Syndrome in Cats: A Retrospective Study of 84 Cases. Sarah E. Bonner, DVM; Alexander M. Reiter

In group A (dental service) canine teeth were noted to be fractured in 35.7% og cats. Were the maxillary or mandibular canine teeth more likely to be fractured?

A

The mandibular canine teeth are more likely to be fractured than maxillary:

In group A, canine tooth fractures were noted in 35.7 % of cats, with 14.2 % of cats having one or both maxillary canine teeth fractured, and 21.4 % of cats having one or both mandibular canine teeth fractured.

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12
Q

In general, what is the frequency of cats with TR?

A

The frequency of cats with TR varies according to the study protocol and has been reported between 28.5 % in a randomly selected cat population and 67 % in cats that were presented for dental problems

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13
Q

Define the three types of TR.

A

Type I - crown affected by TR

Type II - root resorption

Type III - both crown and root affected by TR.

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14
Q

Define the five stages of TR

A

Stage 1 (TR1): Mild dental hard tissue loss (cementum or cementum and enamel)

Stage 2 (TR2): Moderate dental hard tissue loss (cementum or cementum and enamel with loss of dentin that does not extend to the pulp cavity)

Stage 3 (TR3): Deep dental hard tissue loss (cementum or cementum and enamel with loss of dentin that extends to the pulp cavity); most of the tooth retains its integrity

Stage 4 (TR4): Extensive dental hard tissue loss (cementum or cementum and enamel with loss of dentin that extends to the pulp cavity); most of the tooth has lost its integrity (TR 4a) crown and root are equally affected (TR 4b) the crown is more severely affected than the root (TR 4c) the root is more severely affected than the crown

Stage 5 (TR5): remnants of hard dental tissue are visible only as irregular radiopacities and gingival covering is complete

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15
Q

IN Radiographic Changes Associated with Tooth Resorption Type 2 in Cats Susann-Yvonne Mihaljevic, et al.

Of 56 cats that had intentional root retention, what percentage showed continued resorption of that tooth without evidence of inflammation?

What percentage of cats showed continued signs of TR with a completly resorbeed root?

What percentage showed a progression of ankylosis without inflammation?

What percentage showed unchanged TR WITH inflammation?

A
  • 67.8 % were diagnosed with continued resorption that showed a partially visible root remnant(s) WITHOUT inflammation
  • 14.3 % also showed continued signs of TR type 2 (group a) with a completely resorbed root(s)
  • Additionally, 14.3 % of cats showed a non-resorbed root remnant(s) (group c) with possible progression of ankylosis WITHOUT INFLAMMATION
  • 3.6 % constituted those that showed signs of unchanged TR type 2 WITH evidence of an inflamed root remnant(s)
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16
Q

What is the general depth to enamel in dogs?

A

In the dog, the enamel layer depth is < 0.1 to 0.6 -mm

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17
Q

What are GV Black’s 7 principles of cavity preparation?

A

GV Black’s 7 principles of cavity preparation:

outline form,

resistance form,

retention form,

convenience form,

pathology removal form,

wall form,

and preparation cleansing form

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18
Q

How many enamel rods are ther per mm2 in dog enamel?

Etching penetration increases the bondable surface of enamel by _____times.

A

There are 30,000 to 40,000 enamel rods/mm² and the etch penetration increases the bondable surface area 10-20 fold

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19
Q

Etching enamel increases surface tension by ____. Thereby allowing resin tags to penetrate _____um into enamel. Etching increases the bondable surface area ____fold.

A

More than two times.

10-20um

10-20

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20
Q

List the five types of restoratives available.

A

composites, compomers, hybrid ionomers, and glass ionomers.

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21
Q

What are the categories of filler sizes in composites?

A

all purpose, microfilled, nanofilled, microhybrids, nanohybrids, packable, flowable, and laboratory composites.

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22
Q

Is a high or low modulus of elasticity desirable in a composite?

A

Having a low modulus of elasticity is important. Modulus of elasticity is the STIFFNESS of a material. The lower it is, the better it is to protect the bonding interface. It allows the restoration to bend/flex with the tooth. Microfill composites have a low modulus of elasticity.

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23
Q

Typically conventional composites contain:

________% inorganic filler

Inorganic fillers such as __________________________

With particle sizes ranging from ___________um

A

75-80% inorganic filler by weight

such as ground quartz, strontium or heavy metal glasses containing barium

particles ranging from 1 to 10um in size

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24
Q

Conventional composites are rougher or smoother than microfill composites?

A

Rougher

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25
Q

Microfill composites contain ________particles with an average diameter of ________um

The inorganic filler of a microfill composite content is __________% by weight

A

colloidal silica

0.01-0.04um

35-60% by weight

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26
Q

Hybrid composites contain inorganic filler particles with an average diameter of ________um

The inorganic filler of a hybrid composite content is __________%

A

0.4 to 1 um

75-80% by weight

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27
Q

Explain why hybrid composites are superior to non-hybid counterparts.

A

Hybrids are superior to non-hybrid counterparts because of increased filler loading (particulate reinforcement) improving the stress transfer between particles in the composite. The interparticle distance decreases as filler loading increases with the addition of smaller-sized microfiller to the matrix resulting in less stress on the resin matrix by transferring occlusal stress from one filler particle to another. The result is a resin that acts more alike an adhesive (non-stressbearing) and less like a matrix (stress-bearing). Since the resins used in composites are relatively weak, improving particulate reinforcement greatly increases the stress-bearing capacities of the composite and acts to toughen the material.

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28
Q

How big are the filler particles in nanofill composites?

A

0.005 to 0.01um

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29
Q

What are compoomers?

Are they superior to glass ionomers? To resin-glass ionomers? To composites?

A

Compomers are composites to which some glass ionomer has been added.

They are superior to glass ionomers and resin glass ionomers but inferior to composites.

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30
Q

What are resin-modified glass ionomers used for?

A

They are used as liners, bases and luting agents because their physical properties are inferior to composites.

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31
Q

What is the difference in filler content of flowable composites?

  • what is the filler volume by %
  • particle size?

Do flowable composites have a high or low modulus of elasticity?

A

Flowable composites have a reduced filler level so it can flow. They are low-viscosity that contain dimethacrylate resin and inorganic fillerw with a particle size of 0.04 to 4.0 um and a filler volume of 42-53%

Flowable composites have a low modulus of elasticity.

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32
Q

What is abfraction and why is it important?

A

Abfraction is an area resulting from bending of a tooth which causes the enamel to flake away from the tooth.

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33
Q

Flowable composites possess a _______ (higher/lower) filler content and _______(higher/lower) polymerization shrinkage and ___________(higher/lower) wear resistance than microhybrids.

A

They possess a LOWER filler content, exhibit HIGHER polymerization shrinkage, and LOWER wear resistance than microhybrids

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34
Q

Describe what initiates polymerization of a light cured resin.

A

The light is absorbed by a DIKETONE, which starts the polymerization process in the presence of an organic AMINE.

