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RLM Vet dentistry flashcards > JVD 2011 > Flashcards

JVD 2011 Flashcards

1
Q

In a study of 63 rescued ferrets, 45 undergoing ax, what were the three most common abnormalities?

A

The most common clinical findings included:

    • malocclusion of mandibular second incisor teeth (95.2 %) (Bilateral linguoversion)
    • extrusion of canine teeth (93.7 %)
  • -and abrasion and attrition of teeth (76.2 %).
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2
Q

What percentage of ferrets had fractured teeth? What teeth had fractures? Of these how many involved pulp?

A

Tooth fractures were exclusively associated with canine teeth and found in 31.7 % of ferrets. (all but one was maxillary tooth fractures)
Pulp exposure was confirmed in 60.0 % of fractured teeth.

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3
Q

What is considered a normal sulcus depth in ferrets?

A

The normal gingival sulcus depth
measured < 0.5-mm in 87.8 % of anesthetized ferrets.

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4
Q

What percentage of ferrets were found to have stage 2 PD?

A

Clinical evidence of periodontal disease was present in 65.3 % of anesthetized ferrets (gingivitis or probing depths > 0.5-mm)

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5
Q

What percentage of ferrets had stage 3 and 4 PD?

A

Zero

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6
Q

In this study, how many ferrets (%) had:

    • evidence of tooth resorption,
    • dental caries,
    • stomatitis
    • oral tumors
A

Zero

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7
Q

How old is a ferret when it erupts its permanent dentition?

A

Between 42 and 77 days of age

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8
Q

What is the dental formula of a ferret?

A

Adult ferrets have 34 teeth, with the permanent dental formula being I 3/3; C 1/1; P 3/3; M 1/2 = 34

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9
Q

What instrument is thiss?

A

An ODU 11/12 dental explorer

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

What tooth/teeth were most commonly affected by abrasion and attrition?

A

The mandibular and maxillary 3rd premolar teeth (

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12
Q

What is the prevelence of caries in dogs reported to be?

A

~5%

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13
Q

What is the dental formula of a Degu?

A

I 1/1, C 0/0, P 1/1, M 3/3, a total of 20 teeth

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14
Q

Do degus have monophyodont or dyphyodont dentition?

A

Monophyodont

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15
Q

When do rabits erupt their permanent dentition?

A

All of the permanent teeth erupt by day 35 postnatally.

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16
Q

Are guini pigs monophyodont or dyphyodont

A

Diphyodont

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17
Q

Describe eruption of guini pig teeth

A

It has been described that guinea pig embryos have four deciduous molars (one in each jaw).These are resorbed in utero and are replaced by corresponding permanent

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18
Q

What teeth are Degus born with?

A

Fully erupted incisor teeth

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19
Q

When do all of the premolar teeth erupt in degus?

First molar tooth eruption?

Second premolar teeth?

Maxillary third molar teeth eruption?

Mandibular third molar eruption?

A

Premolar teeth erupt in degus on day 2-3

First molar tooth eruption on day 4-5

Second premolar teeth on day 17-20

Maxillary third molar teeth eruption 38-40

Mandibular third molar eruption 39-46

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20
Q

When were incisor teeth in occlusion in degus?

When was functional occlusion of the first 2 cheek teeth in occlusion?

When were second molar teeth in occlusion?

When were third molars in occlusion?

A

Incisor teeth in occlusion in degus – at birth

Functional occlusion of the first 2 cheek teeth in occlusion – 10 days

Second molar teeth in occlusion – 30-33 days

Third molars in occlusion – 58-72 days (~2 mo)

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21
Q

What type of cells line a radicular cyst?

A

Squamous epithelial cells line radicular cells.

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22
Q

What is the deciduous dental formula of an alpaca?

When do they erupt?

What is the adult dental formula of an alpaca?

A

Deciduous dental formula of alpacas: 2 x I1/3, C1/1, PM 2-3/1-2

All erupt prior to birth!

Adult dental formula of alpacas: 2 x I1/3, C1/1, PM 1-2/1-2, M 3/3

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

In alpacas, when do the incisor teeth erupt?

Premolars?

Molars?

List the order of premolar and molar eruption

A

1st incisor - 2 years; 2nd incisor - 3 years, 3rd incisor - 3-6 years

Canine teeth - erupt between 2 and 7 years

Premolars and molars between 6 mo and 5 years in the order of: M1, M2, M3, PM3 and PM4

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25
Q

What species is this?

A

Guini pig. Occlusal table is 30o

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26
Q

What species is this?

A

Rabbit. Occlusal angle is horizontal (180o angle)

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27
Q

Why must cheek teeth that are in poor occlusion in rabbits be reduced to the level of the gingiva?

