Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NTPE > Joint structure > Flashcards

Joint structure Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CPP of the vertebrae?

A

Full EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the OPP of the TMJ?

A

slightly opened jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the CPP of the TMJ?

A

Maximal RET (clenching teeth)

OR

Mouth maximally open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the OPP of the SC joint?

A

arm resting by the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the CPP of the SC joint?

A

Arm maximally ELEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the OPP of the AC joint?

A

arm resting by the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the CPP of the AC joint?

A

90 degrees ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the OPP of the GH joint?

A

55 degrees ABD
30 degrees Horiz. ADD

(Scapular plane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the CPP of the GH joint?

A

maximal ABD and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the OPP of the humeroulnar joint?

A

70 degrees FLX
10 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the CPP of the humeroulnar joint?

A

Full EXT and SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the OPP of the humeroradial joint?

A

Full EXT and SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the CPP of the humeroradial joint?

A

90 degrees FLX
5 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the OPP of the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

70 degrees FLX
35 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the CPP of the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

5 degrees supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the OPP of the distal radioulnar joint?

A

10 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the CPP of the distal radioulnar joint?

A

5 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the OPP of the radiocarpal and ulnocarpal joints?

A

neutral with slight UD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the CPP of the radiocarpal and ulnocarpal joints?

A

Full EXT and RD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the OPP of the midcarpal joints?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the CPP of the midcarpal joints?

A

EXT with UD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the OPP for CMC joints 2-5?

A

Neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the CPP for CMC joints 2-5?

A

Full thumb OPP
Full finger FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the OPP of the MCP and IP joints in the hand?

A

slight FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the CPP of the MCP joints?

A

Full thumb OPP
Full finger FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the CPP of the IP joints in the hand?

A

Full EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the OPP of the hip?

A

30 FLX
30 ABD
slight ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the CPP of the hip?

A

Full EXT, ABD, and IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the OPP of the knee?

A

25 degrees FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the CPP of the knee?

A

Full EXT and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the OPP of the talocrural joint?

A

neutral INV/EV
10 degrees PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the CPP of the talocrural joint?

A

full DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the OPP of the subtalar joint?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the OPP of the midtarsal joints?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the CPP of the subtalar joint?

A

Full INV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the CPP of the midtarsal joints?

A

Full SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the OPP for the TMT joints?

A

Neutral between PRON/SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the CPP for the TMT joints?

A

full SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the OPP for MTP joints?

A

neutral (10 degrees EXT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the CPP for MTP and IP joints?

A

Full EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the OPP for IP joints in the foot?

A

slight FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the TMJ?

A

Limited mouth opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the AO joint?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the AA joint?

A

ROT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the lower cervical spine (C3-T2)?

A

Limited in all motions EXCEPT FLX

SB = ROT >EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the GH joint?

A

ER > ABD > IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the SC and AC joints?

A

ELEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the humeroulnar and humeroradial joint?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the radioulnar joints?

A

PRON = SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the joints located in the wrist?

A

FLX = EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the midcarpal joints?

A

equal in all directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the trapeziometacarpal joint?

A

ABD > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of CMC 2-5?

A

equally restricted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the IP joints in the hand?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the T-spine?

A

SB and ROT > EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the L-spine?

A

SB and ROT > EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the hip?

A

IR/FLX > ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the knee?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the talocrural joint?

A

PF > DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the subtalar joint?

A

INV > EV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the midtarsal joints?

A

SUP > PRON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the 1st MTP joint?

A

EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the MTP joints 2-5?

A

FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the IP joints in the foot?

A

EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when the shoulder abductors are weakened?

A

use of Scapular stabilizers to initiate shoulder motion (Reverse Scapulothoracic rhythm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when hip abductors are weak?

A

use of Lateral trunk muscles or TFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when finger flexors are weak?

A

use of wrist extensors (Tendonesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when the pec major is weak?

A

use of LHOB, coracobrachialis, and anterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Orientation of the glenoid fossa forms true ABD at ____ degrees ANTERIOR to the frontal plane.

A

30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What portions of the clavicle at the SC joint are convex?

A

superior and inferior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What portions of the clavicle at the SC joint are concave?

A

anterior and posterior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where does the GH joint capsule attach?

A

glenoid margin, labrum, coracoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What portion of the GH joint capsule is the least supported?

A

Inferior portion –> more lax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The GH ligaments support what portions of the joint capsule?

A

anterior and inferior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What motions does the superior GH ligament restrict?