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35
Q

What is the advantage of a photoinitiateor curing composite than a chemically actvated one?

A

The advantage of photoinitiator curing compared with chemical activation composites are numerous but most importantly provide increased strength, enhanced color stability, and control of working time.

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36
Q

What causes a sticky layer to form on the surface of a cured composite or resin?

A

Oxygen reacts rapidly with free radicles and retards polymerization reaction. It can cause a sticky air-inhibited layer from forning on the surface.

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37
Q

An oral tumour processed for immunohistochemistry stains positive for cytokeratins s CK14 and CK5/6 – is this tumour odontogenic or non-odontogenic?

A

Odontogenic

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38
Q

According to Rice, Riehl et al in Comparing the Degree of Exothermic Polymerization in Commonly Used Acrylic and Provisional Composite Resins for Intraoral Appliances:

Which of the following materials had a significantly lower degree of heat during polymerization:

Bi-GMA, chemically cured, fiber reinforced, provisional composite resin

Bi-acryl chemically cured provisional composite

Bis-GMA dual-cure provisional composite resin

Polymethylmethacrylate chemically cured acrylic resin

A

Bi-acryl chemically cured provisional composite

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39
Q

According to Rice, Riehl et al in Comparing the Degree of Exothermic Polymerization in Commonly Used Acrylic and Provisional Composite Resins for Intraoral Appliances:

Which of the following materials had a significantly higher degree of heat during polymerization (maximum temperature reached at or over 5° C, 11° C, 16° C above body temperature):

Bi-GMA, chemically cured, fiber reinforced, provisional composite resin

Bi-acryl chemically cured provisional composite

Bis-GMA dual-cure provisional composite resin

Polymethylmethacrylate chemically cured acrylic resin

A

Polymethylmethacrylate chemically cured acrylic resin

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40
Q

According to Rice, Riehl et al in Comparing the Degree of Exothermic Polymerization in Commonly Used Acrylic and Provisional Composite Resins for Intraoral Appliances:

Which of the following materials had a significantly shorter period of time spent at temperatures higher than body temperature during polymerization:

Bi-GMA, chemically cured, fiber reinforced, provisional composite resin

Bi-acryl chemically cured provisional composite

Bis-GMA dual-cure provisional composite resin

Polymethylmethacrylate chemically cured acrylic resin

A

Bi-acryl chemically cured provisional composite

Of the other materials, there was no significant difference with respect to the time spent over 5o, 11o or 16o over body temperature.

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41
Q

What are dimethacrylates?

A

Dimethacrylates are monomeric components of dental composites.

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42
Q

What are the most common dimethacrylates used in provisional composites?

A

Bi-acryl, bis-GMA, or urethane methacrylate.

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43
Q

What is the typical initiator for provisional composite resins?

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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44
Q

Explain how the self curing systems are packaged within two separate cylinders initate polymerization when the two sides are mixed.

A

An INITIATOR (ie. benzoyl peroxide) along with composite resin is in ONE cylinder; and the ACTIVATOR with the composite resin is in the OTHER cylinder.

When the two are mixed, the TERTIARY AMINE in the ACTIVATOR causes the initiator to initiate/become reactive to the monomeric component which reacts to other monomers to begin polymerization.

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45
Q

Studies have shown the following:

____% of healthy pulps fail from intrapulpal temperature rises of more than 5.55oC

____% of pulps fail from intrapulpal temperature rises of more than 11.1oC

_____ % of pulps were incapable of recovering from intrapulpal temperature rises of 16.65° C

**However increased surface temperature does not increase the pulpal temperature by the same degrees.

A

15%

60%

100%

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46
Q

True or false:

Dennis et al. showed that the retention of Antimicrobial Activity After Reconstitution of Doxycycline Gel was stable for 56 days after reconstitution against E. coli and S. Aureus

A

True

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47
Q

Oral extramedullary plasmacytomas:

(a) are locally aggressive and ______metastasize
(b) represent ____% of all canine oral tumours
(c) ______% of ALL extramedullary plasmacytomas are diagnosed in the oral cavity

A

Oral extramedullary plasmacytomas:

(a) RARELY metastasize
(b) represent 5.2% of all canine oral tumours
(c) 22.0 to 28.0 % of all EMPs diagnosed are in the oral cavity

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48
Q

True or false:

There is a relationship between extramedulary plasmacytomas and the development of multiple myeloma in dogs.

A

False

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49
Q

Extramedulary plasmacytomas are neoplastic ______ cells that _____ (do/do not) arise from the bone marrow.

A

PLASMA CELLS that DO NOT arrise from the bone marrow.

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50
Q

Plasma cell neoplasms are derived from cells of the _____________ cell lineage.

A

B-Lymphyocyte plasma cell lineage

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51
Q

What locations has extramedullary plasmacytomas beeen reported in the dog?

A

Soft tissue locations including: oral cavity, trachea, esophaguls, stomach, colon and skin. Most are reported to occur in the head.

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52
Q

True or fals: Plasma cells may deveelop at sites of chronic inflammation such as periodontal disease.

A

True

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53
Q

True or false:

Although Extramedulary plasmacytomas rarely metastasize from the skin and oral cavity, they are know to commonly metastasize to regional LNs when they are located in the esophagus, stomach and intestine.

A

True

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54
Q

True or false:

Extramedullary plasmacytomas can invade bone when they originate on the gingiva.

A

True

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55
Q

According to Verstraete FJ, van Aarde RJ, Nieuwoudt BA, et al. The dental pathology of feral cats on Marion Island, part I: congenital, developmental and traumatic abnormalities. J Comp Pathol 1996; 115: 265-282:

What was the prevalence of :

hypodontia (relating to a missing maxillary second premolar tooth),

supernumerary roots (relating to the maxillary third premolar tooth)

and supernumerary teeth

A

hypodontia (relating to a missing maxillary second premolar tooth): 17%

supernumerary roots (relating to the maxillary third premolar tooth) 10%

and supernumerary teeth 4%

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56
Q

What is the difference between gemination and twinning?

A

Gemination is the partial cleavage of a tooth bud. Twinning is the complete cleavage of the tooth bud.

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57
Q

What is the difference between concrescence and fusion?

A

Concrescence is the sharing of cementum between adjacent teeth.

Fusion is the sharing of both cementum and dentin and sometimes enamel.

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58
Q

What is the name for anomoly seen in tooth 207?

A

This is a developmental anomaly which was either the result of FUSION or GEMINATION and hypodontia (missing 206).

Generally FUSION is considered to have occurred if the normal number of teeth is LESS than normal and GEMINATION is considered to have occurred if there is a NORMAL number of teeth present.