A

Because when the teeth are supererupting, the gingiva moves coronal and there is some crown below the visible gingival margin. Reduce the teeth to the level of the gingiva (sometimes takes 2 stages) and as the rabbit chews, the gingiva will move to a more apical/normal position/margin.

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28
Q

Define primary vs secondary cleft palate.

A

Primary cleft palate is the failure of the fusion of the right and left maxillary processes at midline.

Secondary cleft palate is the failture of the nasal septum to fuse with one or both of the maxillary processes.

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29
Q

According to Fiani and Verstraete’s Clinicopathologic characterization of odontogenic tumors and focal fibrous hyperplasia in dogs: 152 cases:

What percentage of the 152 dogs with oral tumours were diagnosed with:

CAA?

POF?

FFH?

A

Of 152 dogs with oral tumours:

45% of dogs had CAA

31 % of dogs had POF

and

16% of dogs were dx with FFH

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30
Q

According to Fiani and Verstraete’s Clinicopathologic characterization of odontogenic tumors and focal fibrous hyperplasia in dogs: 152 cases:

State the two most common locations of (with %) the following tumours/lesions:
CAA

POF

FFH

A

According to Fiani and Verstraete’s study:

CAA: Rostral mandible (41%) and caudal mandible (29%)

POF: Rostral maxilla (47%) and caudal mandible (21%)

FFH: Rostral maxilla (57%) and rostral mandible (22%)

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31
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed odontogenic tumour?

A

Canine acanthomatous ameloblastoma

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32
Q

What breed is overrepresented when CAA has been diagnosed?

A

Golden retriever +/- cocker spaniel and shelties.

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33
Q

According to Kelly and Belding Acanthomatous ameloblastoma in dogs treated with intralesional bleomycin. Vet Comp Oncol. 2010 Jun;8(2):81-6.

True of false:

Intralsional bleiomycin is an effective treatment for Canine Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

A

True

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34
Q

List the five principles of crown preparation design.

A

(1) Preservation of tooth structure,
(2) retention and resistance
(3) structural durability,
(4) marginal integrity, and
(5) preservation of the periodontium

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35
Q

The formula : T = ½ arcsin (H/D) is the calculation of what?

A

The limiting average taper.. Tapers lower than this value have resistance form and those greater than this do not have resistance form.

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36
Q

Choose:

(1) The clinically achievabel CA for dog canine teeth is _____ (higher/lower) than the current recommendation.
(2) As H/D increases, the acheivable convergence angle will _________(increas/decrease).
(2) Preparation with a high H/D will be ______(more/less) successful than those with a low H/D.

A
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37
Q

In Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

What percentage of crowns were lost due to adhesive/cohesive failure?

What percentage was lost due to tooth fracture?

What was the overal clinical failure rate?

A
  1. 67% of restorations were lost to adhesive/cohesive failure
  2. 67% of restorations were lost because of tooth fracture

Clinical failure rate was 19.35%

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38
Q

According to Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

Did the teeth with an adhesive/cohesive failure had a higher or lower mean CA than non failures? than restorations that failed from tooth fracture?

A
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39
Q

From Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

List the approximate mean CA in the follwoing groups:

Failure due to adhesive/cohesive failure

Failure due to tooth fracture

Successful cases

Where any of these statistically signfiicant?

A

Mean CA (overall):

Failure due to adhesive/cohesive failure 38%

Failure due to tooth fracture 23%

None of these associations were not statistically significant

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40
Q

From Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

List the approximate mean H/D (overall) in the following groups:

Failure due to adhesive/cohesive failure

Failure due to tooth fracture

Successful cases

Where any of these statistically signfiicant?

A

List the approximate mean H/D (overall) in the following groups:

Failure due to adhesive/cohesive failure : 1.16

Failure due to tooth fracture 1.8

Successful cases 1.6

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41
Q

From Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

In general, did the restorations that failed due to adhesive/cohesive failure had

(a) a higher or lower mean CA than teeth that fractured?
(b) a higher or lower mean CA than those of teeth that did not fail?
(c) a higher or lower mean H/D than those of teeth that fractured?
(d) a higher or lower mean H/D than those of teeth did not fail?

Were any of these associations statistically significant?

A

In general, did the restorations that failed due to adhesive/cohesive failure had

(a) a higher mean CA than those of teeth that fractured
(b) a higher mean CA than those of teeth that did not fail.
(c) a lower mean H/D than teeth that those of teeth that fractured
(d) lower mean H/D than those of teeth that did not fail

No, none of the associations statistically significant.

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42
Q

From Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

In general, did the teeth that fractured have a:

(a) a higher or lower mean overall H/D than those that failed due to adhesive/cohesive failure
(b) a higher or lower mean overall H/D than those that did not fail at all.

A

The teeth that fractuered had a higher overal mean H/D than those that had adhesive/cohesive failure and those that were non-failures.