A

ER and inferior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What motions does the middle GH ligament restrict?

A

ER and anterior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What motions does the Anterior band of the inferior GH ligament restrict?

A

ER, anterior translation, superior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What motions does the posterior band of the inferior GH ligament restrict?

A

IR and anterior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe scapulohumeral rhythm.

A

Ratio of movement of the GH and ST joints

2:1 ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How much elevation occurs in the GH joint?

A

The first 30 to 60 degrees of elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the requirements for full elevation of the UE?

A
  • scapular stabilization
  • inferior humeral glide
  • ER
  • ROT of clavicle at SC joint
  • scapular ABD and lateral ROT at the AC joint
  • straightened t-spine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

At approx. 75 degrees of elevation in the UE, what occurs at the GH joint to prevent compression of the greater tubercle on the acromion?

A

ER

(“Conjunct ROT”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How are the trochlea and trochlear notch at the humeroulnar joint placed?

A

anteriorly at a 45 degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the radius at the humeroradial joint?

A

capitulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna at the humeroulnar joint?

A

trochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the main contributor to bony stability in the elbow complex?

A

articulation between the trochlea and ulna (humeroulnar joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The ulna (PRON/SUP) with elbow EXT

A

pronates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The ulna (PRON/SUP) with elbow FLX

A

supinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The proximal ulna glides (medially/laterally) during elbow extension

A

medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The proximal ulna glides (medially/laterally) during elbow FLX

A

laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The 1st metacarpal is concave in what directions?

A

medial/lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The 1st metacarpal is convex in what directions?

A

anterior/posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What movements does the dorsal radiocarpal ligament restrict?

A

FLX, PRON, and RD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What movements does the palmar ulnocarpal ligament restrict?

A

EXT and SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What movements does the palmar radiocarpal ligament restrict?

A

EXT and SUP in the knuckles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does the extensor hood in the hand provide?

A

Assistance with EXT of the IP joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the volar plates in the hand (palmar aspect of phalanx) provide?

A

increase articular surface during EXT and provides protraction

–> more mobile at MCP joints

98
Q

What portion of the hand does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

hypothenar region
1/2 of 4th digit

99
Q

What portion of the hand does the median nerve innervate?

A

remainder of palmar surface not innervated by the ulnar nerve
+
dorsal portions of 2nd, 3rd, and distal 1/2 of 4th digit

100
Q

During FLX/EXT at the 1st CMC joint, the first metacarpal is (concave/convext), moving on (concave/convex)

A

concave moving on convex

101
Q

During ABD/ADD at the 1st CMC joint, the first metacarpal is (concave/convext), moving on (concave/convex)

A

convex moving on concave

102
Q

During FLX and ABD at the 1st CMC joint, the 1st metacarpal rotates (radially/ulnarly) on the trapezium

A

ulnarly

103
Q

During EXT and ADD at the 1st CMC joint, the 1st metacarpal rotates (radially/ulnarly) on the trapezium

A

radially

104
Q

During wrist FLX, which way does the scaphoid/lunate glide in relation to the radius?

A

dorsally

105
Q

During wrist EXT, which way does the scaphoid/lunate glide in relation to the radius?

A

anteriorly

106
Q

During RD, which way does the proximal row of carpals glide?

A

ulnarly

107
Q

During UD, which way does the proximal row of carpals glide?

A

radially

108
Q

GH joint arthrokinematics occur in the (same/opposite) direction for roll and glide.

A

opposite

109
Q

What is the depression on the femoral head called?

A

fovea capitis femoris

110
Q

How is the femoral head oriented?

A

Superior, medial, anterior

111
Q

At the hip joint, articular cartilage covers the while femoral head except for where?

A

fovea

112
Q

What is the normal angle of inclination at the hip?

A

115-125

113
Q

definition: Angle of inclination > 125 at the hip

A

coxa valga

114
Q

definition: angle of inclination <115 at the hip

A

coxa vara

115
Q

The femoral neck is angled ___ degrees ANTERIORLY to form the anterior antetorsion angle

A

10-15 degrees anteriorly

116
Q

Anteversion of the hip is considered excessive when the femoral neck is placed ___-___ degrees anteriorly

A

25-30 degrees

117
Q

Retroversion of the hip is considered excessive when the femoral neck is less than ___ degrees anteriorly

A

< 10 degrees

118
Q

What is the orientation of the acetabulum?