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59
Q

ID the structures:

Short white arrows

white arrow heads

long white arrow

black arrow heads

short black arrows

black double-ended arrow

black dotted line

black dashed circle

white dotted circle

white dotted line

A

Short white arrows = caudal border of the maxillary/nasal recess

white arrow heads = dorsal aspect of the palatine bone

long white arrow = caudal aspect of the palatine bone

black arrow heads = junction between the body of the maxilla and its palatine process

short black arrows = ventral rim of orbit

black double-ended arrow = zygomatic arch

black dotted line = infraorbital canal

black dashed circle = sphenopalatine foramen

white dotted circle = caudal palatine foramen

white dotted line = laterocaudal notch of palatine bone

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60
Q

IN Comparative efficacy of a recombinant feline interferon omega in refractory cases of calicivirus-positive cats with caudal stomatitis: a randomised, multi-centre, controlled, double-blind study in 39 cats Philippe R Hennet Docteur Ve´te´rinaire, DipAVDC, DipEVDC1 *, Guy AL Camy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire2 , David M McGahie BVMS BSc(Hons)3 , Maxime V Albouy

It states that studies have shown using PCR technology that almost all cats with chronic gingivostomatitis were positive for Calicivirus but that only ____% of cats without caudal stomatitis were positive for calicivirus.

A
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61
Q

What are interferons and what is their function with respect to the control of viral infections?

A

Interferons are a family of cytokines.

They impede viral replication by binding to specific receptors on the celll surfae and induce a signal which induces the synthesis of certain enzymes (ie. protein kinase, GTPase) which interfere with cellular and viral processes.

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62
Q

Why does human interferon not work in cats?

A

They produce antibodies against it.

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63
Q

According to Comparative efficacy of a recombinant feline interferon omega in refractory cases of calicivirus-positive cats with caudal stomatitis: a randomised, multi-centre, controlled, double-blind study in 39 cats Philippe R Hennet Docteur Ve´te´rinaire, DipAVDC, DipEVDC1 *, Guy AL Camy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire2 , David M McGahie BVMS BSc(Hons)3 , Maxime V Albouy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire

The discussion reports that ____% of cats are considered cured after extractions.

____% do not improve with extractions

and

_____% require medications in order to be comfortable and eat well.

A

50-60% cured with extractions

10% no improvement

30% require ongoing meidcations.

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64
Q

Comparative efficacy of a recombinant feline interferon omega in refractory cases of calicivirus-positive cats with caudal stomatitis: a randomised, multi-centre, controlled, double-blind study in 39 cats Philippe R Hennet Docteur Ve´te´rinaire, DipAVDC, DipEVDC1 *, Guy AL Camy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire2 , David M McGahie BVMS BSc(Hons)3 , Maxime V Albouy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire

Cats in the positive control group received _______ as treatment

A

Prednisolone – at tapering anti-inflammatory doses

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65
Q

Does inteferon have antiinflammatory or analgesic effect?

A

No

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66
Q

In Comparative efficacy of a recombinant feline interferon omega in refractory cases of calicivirus-positive cats with caudal stomatitis: a randomised, multi-centre, controlled, double-blind study in 39 cats Philippe R Hennet Docteur Ve´te´rinaire, DipAVDC, DipEVDC1 *, Guy AL Camy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire2 , David M McGahie BVMS BSc(Hons)3 , Maxime V Albouy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire

Was daily oromucosal administration of 0.1 MU rFeIFN-omega associated with clinically statistical improvement of caudal stomatitis? Statistical reduction in pain?

A

Yes

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67
Q

In Comparative efficacy of a recombinant feline interferon omega in refractory cases of calicivirus-positive cats with caudal stomatitis: a randomised, multi-centre, controlled, double-blind study in 39 cats Philippe R Hennet Docteur Ve´te´rinaire, DipAVDC, DipEVDC1 *, Guy AL Camy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire2 , David M McGahie BVMS BSc(Hons)3 , Maxime V Albouy Docteur Ve´te´rinaire

Was there a statistical difference between the interferon results and the prednisolone group results?

Was there a statistical improvement in clinical signs and pain in the prednisolone group?

A

No to both

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68
Q

According to Nemec A, Arzi B, Murphy B, et al. Prevalence and types of tooth resorption in dogs with oral tumors. Am J Vet Res. 2012 Jul;73(7):1057-66.

Teeth at tumour sites in dogs with NONODONTOGENIC tumours were SIGNIFICANTLY more likely to be affected by what type of tooth resorption?

A

Teeth at tumor sites in dogs with nonodontogenic tumors were significantly more frequently affected with external inflammatory resorption, compared with teeth at tumor sites in dogs with odontogenic tumors.

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69
Q

Nemec A, Arzi B, Murphy B, et al. Prevalence and types of tooth resorption in dogs with oral tumors. Am J Vet Res. 2012 Jul;73(7):1057-66

Were dogs with odontogenic tumours more or less likely to have inflammatory tooth resorption than dogs with non-odontogenic tumours of teeth at the site of the tumour?

A

LESS

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70
Q

Nemec A, Arzi B, Murphy B, et al. Prevalence and types of tooth resorption in dogs with oral tumors. Am J Vet Res. 2012 Jul;73(7):1057-66

Found that teeth at distant sites from the oral tumours were ____ times as likely to have external surface resorption and _____ times as likely to have external inflammatory resorption as teeth in control dogs.

A

3.2 times as likely to have external surface resorption

and 83.4 times as likely to have external inflammatory resorption

as control dogs.

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71
Q

True or false:

According to Nemec A, Arzi B, Murphy B, et al. Prevalence and types of tooth resorption in dogs with oral tumors. Am J Vet Res. 2012 Jul;73(7):1057-66

Dogs with oral tumours commonly dvelop tooth resorption at sites and at distant sites from the tumours.

A

True

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72
Q

Name A, B and C

A

A = UNC 15 . 1mm markings with colour coding every 5mm

B = Marquis colour coded probe with markings every 3mm

C = #23 explorer = classic sickle shaped explorer = Shepherd’s hook

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73
Q

Name this instrument

A

ODU explorer

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74
Q

Label A, B, C and D

A

A, B, and C are scalers. B is medium sized and

C is large sized scalers (U 15 sickle scaler)

D is a UNC probe with colour coding 1mm = normal; blue 3mm normal dog; 6mm red indicating root planing, flap or extraction needed.

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75
Q

Describe the shape of a currette

A

A currette has 2 cutting edges and a blunted toe and bottom. It is semicicular in cross section with a convex bse.

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76
Q

Universal curettes have a blade with a ____o angle to the _____ shank

A

90O to the TERMINAL shank

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77
Q

What are the two most common types of universal curettes?

A

COLOMBIA and BARNHART

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78
Q

Gracey curettes have an angle of ______º to the terminal shank and the blade is _______

A

Gracey curettes have a 60-70º angle to the terminal shank and the blade is CURVED.

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79
Q

Gracey curettes have _____ cutting edge and the _____ side is used.

Universal curettes have ____ cutting edges.

A

Gracey curettes have ONE cutting blade and the CONVEX side is used.

Universal curettes have TWO cutting edges

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80
Q

What is the difference between HAND parallism and SHAFT parallism?

A

When the working end edge is perpendicular to the handle, “HAND PARALLELISM” is used such as scalers and universal curettes.

When the working end of the blade is precise to the position of the tooth, the instrument has SHAFT PARALLELISM such as with the GRACIE currettes.

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81
Q

What motion is used with Hoe scalers?

A

A PULL motion is used with Hoe scalers.

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82
Q

What is the blade anglee of a Hoe and what is the angle of the cutting edge bevelled at?

Hoes have how many contact points?

What is the name of the standard hoe instrument series?

A

The blade is angled 99-100º with the cutting edge beveled at 45º

TWO.

McCALL’s Series are the standard hoe instruments.

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83
Q

What motion are chisels designed to bue used with?

Where are they used?

Chisels are double ended with one end ____ and one end _____. The straight cutting edge iss beveled at a ____o angle,

A

Chisels are designed to be used with a PUSH motion

Chisels are used for tight proximal spacies (ie between 108 and 109).

STRAIGHT CURVED 45o angle,

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84
Q

Identify A, B, C, D and E

A

A = universal curette

B= universal curette

C = Gracey Curettes 1-2, 7-8. 12-13

D = hoe scaler used in a PULL motion

E = Chisel used in a PUSH motion

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85
Q

The Kirkland periodontal knife and the Orban are intended to be used where?

A

The Kirkland is gingivectomy, gingivoplasty, beveled incisions, and periodontal surgery.

The Orban is an interdental knife with cutting edges on both sides to work in interdental areas. It is used for interdental cutting of gingiva and to remove tissue

86
Q

Identify A and B

A

A = The KIRKLAND periodontal knife

B= the ORBAN interdental peridontal knife

87
Q

Dental Caries is the decalcificaiton of mineralized dentin followed by destruction of organic components with acid producing bacteria. In humans, the primary initiating bacteria are:

A

Streptococcus mutans and Lactoobacilli sp.

88
Q

In horses, where is peripheral caries most often found (which teeth).

A

Found predominantly in the molars (mandibular and maxillary) 09-11

89
Q

What is the thickness of organic pellicle considered normal lying on the surface of erupted crowns in horses?

A

< 10-µm

90
Q

Define the grades of equine dental caries:

Zero degree

First degree

First degree class 1

First degree class 2

Second degree

Third degree

Fourth degree

A

Zero Degree No macroscopic visible caries (can include infundibular hypoplasia)

First Degree Caries only affecting the cementum

Class 1 - small pitting superficial spots

Class 2 - extensive destruction and loss of cementum

Second Degree Caries affecting cementum and adjacent enamel

Third Degree Caries affecting cementum, enamel and dentin

Fourth Degree Caries now affects the integrity of the tooth i.e., development of an apical abscess or secondary tooth fracture

91
Q

These slides are from a horse. Describe the lesion in each (what class of peripheral caries?)

A

Slide 1 – First degree class 1 caries - small pitting superficial spots.

Slide 2 – 2nd degree PC (affecting cementum and enamel). There is debris and plaque lying within the enamel space (unlike in 1st degree PC).

92
Q

Describe the lesions in the following two slides.

A

1st degree; class 2 PC (extensive destruction of cementum)

93
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

How many 3rd degree peripheral caries (affecting cementum, enamel and dentin) were found in the specimens based on gross assessment?

A

None

94
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

Was the presence of food material associated with the severity of PC?

A

No, although food material was present in 43% of the speciimens with PC but no normal teeth had food material in the histology. That being ssaid there was no association with severity of PC.

95
Q

Were the majority of the teeth with PC have food and plaque associated with the PC lesion?

A

Yes. All but one specimen had plaque and food present with the PC lesion. This one specimen had food but no plaque seen.

96
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

Describe the correlation between gross assesment vs the assessment using histology (H&E staining) with respect to class of caries.

A

Correlation was high between gross and histological assessment:

(100%) with zero degree (controls);

83% correlation for 1st degree class 1

86% for 1st degree class 2

25% for 2nd degree (enamel involvement)

97
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

What were the two types of PC progression based on findings of the H&E stained sections?

A

The first type showed the presence of focal cemental lesions at the presumed sites of cementoblasts or cementocyte lacunae with subsequent expansive erosion of these focal, flask-like lesions into surrounding areas of normal-appearing cementum that eventually caused undermining and loss of adjacent cementum

The second type of histological progression of PC was a more generalized under-running of the superficial cemental layers by plaque, and separation of these under-run layers at the cemental surface that led to the loss of flakes of cementum.

98
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

Was there evidence of reparative cementum over PC lesions? Is this similar or dissimilar to what they found in Donkey teeth (in Du Toit N, Kempson SA, Dixon PM. Pathological investigation of caries and occlusal pulpar exposure in donkey cheek teeth using computerised axial tomography with histological and ultrastructural examination.Vet J 2008;178: 387-395)

A

No reparative cementum.

UNLIKE a feature described in PC affected donkey teeth.

99
Q

Where is stertiary cementum found in horse teeth?

Is it prone to caries? Why or why not?

A

Tertiary cementum is only present peripherally on erupted crowns.

It may be prone to caries because it contains large empty cementocyte lacunae and vascular channels that could provide an ideal environement for bacteria.

100
Q

True or false

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

Pioneer bacteria were found within the dentinal tubules in 63 % of the Gram-stained sections demonstrating that many PC lesions are more severe than is apparent on gross or routine histological examinations.

A

True

101
Q

In A Histological Study of Peripheral Dental Caries of Equine Cheek Teeth Mey E. Erridge, B

What was the most difficult PC to grade on gross assessment?

A

2nd degree PC (involvement of enamel) was the most difficult PC grade to assess by gross examination

This was largely because of the discolored, pitted surface nature of many PC affected cheek teeth precluded accurate assessment of the underlying enamel.

102
Q

True or false:

  1. The presence of an overlying organic pellicle (plaque) is a feature of normal human and equine teeth
  2. There are studies showing the plaque on normal human teeth does not contain bacteria, in contrast to the situation with plaque overlying carious lesions that contains high numbers of bacteria
A

TRUE

TRUE

103
Q

In CV Long. Common dental disorders of the degu (Octodon degus):

What was the most common dental disorders of the degu?

A

Molar malocclusion (42%)

104
Q

According to CV Long. Common dental disorders of the degu (Octodon degus):

List the common disorders you may see in degus/

A

molar malocclusion (43%)

enamel decolouration (13%)

molar elodontoma (8%)

enamel hypoplasia (6.6%)

incisor tooth fracture (6.6%)

incisor malocclusion (3.6%)

oral abscess 2.2% and impacted molar teeth ).7% were seen but low prevalence.

105
Q

Is age a significant predicotr of dental disease in the degu?

A

NO

106
Q

What is the dental formula of a degu?

Describe their teeth.

A

2x (1/1, 0/0, 1/1, 3/3)

Degus have ELODONT teeth (continually growing). Their molars are ARADICULAR HYPSODONT with a buccal INDENT and lingual FOLD.

Their incisors are also aradicular.

107
Q

Why do degus belong to the Octodontidae family?

A

the occlusal surface of the molar teeth forming a distinctive figure-of-eight shape

108
Q

What animal is thid?

In the bottom three photos, what can you tell the age of the animal on the right?

What is the function of the orange enamel?

A

Degu

The photo on the bottom right is a young (<6mo) degu just starting to show orange colouration.

Orange enamel adds strength and is more wear resistent.

109
Q

What causes enamel decolouratin in degus?

A

Associated with general health, possibly disruption in mineral metabolism (especiallly iron).

110
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of molar elodontoma? What causes it?

A

Molar elodontoma is due to the overgrowth of the molar tooth roots. Often due to malocclusion affecting germinal cells of the root.

Maxillary – can disrupt the sinus and nasal passage

Mandibular – causes lumps on the ventral mandible

111
Q

What can cause enamel hypoplasia?

Is it permanent?

A

Secondary to direct trauma, infection or tumour

Diet high in phosphorus or a poor Ca:Phos ratio (Normal is 2:1)

Ameleoblasts are not permanently defective.

112
Q

Is enamel hypoplasia more common with one or both incisors?

A

More common as a single pale incisor (77% vs 22% double).

113
Q

What is the rate of growth of degu incisors?

A

0.5 to 1.0 mm per DAY

114
Q

True or false:

  1. Vitamin A is known to be important for nromal germinal tissue and ameloblast function of rodents.
  2. supplemental foods rich in iron, vitamin C (assisting non-heme iron uptake by the body36) and carotenoids on a routine basis DOES NOT help to prevent or improve enamel decoloration in the degu
  3. enamel hypoplasia can be a cause of enamel decoloration, although in degus hypoplasia rarely affects all 4 incisor teeth simultaneously, unlike decoloration
  4. iron content is not important to ameloblast cells for enamel production and does not provide protection to the tooth.
A
  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE – supplemental foods rich in iron, vitamin C (assisting non-heme iron uptake by the body36) and carotenoids on a routine basis MAY HELP to prevent or improve enamel decoloration in the degu
  3. TRUE
  4. FALSE: enamel coloration is linked directly to the availablity of iron to ameloblast cells during enamel production and iron content is thought to provide acid protection to the tooth.
115
Q

What type of wall defect is in A and B?

A

A.

B. Two walled infrabony defect

116
Q

What is this instrument called and what angle and dirrection do you use it?

A

Ebner 502 Autogenous Bone Grafter.

Held at 10-45° to the long axis of the bone with downward force applied perpendicular to the bone and pulled.

117
Q

What is the difference between regeneration and new attachment when assessing the response to periodontal therapy?

A

True periodontal regeneration can only be confirmed histologically. Thus, any post-procedural clinical and radiographic gain in attachment can only simply be referred to as new attachment.7 Therefore, a distinction should be made between regeneration and new attachment

118
Q

What effect does doxycycline have on tissues?

A

Doxcycline has also been shown to have an anti-inflammatory effect through the inhibition of matrix metalloproteinases 8 and 12, which are collagen and elastin cleaving enzymes

119
Q

Name 2 collagen and elastin cleaving enzymes

A

metalloproteinases 8 and 12,

120
Q

What is the premise of using root conditioners? List three root conditioners that can be used.

Is the use of root conditioners supported in the literature?

A

The theory supporting the use of root conditioners is that demineralization of dentin exposes collagen fibrils which creates a surface conducive to cemental repopulation

citric acid, doxycycline, and EDTA

No

121
Q

What is one concern using a GTR membrane without using graft material?

A

The bone graft help support the GTR from collapsing or slumping into a defect.

122
Q

True or false:

Autografts are completely non-allergenic and posses the functional grafting properties of osteogenesis, osteoinduction, and osteoconduction.

A

True

Autografts are the only graft source that are osteogenic, meaning that they are the only type of graft capable of incorporating osteoprogenitor cells to induce new bone formation.1

123
Q

True or false:

Periomix is osteogenic

A

FALSE . Autografts are the only graft source that are osteogenic, meaning that they are the only type of graft capable of incorporating osteoprogenitor cells to induce new bone formation.1

124
Q

Define osteogenesis, osteoinduction and osteoconduction.

A

Osteogenic: The material has osteoprogenitor cells that induce new bone formation

Osteoinduction: the effect of a material which can stimulate pluripotent mesenchymal cells to differentiate and begin bone formation.

Osteoconduction refers to the functional property of a material which does not have a biologic influence in attracting osteogenic progenitor cells but can provide a scaffolding

125
Q

What are allografts?

What are the properties of allografts?

A

Allograft – material harvested from another individual of the SAME SPECIES.

Functional properties are osteoinductive and osteoconductive

126
Q

What are Xenografts?

A

Xenografts are grafts are taken from a DIFFERENT SPECIES.

These are the most antigenic and genetically dissimilar.

127
Q

What are alloplasts?

A

Alloplasts are synthetic particulate grafts, which do not possess any cellular or other biologic qualities but simply act as a scaffolding for the formation of new bone (OSTEOCONDUCTIVE).

128
Q

What is regarded as superior: Cancellous grafts or Cortical grafts?

A

Cortical bone graft is one taken from the outer, much more dense bone. Cancellous bone grafts are harvested from the softer trabecular, or spongy bone from the center of long and flat bones.

Cancellous grafts have long been regarded as excellent graft sources due to their ability to effectively induce new bone formation.

129
Q

What has a higher content of pluripotent osteoprogenitor cells – Cancellous or cortical bone grafts?

A

Cancellous bone has significantly higher content of pluripotent osteoprogenitor cells.

Cancellous grafts lead to rapid integration of the graft; unlike cortical bone which provides volume and structure through creeping substitution

130
Q

What is “creeping substitution”?

A

The slow, near-complete resorption of the graft with simultaneous deposition of new, viable bone. Creeping substitution begins at the graft-host junction, then moves along the axis of the cortical graft

131
Q

Are odontogenic keratocysts are developmental cysts known to have a high or low incidence of recurrence.

A

Odontogenic keratocysts are developmental cysts with an unusual propensity for recurrence.

Therefore the World Health Organization recently proposed that the name of these lesions be changed to keratocystic odontogenic tumor to more accurately reflect their neoplastic nature

132
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What identified a cyst as dentigerous (follicular)?

A

A dentigerous cyst: a cyst that enclosed the crown of an unerupted tooth, attached to the cemento-enamel junction and had a wall consisting f a thin layer of connective tissue and a NONKERATINIZED STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL LINING 1 to 6 cell layers thick.

133
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What defined an odontogenic parakeratinized cyst (COPC)?

A

An COPC was identified as a unilocular or multilocular cyst that was typically NOT associated with teeth, luminal epithelial cells that were typically PARAKERATINIZED. Cyst wall was 8-10 cell layers thick.

134
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What was a radicular cyst defined as?

A

A radicular cyst (defined by WHO) is a cyst at the apex of a non vital tooth that is inflammatory in origin and derived from the CELL RESTS OF MALASSEZ of the PDL.

Lined by stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium with a cyst wall containing inflammatory cells.

135
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What defined a lateral periodontal cyst?

A

A lateral periodontal cyst: arising from ODONTOGENIC EPITHELIAL RESTS OF THE DENTAL LAMINA, with a thin lining (1-5 cell layers thick) of NONKERATINIZING SQUAMOUS

OR

CUBOIDAL epithelial cells with pyknotic nuclei and focal thickened areas of epithelium

136
Q

Name the cyst:

Arising from ODONTOGENIC EPITHELIAL RESTS OF THE DENTAL LAMINA, with a thin lining (1-5 cell layers thick) of NONKERATINIZING SQUAMOUS OR CUBOIDAL epithelial cells with pyknotic nuclei and focal thickened areas of epithelium

A

Lateral periodontal cyst

137
Q

Name the cyst:

A at the apex of a non vital tooth that is inflammatory in origin and derived from the CELL RESTS OF MALASSEZ of the PDL.

Lined by stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium with a cyst wall containing inflammatory cells.

A

Radicular cyst

138
Q

Name the cyst: a unilocular or multilocular cyst that was typically NOT associated with teeth, with palisading basal cells, luminal epithelial cells that were typically PARAKERATINIZED and an irregularly folded cyst lumen possibly filled with KERATIN. Cyst wall was 8-10 cell layers thick.

A

An odontogenic keratocyst

139
Q

Name the cyst:

A cyst that enclosed the crown of an unerupted tooth, attached to the cemento-enamel junction and had a wall consisting f a thin layer of connective tissue and a NONKERATINIZED STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL LINING 1 to 6 cell layers thick.

A

A dentigerous (follicular) cyst.

140
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What percentage of the 41 cases were diagnosed with dentigerouc cysts?

Did the majority of dogs with dentigerous cyst have more than a single cyst?

A

71%

The majority (23/29 dogs) cases had a single cyst.

141
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What tooth/teeth was most often involved?

Second most often?

A

Mandibular first premolars (30/36 cysts). 4 of these were supernumerary teeth!

Canine tooth (3 maxillary, 2 mandibular total 5/36). 3 of these were malformed canine teeth.

142
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What percentage of dogs were categorized as having canine odontogenic parakeratinized cysts?

A

22% (9 out of 41 dogs)

143
Q

Do canine odontogenic parakeratinized cysts have keratinaceous debris in the cyst lumen?

A

No

144
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

Was there a significant age distribution of dogs diagnosed with canine odontogentic parakeratinized cysts?

A

No

145
Q
A
146
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What type of dogs were overrepresented? What percentage of the dogs were of this type?

A

Brachycephalics - 59%

147
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What was the most common type of odontogenic cyst?

A

Dentigerous cysts (71% ; 29/41)

148
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

Was there a significant difference between sexes or intact vs spayed/neutered?

A

No

149
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

True or false:

dentigerous cysts found in the dogs
were only associated with the canine and first premolar
teeth

A

True

150
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

What percentage of dentigerous cysts were associated with the first premolar tooth?

A

83% of the dentigerous cysts were associated with a premolar tooth.

The MAJORITY were mandibular premolars

30 of the 36 dentigerous cysts were associated with a premolar

26 of the 30 associated with a premolar were associated with a MANDIBULAR premolar.

151
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

what was the second most common type of cyst diagnosed?

A

COPC

152
Q

In Frank J. M. Verstraete, Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010)

How did COPCs differ from dentigerous cysts?

A

The COPCs were not associated with unerupted
teeth and spanned the roots of several fully erupted
teeth

153
Q

List two main clinical differences between human OKCs and the COPCs described in Verstraete’s Clinical signs and histologic findings in dogs
with odontogenic cysts: 41 cases (1995–2010).

A
  1. There were no recurrences of COPCs in this study
  2. OKCs occur more commonly in the mandible but all COPCs in the Verstraete study were in the maxilla
154
Q

Name this cyst:

cyst wall consists of nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium of uniform thickness but with a parakeratotic surface and a flat epithelial connective tissue interface.

A

COPC

155
Q

Is the following histology diagnostic of a COPC or a OKC?

  1. cyst wall was lined by squamous epithelial cells that had prominent keratinization.
  2. the cyst wall consisted of keratinizing stratified squamous
    epithelium
A

Both NO

COPC - cyst lining consists of non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a parakeratotic surface and a flat epithelial-connective tissue interface

Human OKCs are similar but also have hyperchromatic, palisading basal cell layer and keratinaceous debris in the cyst lumen (characteristic finding).

156
Q

Are COPCs surgically treated different than Dentigerous cysts?

A

No (except that mobile teeth embedded in the cyst are removed as part of the enucleation procedure).

157
Q

What enzyme is needed to produce Leukotrienes from Arachidonic acid?

What is the effect of leukotrienes?

A

Lipoxygenase.

Leukotrienes formed from AA include B4, A4, C4, D4, and E4.

Leukotrienes mediate inflammation via inflammatory cell recruitment and activation

Christine M. Egger. Pain Management in Veterinary Practice . Wiley.

158
Q

Briefly describe the COX pathway / products of the Arachidonic acid pathway.

A

AA—> PGG2 —-> PGH2 which then can form :

PGE2

PGD2

PGF2α,

Prostacycline (PGI2)

and THROMBOXANES (TXAw, TXB2)

Christine M. Egger. Pain Management in Veterinary Practice . Wiley. Kindle Edition.

159
Q

What is PGE2 involved in?

A
  • PGE2 is also a classic pro-inflammatory mediator, promoting redness, swelling, pain, and the development of hyperalgesia
  • Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) is also involved in the regulation of the reproductive, neurological, metabolic, and immune systems, bone formation and healing, temperature regulation, and vasomotor responses

*

160
Q

What is PGI2 (prostacyclin) responsible for?

A

Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2), or prostacyclin, is an important regulatory prostaglandin and a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation

Christine M. Egger. Pain Management in Veterinary Practice . Wiley. Kindle Edition.

161
Q

What type of cells do PGD2 often derive from?

What is their action?

A

Prostaglandin D2 (PGD2), commonly derived from lipid membranes of mast cells and macrophages, causes bronchoconstriction (particularly in asthmatics and those with pulmonary inflammation), vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and mucous production

Christine M. Egger. Pain Management in Veterinary Practice . Wiley. Kindle Edition.

162
Q

In Wakshlag et al’s 5-Lipoxygenase expression and tepoxalin-induced
cell death in squamous cell carcinomas in cats:

What 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor and what dual COX and 5-lipoxygenase inhibitors were used?

A

the 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor used was TEPOXALIN and
the dual COX and 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor was LICOFELONE

163
Q

In Joseph J. Wakshlag et al. - 5-Lipoxygenase expression and tepoxalin induced cell death in squamous cell carcinomas in cats

What percentage of samples from cats with oral SCC were positive for 5-Lipoxygenase?