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43
Q

If a restoration exceeds the CAlim , the crown is ______ (more/less) likely to be lost due to adhesive/cohesive failure?

A

If a restoration exceeds the CAlim , the crown is more likely to be lost due to adhesive/cohesive failure?

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44
Q

Given the same diameter, and same taper of a die, how must height change to reduce the risk of cast dislodgment?

A

Height must increase.

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45
Q

In the following diagrams, Is A or B more likely to be dislodged? Why?

Is A or C more likely to be dislodged? Why?

Is A or D more likely to be dislodged? Why?

A

A is more likely to dislodge than B since AB=AC in A; but AB

A is more likely to be dislodged for the same reason. In C, AB

A is more likely to dislodge because the taper is larger (and therefore CA is larger) and AC will interfere with dislodgement ini D with a lower taper angle.

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46
Q

What factors/dimentions will improve the retention of a cast?

A

Increased height

Decreased diameter

Decreased taper

Decreased CA

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47
Q

According to Soukup and Snyder’s Achievable Convergence Angle and the Effect of Preparation Design on the Clinical Outcome of Full Veneer Crowns in Dogs:

The preparations with a CA that exceeded CAlim were how many more
times more likely to suffer an adhesive/cohesive failure compared
to those that did not have a CA that exceeded the CAlim?

A

Those preparations with a CA that exceeded CAlim were 2.7
times more likely to suffer an adhesive/cohesive failure compared
to those that did not have a CA that exceeded the CAlim.

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48
Q

According to a report of the clinical performance of metal crowns in
a group of 18 working dogs, which reported an overall clinical
failure rate of ____%:

______% due to an adhesive/cohesive failure and ____% of which were
considered fracture failure.

A

A report of the clinical performance of metal crowns in
a group of 18 working dogs, which reported an overall clinical
failure rate of 12.2 % (5/41); one (2.4 %) of which was considered
an adhesive/cohesive failure and 4 (9.8 %) of which were
considered fracture failure.

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49
Q

List the other three species thought to be highly virulent species associated with the onset of periodontal disease in humans.

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Campylobacter rectus

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50
Q

List the orange complex bacteria

A

The orange complex includes Fusobacterium,
Prevotella, and Campylobacter spp

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51
Q

List the red complex bacteria associated with increased severity of periodontal disease in humans.

A

Red complex bacteria:

Porphyromonas gingivalis,

Treponema denticola, and

Tannerella forsythia

(PTT = red complex - denticola - red can)

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52
Q

In Kato et al’s Molecular Detection of Human Periodontal Pathogens in Oral Swab Specimens from Dogs in Japan:

What three bacteria were found in almost all 26 pet dogs?

A

Tannerella forsythia, Campylobacter rectus, and Porphyromonas gulae were detected in almost all dogs in the present study

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53
Q

IN In Kato et al’s Molecular Detection of Human Periodontal Pathogens in Oral Swab Specimens from Dogs in Japan:

What percentage was shown to possess all three species (Tannerella forsythia, camplylobacter rectus and Porphyromonas gulae?

A

80.8% of dgos had all three species.

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54
Q

In Kato et al’s Molecular Detection of Human Periodontal Pathogens in Oral Swab Specimens from Dogs in Japan:

Which of the following is false?

(a) At least one of the three species, Tannerella forsythia, Camplylobacter rectus and Porphyromonas gulae, were detected in all of the 26 dogs.
(b) 60% of the dogs possessed all three species, Tannerella forsythia, Camplylobacter rectus and Porphyromonas gulae.
(c) Porphyromonas gingivalis was detected in only one dog
(d) Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, and Tannerella forsythia, are all red complex bacteria and are known to be highly associated with the severity of periodontitis

A

(b) is false. 80.8% of dogs were shown to possess all 3 species (Tannerella forsythia, Camplylobacter rectus and Porphyromonas gulae),

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55
Q

What is the dental formula of a rabbit?

A

28 teeth: 2 x I(2/1), C(0/0), PM (3/2), M(3/3)

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56
Q

Match:

(a) Rabbit A - radicular hypsodonts
(b) Guini pig B - diphyodont, brachydont and heterodont
(c) Horse C - aradicular hypsodonts
(d) Cow D - monophydont with brachydont molars
(e) Dog E - brachydont and h
(f) Rat
(g) Mouse

A

(a) Rabbits are C - aradicular hypsodonts with short reserved crown and long submerged crown
(b) Guini pigs are also C - aradicular hypsodonts
(c) and (d) - A - Cows and Horses are radicular hypdodonts
(e) dogs and cats are B - diphyodont, brachydont and heterodont
(f) (g) - mice, rats, gerbils and hamsters are D - monophyodont with brachydont molars

57
Q

What is the growth rate of rabbit incisors?

What is the growth rate of cheek teeth?

Do maxillary and mandibular cheek teeth grow at the same rate?

A

Rabbit incisors grow ~ 3mm per week

Rabbit cheek teeth grow approx. 2-3 mm per month

No - maxillary teeth tend to be slower than their mandibular counterparts

58
Q

In the study “Measurement of Clinical Crown Length of Incisor and Premolar Teeth in Clinically Healthy Rabbits”:

What was the average crown length of:

mandibular third premolar

mandibular forth premolar

maxillary second prmemolar

A

Measurements were:

mandibular third premolar 3.1mm +/- 0.4 mm

mandibular fourth premolar 2.6mm +/- 0.4mm

maxillary second premolar 1.5 +/- 0.4mm

59
Q

In the study “Measurement of Clinical Crown Length of Incisor and Premolar Teeth in Clinically Healthy Rabbits”:

What was the average range of crown length of the mandibular third and forth premolar and maxillary second premolar teeth in mm.

A

2.5 to 4.0 mm

The mandibular third premolar was the longest due to the natural rostro-ventral slope of the mandibular alveolar crest.

60
Q

In the study “Measurement of Clinical Crown Length of Incisor and Premolar Teeth in Clinically Healthy Rabbits”:

What was the range of crown length of the maxillary incisor teeth?

Of the mandibular incisor teeth?

A

The maxillary r incisor teeth were 4.5 - 8.0 [6.1 +/- 0.9]

The and mandibular incisor teeth were 5.0 - 7.0 [6.4 +/- 0.6]

61
Q

In the study “Measurement of Clinical Crown Length of Incisor and Premolar Teeth in Clinically Healthy Rabbits”:

What was the average periodontal pocket depth of the cheek teeth in the rabbits?

What was the pocket depth of the maxillary and mandibular incisor teeth?

A
  1. 5-1.0mm PPD of cheek teeth
  2. 0-3.0 mm PPD of the upper incisor teeth and 4.0-7.0 of the mandibular incisor teeth.
62
Q

In the study “Measurement of Clinical Crown Length of Incisor and Premolar Teeth in Clinically Healthy Rabbits”:

What percentage of clinically normal rabbits were found to have grade I hooks?

How many were found not to have any hooks?

A

65% of the clinically normal rabbits had grade I hooks.

35% of clinically normal rabbits did not have any visible hooks/points.

63
Q

In dogs and cats with autoimmune disease cuasing oral ulcers, what does the autoantibodies target?

A

Autoantibodies target the mucosal basement membrane or basal keratinocyte components.

64
Q

What is a main difference of mucous membrane pemphigoid and bullous pemphigoid?

\Which is more common?

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid accounts for 50% of the cases and Bullous pemphigoiid is the second most common.

Bullous pemphigoid clinically presents with vescilces on haired skin, unlie mucous membrane pemphigoid.

65
Q

What difference is seen histologically between autoimmune vesiculobullous diseases and CUPS?

A

Autoimmune vesiculobullous diseases are characterised by subepithelial clefting, while CUPS lesions show lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltrates in the lamina propria and epithelium.

66
Q

List the 12 cranial nerves and whether they are motor or sensory.

A

I–Olfactory - sensory

II–Optic - sensory

III–Oculomotor - motor (eye movement)

IV–Trochlear - motor (eye movement)

V–Trigeminal - mixed (touch, taste, masitcation, movement of lower jaw)

VI–Abducens - motor (eye movement)

VII–Facial - Mixed (taste, salivation, tear secretion)

VIII– Auditory - Vestibulocochlear - Sensory (hearing)

IX–Glossopharyngeal Mixed (taste, salivation, swallowing)

X–Vagus - Mixed (gastric and pancreatic secretions, GI mov’t, cardiac reflex, visceral reflex, respiratory reflex)

XI– Spinal Accessory - Motor (muscle movement and visceral reflex)

XII–Hypoglossal - Motor (tongue movement)

67
Q

What are the three branches of the Trigeminal nerve and what foramen do they exit?

A

Opthalmic nerve – exits through the superior orbital fissure

Maxillary branch - exit through the Foramen rotundum

Mandibular nerve - exits through the Forament oval.

68
Q

What sensory nerve innervates the scalp, forhead and nose?

A

The ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal

69
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the cheeks, lower eyelid, nasal mucosa, upper lip , upper teeth and palate?

A

Maxillary branch of thee trigeminal nerve (CNV; which exits through the foramen rotundum)

70
Q

What nerve provides sensory and motor function to parts of the skin, anterior 2/3 of the tongue, t he skin over the mandible and lower teeth, and motr function to the muscles of mastication?

A

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal (CN V and exits through the Foramen ovale)

71
Q

In myelinated nerves, signals are transmited via ______ conductiion with membrane depolarization occuring at the unmyelinated _________. When expecting a local anesthetic agent to be effective, what is the minimum length of fiber required to be blocked?

A

saltatory

nodes of Ranvier

the distance of three nodes.

72
Q

What does the mylohyoid nerve branch from?

Where does it go and what does it innervate?

A

The mylohyoid nerve is a small branch from the mandibular nerve and courses rostrally medioventral to the body of the mandible and provides MOTOR input to the digastricus muscle.

It anastamoses with the ventral buccal branch of CN VII (facial) to provide cutaneous innervation to the ventral lip and cheek.

73
Q

What fibers (A or C) transmit thermal perception?

Transmit acute pain?

A

C fibers are primary transmitters of thermal perception.

A and C fibers transmit pain signals.

74
Q

With respece to PDL innervation, where is the highest nerve density found?

A

Highest nerve density is in the apical portion of the PDL and contains nociceptive an dmechanoreceptive terminations.

75
Q

What are the three Rs for research purposes?

A

Replace, reduce and refinement.

76
Q

In Krug and Losey’s: Area of Desensitization Following Mental Nerve Block in Dogs:

What tooth was most reliably desensitized when cold temperature was applied?

A

The tooth most reliably desensitized for cold stimulus was PM3 at 100%. It was followed by PM4 *86%), then Canine (43%) and First molar - (mesial 29% and distal 14%)

77
Q

List the papillae of the tongue and where they are located.

A

Fungiform and filiform

78
Q

Where is the root of the tongue attached?

A

The root of the tongue is attached to the basihyoid bones by the extrinsic muscles.

79
Q

Where is the body of thee tonguee attached?

A

The body of the tongue is the middle portion and is attached to the floor of the mouth by the lingual frenulum

80
Q

What defiines the location of the apex of the tongue?

A

The apex is the rostral, unattached, mobile portion of the tongue.

81
Q

List the extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

What is the function of the extrinssic muscles?

A

Styloglossus, hyoglossus, and genioglosssus.

Extrinsic muscles provide motility and attachment to the tongue.

82
Q

What papillae are found on the root of the tongue?

A

Conical, vallate, and foliate papillae

83
Q

Is the mucous membrane of the tongue ectodermally or endodermally derived?

A

The caudal portion is endodermally derived and the body and apex are ectodermally derived. The V shape arrangement of the vallate papillae demarkates the devision.

The muscles of the tongue are mesodermally derived

84
Q

Name 1, 2 and 3 for innervation of the tongue:

A
  1. Lingual and chorde typani
  2. Glossopharyngeal
  3. Vagus and glossopharyngeal

The tongue is innervated by the lingual (V), chorda tympani (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and hypoglossal (XII) nerves

Evans, Howard E.; Lahunta, Alexander de; Lahunta, Alexander de. Miller’s Anatomy of the Dog - E-Book (Page 298). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

85
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue?

A

N. Hypoglosssal

86
Q

What is the main blood supply to the tongue?

A

Lingual artery off of the external carotid artery.

87
Q

Where is the lyssa located? What is its function

A

The lyssa is a rod shaped structure (muscle and fat surrounded by fibrous capsule) within the apex of the tongue that acts as a stretch receptor.

88
Q

What is the cause of the lesions seen in photos (1) (2) and (3)?

A

(1) Chemical/ caustic burn
(2) Electrical burn
(3) Traumatic granuloma/chewing lesion

89
Q

Are papillomas from papilloma virus generally larger than 1cm?

A

NO

90
Q

When would you consider treating papilloma virus lesions?

A

If they persist longer than 6 months

91
Q

What are treatment options for papilloma virus?

A

Surgical removal

Cryotherapy

Laser ablation

SQ Interferron three times a week and then once a week (until after clinical remission)

Azithromycin

92
Q

List immune mediated diseases that can cause lingual lesions

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

Pemphigus vulgaris

Bullous pemphigoid

Systemic lupus erythmatosus

93
Q

What is your diagnosis for A and for B?

A

(A) DX: Malignant melanoma of the tongue. Note the melanocytes. Cells have pigment granules, moderate anisokaryosis and large prominent nucleoli. Write-giemsa stain.

(B)DX: SCC. Note squamous epithelial cells with varying amounts of basophilic cytoplasm and large round nuclei.

94
Q

What is an appropriate treatment for Lingual Reactive Histiocytosis?

A

Tetracycline and Niacinamide

95
Q

How does Tetracycline and Niacinamide work for immunomodulation?

A

Tetracycline suppresses in vitro antibody production, and inhibits complement activation, prostaglandin synthesis and the function of lipases and collagenases.

Niacinamide has been shown to block in vivo and in vitro IgE-induced histamine release, prevent mast cell degranulation, decrease protease release, and inhibit phosphodiesterases

96
Q

IN: Dennis MM, Ehrhart N, Duncan CJ, et al. Frequency of and risk factors associated with lingual lesions in dogs: 1,196 cases (1995-2004). J Am Vet Med Assoc 2006; 228: 1533-1537

What was the most common and second most common diagnosis of lingual biopsies submitted?

A

Neoplasia (54% of samples) and Glossitis (33.2% of samples) were the most common and second most common diagnoses.

97
Q

In Dennis MM, Ehrhart N, Duncan CJ, et al. Frequency of and risk factors associated with lingual lesions in dogs: 1,196 cases (1995-2004). J Am Vet Med Assoc 2006; 228: 1533-1537.

What were the most common malignant neoplasms diagnosed?

A

Melanoma, SCC, Hemangiosarcoma and Fibrosarcoma were the most common malignancies.

98
Q

At what age do horses have mixed dentition?

A

Between 2 and 5.5 years old.

99
Q
A
100
Q

In reland JL, Clegg PD, McGowan CM, et al. Disease prevalence in geriatric horses in the United Kingdom: Veterinary clinical assessment of 200 cases. Equine Vet J. 2011 Jun 13

What percentage of geriatric horses (>15yrs) were found to have dental disease?

A

95.4%

101
Q

In reland JL, Clegg PD, McGowan CM, et al. Disease prevalence in geriatric horses in the United Kingdom: Veterinary clinical assessment of 200 cases. Equine Vet J. 2011 Jun 13

What were the three most common dental abnormalities?

A

Cheek teeth diastemata, excessive wear/cupped out teeth; and focal overgrowths.

102
Q

In 2011 Ramzan et al. Extraction of Fractured Cheek Teeth under Oral Endoscopic Guidance in Standing Horses (n=30):

What was the success rate?

A

87% of standing extraction cases were successful

103
Q

In Razman et al. Extraction of Fractured Cheek Teeth under Oral Endoscopic Guidance in Standing Horses:

What was the most common fracture seen?

A

Midline sagitall fractures of maxillary teeth were the most common type (42% of cases).

Followed by buccal or palatal (32% of cases) and transverse or multiple fractures in 16% of cases.

104
Q

In Townsend NB, Hawkes CS, Rex R, et al. Investigation of the sensitivity and specificity of radiological signs for diagnosis of periapical infection of equine cheek teeth (2011):

What was the sensitivity and specificity of radiographs when using them to identify cheek teeth periapial infection?

What was the sensitivity and specificity thought to be of CT?

A

Radiograph sensitivity is 76% and specificity is 90%

CT sensitivity is thought to be higher and specificity is about the same.

105
Q

What are the radiographic signs of periapical infection in equine CT?

A

Periapical sclerosis; clubbing of 1 or 2 roots

Peripaical halo formation

106
Q

In: Fidel J, Lyons J, Tripp C, Houston R, et al. Treatment of oral squamous cell carcinoma with accelerated radiation therapy and concomitant carboplatin in cats. J Vet Intern Med. 2011 May-Jun; 25(3):504-10.

What was the mean survival rate for all cats?

What were two significant predictors of survival time?

What two sites had the best mean survival of 724 days?

A

Mean survival rate for all cats: 163 days

Two significant predictors of survival time were site and whether cats had a complete response at 30 days.

The two sites had the best mean survival of 724 days were cats with tonsil or cheek SCC.

107
Q

In the photos below:

Identify the red A B and C.

In the lower photo, identify the A B and C structures.

A

First photo

Red A: Hypercementosis

Red B: Pulp exposures

Red C infundibular cemental hypoplasia

Second photo:

A is the infraorbital canal

B is the Rostral maxillary sinus

C is the right maxillary sinus septum

108
Q

In Dennis MM, Ehrhart N, Duncan CG, et al. Frequency of and risk factors associated with lingual lesions in dogs: 1,196 cases (1995-2004). J Am Vet Med Assoc 2006; 228:1533-1537

What is the percentage of oral neoplasms that are Lingual neoplasms?

What are the two most common lingual malignancies? What are the two lesser common lingual malignant masses?

A

2 to 4% of oropharyngeal neoplasms are lingual

Melanoma and SCC are the most common lingual malignancies.

Followed by hemangiosarcoma and fibrosarcoma.

109
Q

Answer:

Malignant lingual neoplasms located caudally have a _______ metastatic potential than those located rostrally.

A
110
Q

What is the difference between a partial glossectomy, a subtotal glossectomy, a near total glossectomy and a total glossectomy?

A

Glossectomies in dogs are classified into:

partial (resection of part or all of the free portion of the tongue),

subtotal (entire free portion with part of the muscles caudal to it),

near total ( > 75% of the tongue),

and total.

111
Q

What duct(s) run within the sublingual fold?

A

The mandibular salivary duct and the major sublingual salivary duct.

112
Q
A
113
Q

In Johnston et al’s Canine Periodontal Disease Control Using a Clindamycin Hydrochloride Gel Thomas:

What were the statisticallly significant findings with respect to the use of clindamycin HCl gel with respect to

  • periodontal pocket depth
  • gingival index score
  • number of bleeding sites
A

Yes!

  • There was a significant decrease in periodontal pocket depth (19% decrease)
  • There was a significant decrease in gingival index score (16%)
  • There was a significant decrease in the number of bleeding sites (64%)
114
Q

In 2011 Clarke’s Effectiveness of a Vegetable Dental Chew on Periodontal Disease Parameters in Toy Breed Dogs:

What teeth were evaluated?

Were daily chews associated with reduction of halitosis, gingivitis, plaque and calculus? Were any of these statistically significant?

List the order of most profound to lease profound decrease.

A

103/203, 103/104, 107/207, 108/208, 109/209, 304/404. 307/407, 308/408, and 309/409 were evaluated

Daily administration of the dental chew was shown:

  • to reduce halitosis (but not significnt.
  • significantly reduce gingivitis (by 11%), plaque (by 37%) and calculus accumulation (by 70%)

Most profound: decrease in calculus, then plaque then gingivitis.

115
Q

Which bacteria are known to produce volatile sulfur compounds?

Where do volatile sulfides arise from?

A

Porphyromonas sp., Bacteroides sp., Fusobacterium sp. and spirochetes produce volatile sulfur compounds.

Voltatile sulfides arise from a number of different locations, including plaque biofilms on the teeth, the oral tissues including the tongue, gingiva, pharynx, tonsils, and reflux from the stomach

116
Q

What % of dentin is organic material?

MMPs are found in the organic portion of dentin. Describe the effect of MMPs on a bonding material.

A

Dentin is 30% orgaic material.

MMPs can be activated during bonding procedures. These are bound tot he collagen matrix of dentin and can hydrolyze the collagen fibrils in resin bonded dentin whcih will cause a reduction in retentive strength – this can lead to the loss of the restoration.

117
Q

True or false:

Most resin-dentin bonds degrade over time.

A

True. Decreases in bond strength of 50% can occur over 6-12 months. Therefore initial bond strength should be as high as possible.

118
Q

What is the appropriate time and light intensity to cure a bonding material?

A

light cure for 10-seconds at a power density of 1000 mW/cm².

119
Q

The failure between dentin and a bonding material is considered ______ failure.

The breakage of composite is considered a _________ failure.

A

Adhesive

Cohesive.

120
Q

IN Kimberlin’s 2011: Comparison of Shear Bonding Strength for Two Different Etching Systems in Canine and Human Dentin:

Shear bonding strength was found to be higher or lower in canines than in human teeth?

What was the shear bonding strength difference between human and canine teeth?

Was there a significant difference between self etching and etch and rinse systems in each species?

A

Shear bonding strength (SBS)was higher in humans than animals.

The SBS in the human samples were approximately 40 % higher compared with the canine samples.

  • SBS using the etch and rinse system for human teeth was 44 % higher than canine teeth.
  • SBS using the self-etch system for human teeth was 39 % higher than canine teeth

Although the SBS was consistently greater for the self-etching bond system groups in both species, there was no significant difference compared with the etch and rinse bond system

121
Q

Oral tumours are the ___ most common tumour location in dogs.

Oral tumours account for ___% of all canine tumours.

A

4th most common tumour location in dogs.

Account for 6% of all tumours in dogs

122
Q

Maxillary tumors are more likely to drain to the _______ lymph node and the ____________ lymph node.

A

Maxillary tumors are more likely to drain to the parotid lymph node and medial retropharyngeal lymph node.

123
Q

What is your Dx?

What treatment options would you consider?

A

Hyperostosis of the caudal mandible in a cat.

Debulking mass

Mandibulectomy

124
Q
A
125
Q

Riggio MP, Lennon A, Taylor DJ, Bennett D Molecular identification of bacteria associated with canine periodontal disease. Vet Microbiol. 2011 Jun 2;150(3-4):394-400. Found:

When using cultured methods: What were the three prevalent species in normal, gingivitis and periodontitis?

When using 16S rRNA gene sequencing: What were the prevelent species identified in normal, gingivitis and periodontitis?

A

Cultured group: The prevalent species identified:

normal : uncultured bacterium (12.5% of isolates),

gingivitis (Bacteroides heparinolyticus/Pasteurella dagmatis (10.0%)) and

periodontitis Actinomyces canis (19.4%), respectively.

16S rRNA gene sequence group:

Normal (Pseudomonas sp. (30.9% of clones analysed)), Gingivitis (Porphyromonas cangingivalis (16.1%)) and Periodontitis Desulfomicrobium orale (12.0%)

126
Q

What was the main finding in

Belgard S, Truyen U, Thibault JC, et al. Relevance of feline calicivirus, feline immunodeficiency virus, feline leukemia virus, feline herpesvirus and Bartonella henselae in cats with chronic gingivostomatitis.

A

FCV RNA was significantly more common in cats with chronic gingivostomatitis (53.8%, p < 0.001) than in controls (14.0%); a significant difference was also found in the prevalence of antibodies to FCV between the cats with chronic gingivostomatitis (78.8%, p = 0.023) and controls (58.0%). Of the other infectious agents investigated, there was no significant difference in the prevalence

127
Q

Fill in the blank:

According to Corbee RJ, Booij-Vrieling HE, van de Lest CH, et al. Inflammation and wound healing in cats with chronic gingivitis/stomatitis after extraction of all premolars and molars _______ affected by feeding of two diets with different omega-6/omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid ratios. J Anim Physiol Anim Nutr

A

Were not

. The diet with the 10:1 ratio lowered PGD(2) , PGE(2) and LTB(4) plasma levels significantly, compared to the diet with the 40:1 ratio (p = 0.05, p = 0.04, and p = 0.02 respectively). However, feeding diets with dietary ω6:ω3 PUFA ratios of 10:1 and 40:1, given to cats with FCGS for 4 weeks after extraction of all premolars and molars, did not alter the degree of inflammation or wound healing

128
Q

What is an appropriate treatment for overgrown cheek teeth in horses?

A

Overgrown equine CT should be gradually reduced, by a few millimeters at a time, over a prolonged period.

129
Q

IN Marshall R, Shaw DJ, Dixon PM A study of sub-occlusal secondary dentine (SO2D) thickness in overgrown equine cheek teeth. Vet J. 2011 Nov 21

Found that aggressive reduction of overgrown teeth to the level of adjacent normal-height teeth would cause occlusal pulp exposure in _____% of teeth.

What is the other risk to aggressive reduction?

A

58% would have pulp exposure (Of major clinical relevance was that the height of dental overgrowths was greater than SO2D thickness over one or more pulp horns in 14/24 overgrown teeth)

Pulpal thermal damage

130
Q

What is the ultimate fate of an osteoblast after making osteoid?

A

Osteoblasts may remain on the surface of the bone, undergo apoptosis, or become trapped in bone lacunae as osteocytes

131
Q

Where are osteoclasts found?

What is their origin?

Describe how they remove hydroxyapetite and organic matrix.

A

Osteoclasts/large multinucleated osteoclasts are found in Howship’s lacunae, during bone resorption.

Osteoclasts arise from hematopoietic cells of the monocyte/ macrophage lineage.

Osteoclasts creates a microenvironment (e.g. cathepsin K, MMP’s, H+) for bone resorption.

132
Q

Where is RANK expressed?

Where is RANKL expressed?

Where does OPG (Osteoprotegrin) get produced?

A

RANK is expressed on the plasma cell membranes of osteoCLAST precursor cells.

RANKL are expressed on the plasma cell membranes of osteoBLASTS.

OPG is produced by osteoBLASTS and act as decoy receptors by binding RANKL –> thereby preventing activation of RANK.

133
Q

What are the classifications of bone filling agents?

A

Options available for bone filling agents are classified as

autografts,

isografts,

allografts,

xenografts,

and alloplastic grafts.

134
Q

What are the classifications for GTR barrier materials?

A

Barriers used for GTR are classified as:

synthetic resorbable,

synthetic non-resorbable,

and natural biodegradable

135
Q

What are the benefits of having a GTR membrane?

A

Possible benefits, depending on the material, may include osteoconduction, osteoinduction, osteogenesis, clot stabilization, and structural support to the overlying membrane.

136
Q

According to Guided Tissue Regeneration for Infrabony Pocket Treatment in Dogs STEP-BY-STEP Wade Gingerich, DVM; Kevin Stepaniuk, DVM

Post op care includes:

What % chlorhexidine is prescribed and at what frequency and for how many days?

What antibiotic and dose is used and for how many days?

A

Postoperative analgesic and anti-inflammatory medications should be administered for 5 to 7-days.

Chlorhexidine oral rinse (0.12 %) is prescribed BID for a minimum of 2-weeks or until daily brushing is resumed.

Oral doxycycline (5-10mg/ kg PO BID) is recommended for 2-weeks.

137
Q

After bone augmenation and GTR, when is an appropriate time for repeat exam with probing and intraoral radiographs?

A

4-6 mo.

138
Q

Osteoallograft Periomix, Veterinary Transplant Services has what properties?

A

It is osteoconductive as it acts as a scaffold for new bone growth. Its source of cells and its bone morphogenic proteins make it possibly osteoinductive. It is not osteogenic since there are no viable live cells.

True osteogenisis could be achieved with the application of an autogenous bone graft that provides viable bone forming cells

RLM Vet dentistry flashcards (15 decks)

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