A

lateral, inferior, anterior

119
Q

(true/false) the acetabulum is fully covered by cartilage

A

FALSE - horseshoe shaped cartilage and has a fat pad for shock absorption

120
Q

What forms the acetabular notch?

A

A small opening in between cartilage on the inferior aspect of the acetabulum

121
Q

What portion of the labrum in the hip is thickest?

A

superior

122
Q

Where does the iliofemoral ligament (Y Ligament) attach?

A

AIIS to intertrochanteric line (Medial to distal edge; lateral to proximal edge)

123
Q

What movements make the iliofemoral ligament taut?

A

EXT and ER

124
Q

What movements make the pubofemoral ligament taut?

A

EXT, ER, ABD

125
Q

Where does the ischiofemoral ligament connect?

A

ischium/posterior acetabulum to the greater trochanter

126
Q

What movements make the ischiofemoral ligament taut?

A

IR, ABD, EXT

127
Q

What movements test the gluteus medius and minimus?

A

ABD, FLX, IR

128
Q

What movements test the gluteus maximus?

A

EXT, ER

129
Q

What movements test the interossei of the foot?

A

Toe ABD/ADD

130
Q

What ligament running from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle forms a tunnel for muscles, arteries, veins and nerves to travel through?

A

Inguinal ligament

131
Q

What nerves provide innervation to the muscles of the hip?

A

Sciatic, femoral, obturator, superior gluteal

132
Q

hip joint arthrokinematics occur in the (same/opposite) direction for roll and glide.

A

opposite (convex on concave)

133
Q

What determines the patellar articular surface?

A

The patellar surface on the femur

134
Q

What movements make the MCL of the knee taut and loose?

A

Taut: EXT
Loose: FLX

135
Q

What does the MCL prevent?

A

ER and valgus forces

136
Q

The MCL runs in the same direction as what other ligament found in the knee complex?

A

ACL

137
Q

What movements of the knee make the LCL taut and loose?

A

Taut: EXT
loose: FLX

138
Q

What does the LCL prevent?

A

ER and varus forces

139
Q

Where does the ACL attach?

A

Anterior intercondylar fossa of the tibia and lateral condyle of the femur

140
Q

What does the ACL prevent?

A

Anterior translation of the tibia on the femur

Provides rotational stability

141
Q

Where does the PCL attach?

A

Posterior intercondylar fossa of the tibia to medial femoral condyle

142
Q

What does the PCL prevent?

A

posterior displacement of the tibia

143
Q

The meniscofemoral ligament runs with what other ligament?

A

PCL

–> has common attachment site at the medial femoral condyle

144
Q

definition: attaches below the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus

A

meniscofemoral ligament

145
Q

The oblique popliteal ligament inserts into the expansion of what muscular tendon?

A

semimembranosus

146
Q

What forms the floor of the popliteal fossa and is in contact with the popliteal anterior artery?

A

oblique popliteal ligament

147
Q

What ligament in the knee is a Y-shape?

A

Arcuate popliteal ligament

148
Q

What does the arcuate popliteal ligament provide?

A

Extends the lateral epicondyle of the femur and strengthens the posterolateral capsule

149
Q

What does the transverse ligament of the knee provide?

A

connects the menisci anteriorly

150
Q

What does the meniscopatellar ligament do?

A

pulls the menisci forward with EXT

151
Q

What does the alar fold in the knee do?

A

Keeps the patella in contact with the femur

152
Q

What does the infrapatellar fold do?

A

acts as a stop gap as it is compressed by the patellar tendon in full FLX

153
Q

What shape is the medial meniscus?

A

C-shaped

154
Q

What other structures does the medial meniscus attach to?

A

MCL, capsule, semimembranosus, medial meniscopatellar ligament

155
Q

Is the medial or lateral meniscus smaller?

A

lateral

156
Q

What is the shape of the lateral meniscus?

A

O-shape

157
Q

What structures attach to the lateral meniscus?

A

popliteus, lateral meniscopatellar ligament, meniscofemoral ligament

158
Q

What separates the LCL and the lateral meniscus?

A

popliteus muscle tendon

159
Q

The menisci follow the (tibia/femur) during FLX/EXT

A

tibia

160
Q

The menisci follow the (tibia/femur) during IR/ER

A

femur

161
Q

The medial meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during FLX

A

posteriorly

–> due to semimembranosus and ACL

162
Q

The medial meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during EXT

A

anteriorly

–> due to meniscopatellar ligament

163
Q

The lateral meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during FLX

A

posteriorly

–> due to popliteus

164
Q

The lateral meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during EXT

A

anteriorly

–> due to meniscopatellar ligament and meniscofemoral ligament

165
Q

What provides blood supply to the knee complex?