A

100% (20/20)

164
Q

In Joseph J. Wakshlag et al. - 5-Lipoxygenase expression and tepoxalin induced cell death in squamous cell carcinomas in cats

What level of immunotreactivity did most of the oral SCC carcinoma samples have for 5-lipoxyenase staining?

A

Moderate to marked immunoreactivity

165
Q

In Joseph J. Wakshlag et al. - 5-Lipoxygenase expression and tepoxalin induced cell death in squamous cell carcinomas in cats

What was found to cause significant decrease in cell viability?

A

Treatment with 5-lipoxygenase inhibitors (tepoxalin and licofelone) significantly (P < 0.05) decreased cell viability

but

treatment with just Piroxicam (COX inhibitor) or TAM (Topoxalin active metabolite) alone did NOT significantly decrease cell viability.

166
Q

True or False:

In an oral carcinogenesis study,10 5-lipoxygenase was identified as an important enzyme in tumor induction and proliferation. Therefore, it is presumed that 5-lipoxygenase has fundamental activities during hyperplasia or uncontrolled cell proliferation

A

True

167
Q

In Joseph J. Wakshlag et al. - 5-Lipoxygenase expression and tepoxalin induced cell death in squamous cell carcinomas in cats

State TRUE OR FALSE for the following statements:

  1. Tepoxalin has the potential to have not only the antiangiogenic
    effects of COX inhibition, but also an ability to retard tumor cell proliferation.
  2. The known COX and 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor licofelone was effective in the present study, yet tepoxalin was slightly superior at decreasing tumour cell viability..
  3. SCCs in cats, regardless of anatomic location, have enhanced 5-lipoxygenase expression, compared with normal (nonneoplastic) squamous epithelium.
  4. Of the 3 forms of SCC, a lower proportion of oral tumors had perinuclear 5-lipoxygenase–specific staining.
  5. 5-lipoxygenase is more prevalent than COX staining, suggesting a role for dual inhibitors of COX and 5-lipoxygenase in SCCs, particularly oral SCCs
  6. Effects of tepoxalin, a dual COX and 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, in SCCF1 cells line did not revealed growth retardation at therapeutic concentrations and a proapoptotic response at slightly higher concentrations.
  7. the effect appeared to be mediated via alteration of cell signaling rather than via suppression of lipid mediators that are typically produced as a result of 5-lipoxygenase activity
A
  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. FALSE - oral forms have a HIGHER proportion of perinuclear 5-lipoxygenase specific staining
  5. True
  6. False – the effects of tepoxalin DID reveal growth retardation.
  7. True
168
Q

In Yildirim S, Can A, Arican M, et al. Characterization of dental pulp defect and repair in a canine model:

Pulp defects were created in the pulp chambers of maxillary and mandibular premolars (N = 64) in17 healthy mongrel dogs in three different sizes (diameter/depth: 1/1, 2/1, and 2/2 mm3) with sterile round burs under general anesthesia. The perforations were immediately capped with hard-setting calcium hydroxide (CH) in the control group or sealed with Teflon membrane (TM) in the experimental group, followed by restoration with reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement. Teeth were extracted at 70 days and analyzed.

What did they find wrt reparative dentin bridging in the following teeth:

2/2 group

2/1 group

1/1 group

Comment on inflammatory response of the TM group vs the CH group

A

2/2 group: TM group - no dentin bridging

CH treatment group – Failure to completely bridge defect with reparative dentin after 30 days

2/1 group: TM group - no dentin bridging

CH group - complete bridging of reparative dentin present

1/1 group: TM group - mild reparative dentin bridging

CH group - complete bridging of reparative dentin present

Inflammatory responses of the exposed dental pulp tissue were more robust with the TM group than with the CH group.

169
Q

What is the deciduous and adult dental formula for cattle sheep and goats?

A

Deciduous 2 (0/4, 3/3) = 20

Adult 2 (0/4, 3/3, 3/3) = 32

170
Q

In cattle, when do the permanent first, second and third MOLAR teeth erupt?

A

FULLY erupted by 12, 18 and 30 months respectively.

171
Q

In cattle, when do the permanent premolar teeth replace their deciduous counterparts?

A

Permanent premolars erupt between 24 and 30 months.

172
Q

In cattle, when do the permanent incisors erupt?

A

At 2, 2.5, 3 and 3.5 years of age.

173
Q

In cattle:

When do deciduous incisors erupt?

When do deciduous premolars erupt?

A

Cattle

decidous incisors - 2 central (701, 702, 801, 802) within the first 2 weeks of life. The other four erupt within the first month.

premolars - present at or shortly after birth.

174
Q

In sheep and goats:

When do the permanent incisors erupt?

A

Sheep and goat:

PERMANENT incisor teeth (301, 401) begin to appear at 12 to 18-months,

middle incisor (302, 402) teeth at 18 to 24-months,

lateral incisor teeth (303, 403) at 30 to 36- months,

and corner incisor teeth (304, 404) at 3.5 to 4.5-years

Permanent incisor teeth are LARGER and LESS sharp than their deciduous counterparts.

175
Q

In sheep and goats:

When do permanent premolars erupt?

When do molars erupt?

A

Similar to cattle:

Permanent premolars erupt between 24 and 30 months.

Molars: 1st, 2nd and 3rd molar teeth are FULLY erupted by 12, 18 and 30 months respectively.

176
Q

What species is shown in A? B?

What can you say about the age of each of these animals?

A

A = calf

B = goat (but could be a sheep)

A = <24 months old (actual =7mo). This specimen has all deciduous incisors. The first permanent incisor appears at 2 years of age.

B = > 3.5 years (actual = 3.5 yrs) (303/403 erupt at 2.5-3yrs) and 304/404 erupt at 3.5-4.5years).

Sheep and goats erupt their incisors about 6 months younger than cattle with the exception of the fourth incisor which is either the same or up to one year later; 04 in cattle erupt at 3.5 yrs)

177
Q

Are these photos of a cow or a horse?

How old (generalization)?

A

Cow.

Specimen is at least 3.5 years old because it has all of its permanent teeth.

178
Q

What species is this likely to be?

How old is this animal at the time of these photos?

A

Goat (could be sheep)

A : 1 -1.5 years old (actual 1.5y)

B: >3.5 to 4.5 years old (has all 4 permanent incisors) (actual 3.5y)

179
Q

What is the last permanent tooth to erupt in a cow? Sheep and goat?

At what age?

A

Fourth incisor.

Cattle - at 3.5 years and Sheep/Goats at 3.5 to 4.5 years of age

180
Q

At one year of age, what permanent teeth will a cow have?

What about at 18 months of age?

A

At one year of age the only permanent tooth in a cow will be the first molar (sheep and goats may also have their first permanent incisor which erupts at 12-18mo)

At 18 months of age, cattle will have their first and second molar teeth. No permanent incisors until 2 years of age. (Sheep and goats will also have first and possibly second incisors – 1st incisors at 1-1.5y; 2nd incisor 1.5-2y)

181
Q

At what age will cattle have all their permanent teeth?

Sheep and goats?

A

By 3.5 years of age, cattle will have all their permanent teeth. Their 4th incisor is the last to erpt at 3.5y

Sheep and goats will have all of their adult teeth by 4.5 years of age. They will have ALL but their 4th incisor by 3 YEARS but that 4th incisor erups between 3.5 and 4.5 years.

182
Q

You examine a cow and it has permanent:

01-03; all molars and two out of three premolars. How old is it?

A

2.5 years old

Premolars erupt between 2-3 years. Molars erupt at 1 yr, 1.5yr and 2.5 yrs.

183
Q

You examine a sheep with loose incisor teeth (2mm mobility). What is your diagnosis?

A

Normal – they are designed to rotate as they graze.

184
Q

Are ruminants brachydont or hypsodont?

A

Both.

Cheek teeth are hypsodont.

Incisors are brachydont

185
Q

You palpate the cheek teeth of a ruminant. Is this a concern?

A

Not necessarily. Molar teeth are naturally sharp. Remove sharp points if they protrude above surrounding teeth or cause ulcers.

186
Q

Is the tendency to develop periodontal disease hereditary in some strains of sheep?

A

Yes

187
Q

What is “Broken mouth” in sheep?

A

Young sheep with early onset periodontal disease, associated with loss of incisor teeth.

188
Q

What bacteria is associated with periodontal disease in cattle and sheep?

What are other factors?

A

Bacteroides spp., Actinomyces spp., and spirochetes

Organic acids from microorganisms in the soil, immune disorders in the host, and even plant awns can contribute to PD in sheep.

189
Q

You see a rumanent with pitting and chalkiness of the enamel. What is your differential dx?

A

Excessive fluoride (fluorosis)

190
Q

What can cause enamel hypoplasia in ruminents?

A

enamel hypoplasia is caused by dietary or disease factors such as an imbalance in calcium and phosphorous at a time of crucial enamel development

191
Q

What ruminent have dentigerous cysts been most reported in?

A

Sheep.

There can be one or more teeth involved in the swelling/cyst.

192
Q

Osteodystrophia fibrosa in goats –

What is the clinical finding?

What is it caused by?

What is the pathology?

A

Clinical findings: Affected animals present with painless bilateral swellings of the mandible and/or maxilla. Radiographs reveal poorly mineralized bone

Results from hyperparathyroidism or a deficiency in calcium, phosphorous, or Vitamin D

Pathology: a, a condition causing calcium resorption from bone and subsequent replacement with connective tissues.

193
Q
A
194
Q

Are caries thought to be common, not uncommon or rare in ruminants?

A

Rare but can occur if fermentale carbohydrates are fed.

195
Q

What happens if hypsodont animals are fed only pelleted diets?

A

They can develop overgrown teeth

196
Q

Can sheep survive without inciosrs?

Without cheek teeth?

A

Yes as long as the grass is not too short.

No - this is more serious since they need to chew in order to ruminate efficiently.

197
Q

In Harvey et al. Validation of Use of Subsets of Teeth When Applying the Total Mouth Periodontal Score (TMPS) System in Dogs

Which of the subsets examined were recommended when calculating the gingivitis and periodontitis scores using the TMPS system:

A One side only, buccal root sites only. All maxillary and mandibular teeth (21 teeth, 31 root sites).

B One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: first, second and third incisor, canine, second premolar, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth. Mandible: first, second and third incisor, canine, second premolar, third premolar, fourth premolar, first molar, and second molar teeth (17 teeth, 26 root sites).

C One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: canine, second premolar, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth. Mandible: canine, second premolar, third premolar, fourth premolar, first molar, and second molar teeth (11 teeth, 20 root sites).

D One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: third incisor, canine, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth. Mandible: canine, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth (9 teeth, 15 root sites).

E One side only, buccal sites only. All maxillary sites only (10 teeth, 15 root sites).

F One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: canine, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth. Mandible: canine and first molar teeth (5 teeth, 8 root sites).

G One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: fourth premolar and first molar teeth (2 teeth, 4 root sites).

A

D One side only, buccal sites only. Maxilla: third incisor, canine, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth. Mandible: canine, third premolar, fourth premolar, and first molar teeth (9 teeth, 15 root sites).

198
Q

InRebecca Gay Evans, Examination of the Depth of the Equine Hard Palate

Was it determined that breed, sex or age was related to the depth of the hard palate?

A

No. There was a broad range of variability of depth measurements (from 0.5 to 2.7 cm).

199
Q

In Rebecca Gay Evans, Examination of the Depth of the Equine Hard Palate

What was the range of palate depth measurements?

A

The palate depth measured from 0.5 to 2.5cm

200
Q

What is the name of the device used to hold the mouth open when doing equine dentistry?

A

A Conrad speculum

201
Q

What drug is used to reverse Xylazine in horses?

A

Tolazoline hydrochloride

202
Q

Describe the chewing action of Koalas

A

They use lateral anisognathic and anteroposterior isognathic jaw movements effectuated by the superficial masseter muscle

203
Q

What is the permanent dentition of a Koala?

A

e permanent dentition consists of I = 3/1, C = 1/0, P = 1/1, M = 4/4.

204
Q

True of false:

Koala’s have a brachygnathic occlusion at rest?

A

True

205
Q

Dentingerous cysts are subclassified as eruption or follicular cysts. Define each of these subclassifications.

A

Eruption cysts are a dilation of the normal follicular space surrounding a tooth crown during eruption

Follicular cysts are dilations of the follicular space around the crown of a tooth, which is either unerupted or impacted.

206
Q

List the structures from which an odontogenic cyst can arise from.

A

A tooth germ

Reduced enamel epithelium

Epithelial rests of Malassez

Dental lamina remnants

Basal layer of oral epithelium

207
Q

In what week of gestation does amelogenesis begin in a dog?

A

Begins in the 8th week of development

208
Q

Is the fluid in a dentigerous cyst a transudate or an exudate?

Is the fluid hypertonic or hypotonic to the plasma?

A

Exudate - from the vessels in the epithelial capsule.

Fluid is hypertonic to plasma - contributing to the expansion of the cyst.

209
Q

Describe the three stages of tooth eruption.

A

Pre-eruptive stage: development of tooth germs prior to eruption. Begins with crown development and formation of the dental lamina.

Eruptive stage (second stage) - the movement of a tooth from its position in the bone to the functional occlusal position.

Post-eruptive stage - when the tooth maintains its position while the jaw continues to develop.

210
Q

List the four theories of tooth eruption

A

Root growth and growth of pulpal tissue theories

The periodontal ligament force theory

Bone deposition theory

Dental follicle theory

211
Q

What are four possible causes for the persistence of a deciduous tooth?

A
  1. Abscence of a permanent tooth
  2. Ankylosis
  3. Hormonal influences
  4. Failure of the permanent crown to make contact with the deciduous root during euption.

RLM Vet dentistry flashcards (15 decks)

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