A
  1. descending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral branch of the deep femoral artery
  2. popliteal artery
  3. anterior tibial artery
166
Q

Articular innervation of the knee complex is provided by what nerve(s)?

A
  1. obturator
  2. femoral
  3. tibial
  4. common fibular
167
Q

During FLX, the medial condyle has pure rolling during the first __-__ degrees.

A

10-15

168
Q

During FLX, the lateral condyle has pure rolling during the first __ degrees.

A

20

169
Q

During FLX, the femoral condyles roll (anteriorly/posteriorly)

A

posteriorly

–> ACL is taut allowing condyles to glide posteriorly

170
Q

During EXT, the femoral condyles roll (anteriorly/posteriorly)

A

anteriorly

–> PCL is taut allowing condyles to glide anteriorly

171
Q

What is the normal range of knee FLX during walking?

A

15 degrees

–> using pure rolling motion of the femur on the tibia

172
Q

What is the screw-home mechanism?

A

The extra 5 degrees of tibial ER during terminal knee EXT

173
Q

Describe biomechanics at the proximal tibiofibular joint during DF at the talocrural joint.

A

Fibular head glides superiorly and posteriorly

Fibular shaft ROT externally

174
Q

Describe biomechanics at the proximal tibiofibular joint during PF at the talocrural joint.

A

Fibular head glides inferiorly and anteriorly

Fibular shaft ROT medially

175
Q

What forms the ankle mortise?

A
  1. medial malleolus
  2. lateral malleolus
  3. inferior transverse ligament
  4. tibiofibular ligament
  5. trochlear surface of talus
176
Q

What are the three articulations involved in the talocrural joint?

A
  1. tibiofibular
  2. tibiotalar
  3. fibulotalar
177
Q

The medial/lateral aspects of the talar trochlear surface are (convex/concave)

A

concave

178
Q

The trochlea of the talus is wider (anteriorly/posteriorly)

A

anteriorly

179
Q

The (medial/lateral) articular surface of the talar trochlea is almost flat

A

medial

180
Q

(true/false) When describing the anterior talocalcaneal articulation/joint functionally, the posterior portion of the navicular bone is included

A

True (Talocalcaneonavicular joint)

181
Q

At the talonavicular joint, the talus is (concave/convex) and the navicular is (concave/convex)

A

talus: convex

Navicular: concave

182
Q

At the calcaneocuboid joint, the anterior calcaneus is (concave/convex) medially and laterally

A

concave

183
Q

At the calcaneocuboid joint, the anterior calcaneus is (concave/convex) superiorly and inferiorly

A

convex

184
Q

What bone is key to the lateral arch of the foot? Why?

A

cuboid

–> The makes the saddle shape deeper when articulating with the inferior surface of the calcaneus

185
Q

What metatarsal is the largest and strongest?

A

1st

186
Q

The third metatarsal primarily articulates with which cuneiform?

A

third cuneiform (most Lateral cuneiform)

187
Q

Which metatarsal(s) articulate to the cuboid?

A

4th and 5th

188
Q

The anterior surface of the navicular bone is (concave/convex) to articulate with the 3 cuneiforms

A

concave – has 3 facets

189
Q

The ligaments at the talocrural joint are thicker ____.

A

laterally

190
Q

(true/false) the anterior and posterior subtalar joints share a joint capsule

A

FALSE

191
Q

The anterior subtalar joint capsule includes what other joint?

A

Talonavicular

192
Q

What are the medial collateral ligaments of the talocrural joint?

A

“Deltoid ligament”

  1. deep anterior talotibial
  2. superficial posterior talotibial
  3. deep posterior talotibial
  4. tibiocalcaneonavicular
193
Q

What are the lateral collateral ligaments of the talocrural joint?

A
  1. anterior talofibular
  2. posterior talofibular
  3. calcaneofibular
194
Q

What ligament is called the spring ligament?

A

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

195
Q

The plantar fascia becomes taut with what movement?

A

DF of MTP joints

–> ex: during push-off phase

(“windlass effect”)

196
Q

What does the tightening of the plantar fascia cause?

A
  • SUP of calcaneus
  • INV of subtalar joint
197
Q

During DF –> PF, the talus rotates medially __ degrees

A

30 degrees

198
Q

Slight side-slide gliding and ABD/ADD are permitted when the foot is in (PF/DF) at the talocrural joint

A

PF

199
Q

Which bone of the foot can move in many directions due to having multiple articulations?

A

calcaneus

200
Q

Where are uncinate joints located in the spine?

A

C3-C7

201
Q

What do uncinate joints limit?

A

Lateral Cx movement

202
Q

What is the shape of t-spine vertebral bodies?

A

heart

203
Q

What is the shape of l-spine vertebral bodies?

A

kidney

204
Q

Prominent spinous processes are angled following what rule?

A

Rule of 3s

205
Q

Describe the rule of 3s in the T-spine.

A

T1-T3: SP at the same level as the TP of the vertebra

T4-T6: SP is 1/2 level lower than the TP

T7-T9: SP is one full level lower than the TP

T10: SP one full level below TP

T11: SP 1/2 lower than TP

T12: SP even with TP

206
Q

The surface of superior and inferior processes are (flat/curved) in cervical and thoracic regions.

A

flat

207
Q

The surface of superior and inferior processes are (flat/curved) in the lumbar region.

A

can be flat or curved

208
Q

What kind of joint is the SIJ?

A

Syndesmosis (diarthrosis)

209
Q

The annulus fibrosis is ___% water.

A

65%

210
Q

The Nucleus pulposis is __% water.

A

70-90%

211
Q

What makes of 20-33% of the vertebral column’s height?

A

Nucleus pulposis

212
Q

What portion of the annulus fibrosis is innervated?

A

outer 1/3

213
Q

(true/false) The nucleus pulposis has blood and nerve supply.

A

FALSE

214
Q

What does the alar ligament limit?

A
  1. FLX
  2. contralateral SB
  3. contralateral ROT
215
Q

What does the anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) do?

A

Reinforces the anterolateral portion of the vertebral column.

216
Q

What does the alar ligament connect?

A

Dens to occipital condyles

217
Q

Where does the ALL and PLL run?

A

C2 to sacrum

218
Q

What does the PLL do?

A

limits FLX and reinforces the posterior aspect of the vertebral column.

219
Q

What is the extension of the PLL once it goes above C2?

A

Tectorial membrane

220
Q

What does the tectorial membrane limit?

A

FLX

221
Q

What muscles are tested with inspiration?

A
  1. diaphragm
  2. levator costarum
  3. external intercostals
  4. anterior internal intercostals
222
Q

What muscles are tested with forced expiration?

A
  1. internal obliques
  2. transverse abdominis
  3. external obliques
  4. posterior internal intercostals
  5. rectus abdominis
223
Q

What movement tests the psoas minor?

A

Trunk FLX

224
Q

What muscles are tested with spine ROT?

A
  1. intertransversarii
  2. obliques
  3. transversospinalis
225
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum attach to?

A

The lamina of each vertebra below C2

226
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum limit?

A

FLX

227
Q

Costotransverse ligaments support the costotransverse joint capsules of what ribs?

A

1-10

228
Q

What does the anterior SI ligament do?

A

thickens the anterior capsule of the SIJ

229
Q

What does the sacrotuberous ligament limit?

A

anterior ROT and superior translation of the sacrum

230
Q

What does the posterior interosseous ligament limit?

A

motions in all directions

231
Q

What joint capsules are the strongest in the spine?

A

facet joint capsules

232
Q

What rami form the cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexus?

A

ventral rami

233
Q

At what level do the cervical spinal nerves leave the vertebral column via foramina?

A

above the verteral level that they’re associated with

234
Q

At what level do the thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves leave the vertebral column via foramina?

A

below the vertebral level that they’re associated with

235
Q

The conus medullaris is found where?

A

L1-L2

236
Q

SB and ROT occur in the (same/different) direction from C2-C7 regardless of whether the spine is in neutral or not.

A

same direction

237
Q

Describe lumbopelvic rhythm with flexion.

A

During spinal flexion, the spine goes through 60-70 degrees of motion and then the pelvis will anteriorly rotate to allow more movement.

–> FLX of the hips will eventually follow

238
Q

Describe lumbopelvic rhythm with extension.

A

During EXT, the hips will extend, the pelvis rotates posteriorly, and then the spine begins to extend

239
Q

Where does nutation and counternutation occur?

A

SIJ during gait

240
Q

definition: describes a movement that involves FLX of the sacrum and posterior ROT of the ilium

A

nutation

241
Q

definition: describes a movement that involves EXT of the sacrum and anterior ROT of the ilium

A

counternutation

NTPE (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions