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INTRO TO AVIATION MASTER LIST > intro_to_aviation_block_1_20180401181911 > Flashcards

intro_to_aviation_block_1_20180401181911 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the objective for Airport and VFR control services?

A

to maintain a safe flow of air traffic operating under the control of the control tower

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2
Q

what does the ground controller at an airport do

A

issues instructions to a pilot on what taxi way to take and safely make it to the runway, where it will be turned to a airport controller

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3
Q

what does the airport controller do

A

the airport controller clears the aircraft for takeoff, once it is airborne, the aircraft is then switched to the terminal controller

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4
Q

what is the order of control on arrival in a terminal air space

A

on arrival the terminal controller passes the pilot to the airport controller (10 nautical miles), once it is off the runway and on the taxiway it is then transferred to the ground controller for instructions on how to get to the gate.

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5
Q

what is VFR

A

Visual flight rules, tower and ground

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6
Q

What is IFR

A

Instrument flight rules, Area control service and terminal control service

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7
Q

What does AMIS stand for

A

Aircraft Movement Information service

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8
Q

What does ADIZ

A

Air defence identification zone

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9
Q

Explain the process of ADIZ

A

any flight passing through the ADIZ must be identified, where its going, and who it is, then the information is passes to NORAD, if it is of special interest or the prime minister the military is alerted and will track the flight

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10
Q

What is alerting service

A

when a flight plan is filed ( VFR or IFR) alerting services are provided, the progress of the flight is being monitored and if something should go wrong, search and rescue crash equipment, ambulances or another service are called upon to help

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11
Q

flight information service

A

information that ATCs have that could help the pilot, examples are giving wind shear advisory on the runway or IFR passing traffic information

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12
Q

altitude reservation service

A

services provided by ARE, ARW and ACCs to provide reserved altitudes for specified air operations in controlled airspace, and provide information concerning these reservation in controlled and uncontrolled airspace

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13
Q

What is MATS

A

Manual of air traffic services, contains the rules procedures and separation minima for the controller to follow. It is published and maintained by nav canada MATS

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14
Q

ATSAMM

A

Air traffic services administration and management manual, managers use this manual to administer and manage ATS units. It is published and maintained by nav canada and contains polices, standards and criteria, controllers on occasion will refer to this manual.

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15
Q

TC AIM

A

this reference is used by pilots and controllers, deals with rules of the air and procedures for aircraft operating in canadian airspace

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16
Q

CARs

A

contains the aviation regulations and standards for civil aviation in canada. it supports and expands upon the aeronautics act and is published and maintained by TC (transport canada)

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17
Q

what does CDA

A

Canadian domestic airstapce

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18
Q

What are the two ways that canada is divided up laterally

A

The two ways that canada is divided up laterally are southern domestic airspace (SDA) and northern Domestic airspace (NDA)

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19
Q

What is the two ways canada is divided up vertically

A

The other way CDA is divided up is vertically, low level (below 18 000 feet ASL) and High level airspace (from 18 000 feet ALS and above.

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20
Q

What does FIR stand for

A

Flight information region

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21
Q

what are the seven FIRs in Canada

A

Vancouver, Edmonton, Winnipeg, Toronto, montreal, moncton and gander

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22
Q

What is controlled airspace

A

airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC are provided and within some or all aircraft may be subject to air controllers

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23
Q

What is the three areas in controlled high level airspace

A

Southern control area (SCA) Northern control area (NCA) arctic control area (ACA)

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24
Q

In SCA what altitudes are controlled

A

Flight level 18000 ASL and above is controlled/ all high level is controlled

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25
Q

In NCA what levels are controlled

A

FL 23 000 and above is controlled, anything below FL230 is uncontrolled

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26
Q

in ACA what levels of altitude are controlled

A

FL270 and above is controlled, anything below is uncontrolled

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27
Q

control zones (Read over)

A

(CZ) around aerodromes to keep IFR aircraft within controlled airspace during approaches and to facilitate the control of VFR and IFR traffic. Their dimensions are between 3 and 7 NM radius and usually capped at approimetly 3000 feet AAE (Above aerodrome elevation)

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28
Q

Military control zones (READ OVER)

A

usually have 10 NM radius and capped at 6000 feet AAE

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29
Q

Terminal Control area (READ OVER)

A

are only at high volume traffic air ports to provide an IFR control services to arriving, departing and en rout aircraft. The outer limit of a TCA (terminal control area) is normal 45 NM radius from the aerodrome with a base point at 9500’ AGL. An intermediate circle at 35 NM based at 2200’ AGL and an inner circle at 12 NM radius based at 1200’ AGL. The upper level of the TCA may extend into high level airspace.

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30
Q

Military terminal control area (READ OVER)

A

a military terminal control area is the same as a TCA, except that special provisions prevail for military aircraft while operating in the MTCA

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31
Q

Transition area (READ OVER)

A

these areas are established when it is considered necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the containment of IFR operations. this is so IFR aircraft will stay in controlled airspace while dinging an instrument approach, the dimensions of the transition areas are a radius of 15 NM based at 700’ AGL, extending upward to the base of overlying controlled airspace.

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32
Q

what is a control area extension

A

these are designated around aerodromes where the controlled airspace provided is insufficient to permit required operation between IFR arrivals and departures and to contain IFR traffic within controlled air space.

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33
Q

What is a low level airway

A

controlled low level airspace extending upwards from 2 200 AGL up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL with the following specified boundaries; VHF/UHF (the basic VHT/UHF airway width is 4NM on each side of the centre line) and LF/MF (the basic LF/MF airway width is 4.34 NM on each side of the centre line.

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34
Q

what is a High level airway

A

In controlled high level airspace a prescribed track between radio aids to navigation

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35
Q

What is Controlled airspace

A

airspace that in it ATC services are provided and within which some or all aircraft may be subjected to ATC. (Depending on the classification of the airspace, not all aircraft are subject to ATC)

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36
Q

Where is the Altimeter setting region

A

all low level air space within the SDA

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37
Q

Where is the standard pressure region

A

All CDA that is not designated as the altimeter setting region i.e. All high level airspace and low level air space in the NDA

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38
Q

what is the standard pressure to set altimeters too

A

standard pressure of 29.92 inches of murcury, or 1013.2 millibars.

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39
Q

Procedures in transition between regions states that unless told by ATC

A

aircrafts shall make the change in the altimeter setting while within the standard pressure region prior to entering, or leaving, the altimeter setting region.

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40
Q

In mountain regions BC and Nunavit, what FL must the aircraft maintain

A

aircraft must maintain an altitude of at least 2000 ft. above the highert obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft.

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41
Q

In eastern mountain regions, what FL must the aircraft maintain

A

In regions 2,3 and 4 an aircraft must maintain an altitude of at least 1500 ft. above the highest obstacle obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft

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42
Q

How wide are runways

A
  • Runways must be at least 150’ or 200’ wide. some private fields have narrower runways
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43
Q

how wide are taxiways usually

A

usually not less then 75 feet wide with extra width on turns. They are normally identified by a letter, or at busier airports, by letter/number combinations

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44
Q

What is the apron

A

the area where the passengers are loaded and unloaded, the gates are located here and cargo is loaded in this location as well.

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45
Q

What is the maneuvering area

A

is the part of the aerodrome intended to be used for taking off and landing of aircraft, and movement , excluding the apron. (the runways, intersections and taxiway)

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46
Q

What is the movement area

A

is the part of the aerodrome intended to be use for the surface movement of aircraft. (includes the manuevouring area and apron)

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47
Q

Intersections

A

as the circumstances require, this area can be the point were two runways, a runway and a taxi way, or two taxiways cross or meet.

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48
Q

how are the numbers rounded

A

The numbers on runways are always rounded to the nearest 10 degrees (so 057 degrees would be 06, 148 -> 15, 328->33)

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49
Q

what speed is the windsock fully horizontal

A

15 knots or more

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50
Q

what is the definition of nigth

A

period of time during any day that stats at the end of evening civil twilight and ends at the start of morning civil twilight

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51
Q

What are runway id lights (RILS)

A

white lights, 40 feet each side of runway edge, 100 feet in front or runway threshold. These are provided at aerodromes where terrain precludes the installation of approach lights or where unrelated non earonautical lights or the lack of daytime contrast reduces the effects of approach lights.

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52
Q

Runway threshold end lights

A

red and green lights units in the form of wing bars along the threshold of each side of the runway cernterling. except for CAT II runways the red and green lights extend along the rules width of the runway, Red=direction of takeoff, Green=direction of approach

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53
Q

Run way edge lights

A

white lights at the edge of the full legnth of runway. They are spaced at 200 foot intervals, excepts at intersections of other runways

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54
Q

Runway Centre Line Lighting

A

consist of variable intensity lights installed 50 feet apart. the lights are white to a point 3000ft from the runway end. They change to white and red until 1000 feet, then at the runway end they turn fully red.

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55
Q

Runway touchdown zone lighting

A

white lights that are on CAT II instrument runways. They are spaced 100Ft apart, and are three bars of three lights on each side, extend 3000 feet down the runway, starting at 100 feet from the threshold.

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56
Q

The rapid exit taxiway lights

A

The rapid exit taxiway lights are green in colour and are installed on the runway surface commencing approximately 200 feet before the turn and continuing the rapid exit taxiway to 200 feet beyond the turn

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57
Q

Taxiway lighting

A

the taxiway edge lights are blue in colour and spaced at 200 foot intervals. where a taxi way intersects another exiway or a runway, two adjacent blue lights are placed at each side of the taxiway, and where the entrance to the apron is indicated by two adjacent yellow lights at the apron corner. The centre light taxi lights are green and are spaced at 200 feet intervals

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58
Q

Obstruction lights

A

these are light that are installed on obstructions in order to warn pilots of a potential collision the required intensity for these lights is based on the an “aqquisition distance” from which the pilot would recognize the lighting, identify it as an obstruction and be able to initiate evasive action to miss the obstruction by at least 600M

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59
Q

The approach lighting

A

extends from the centreline of the runway back alone to approach path. this is to help the pilot to align the aircraft with the runway. There are various types of approach light systems

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60
Q

What are the 6 parts in a circuit

A

departure and overshoot path, the upwind side, the cross wind legs, the downwind leg, the base leg, the final approach leg

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61
Q

Aircraft approaching the active runwyafom the upwind side are to join the downwind leg abeam ….

A

a point approximitly midway between each each end of the runway, taking into account craft performance, wind and or runway length.

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62
Q

Nordo is

A

an aircraft flying without radio

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63
Q

ronly is

A

an aircraft flying with receiver only

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64
Q
  • Pilots are not to operate at speed greater the 200 It below 3000 Ft AGL and within 10 NM of controlled aerodromes
A
  • Pilots are not to operate at speed greater the 200 It below 3000 Ft AGL and within 10 NM of controlled aerodromes
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65
Q
  • Taking off and departing the circuit, climb straight ahead on the runway heading until clear of the traffic circuit. any turn while operating in the traffic circuit should be made to the left (except when a right hand circuit is in effect). You may make a right hand turn once the aircraft is well beyond the circuit area
A
  • Taking off and departing the circuit, climb straight ahead on the runway heading until clear of the traffic circuit. any turn while operating in the traffic circuit should be made to the left (except when a right hand circuit is in effect). You may make a right hand turn once the aircraft is well beyond the circuit area
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66
Q
  • Be aware that at controlled airports without specific departure instructions from the ATC an itinerant pilot may do any turn after departure
A
  • Be aware that at controlled airports without specific departure instructions from the ATC an itinerant pilot may do any turn after departure
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67
Q

What does CISM stand for

A

Critical Incident Stress Management

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68
Q

What is CISM

A

in a perfect world everyone would follow separation minima, when it is not followed this is called loss of separation.

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69
Q

When a loss of separation occurs it could be considered an…

A

ATS operating irregularity

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70
Q

What is separation Minimum

A

is the least amount of lateral and longitudinal or vertical distance applied between aircraf

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71
Q

The actual number representing minimum separation will vary depending on factors such as services provided and what type of airspace is being flown into

A

re read

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72
Q

What is a ATS OI

A

when a situation occurs and an investiagation indicates that a hazardous situation or a loss of separation may have occurred.

73
Q

What is a non ATS OI

A

is when a situation occurs when ATS are being provided and an investigation indicates that Nav Canada ATS ad not contributed to the negative outcome

74
Q

What is critical incident stress

A

Critical Incident stress is when an unexpected even occurs which may result in loss of seperation, the stress levels may reach their highest

75
Q

What are physical signs of CIS

A

Nausea, sweating, increases heart rate and blood pressure, difficulty breathing and headaches

76
Q

What are Thinking signs of CIS

A

poor concentration and confusion

77
Q

What are Emotional signs of CIS

A

Anxiety, guilt and fear, greed and hopelessness

78
Q

What are Behaviour signs of CIS

A

Irritable, withdrawn, resentful, moody

79
Q

CIS management

A

program put in place to help normal people accelerate the normal reaction to CIS

80
Q

What is the longatidinal reference line that runs through the greenwich observatory in england

A

the prime meridian

81
Q

latitude

A

parallel circles around the earths surface, one degrees of separation is equal to 60 NM

82
Q

Small circle

A

a circle on the surface of a sphere, who plane does not pass through the centre of the sphere

83
Q

equator

A

a great circle that is drawn equidistant from both poles and divides the earth into the northern and southern hemispheres

84
Q

Longitude

A

semi-great cirlse that join the poles of the earth and run in a north- south direction

85
Q

great circle

A

is a plane that passes through the centre of a sphere, whose radius is equal to that of the sphere which divide the sphere into two equal parts

86
Q

What is 83 degrees north latitude

A

top of canada

87
Q

What is 42 degrees north latitude

A

bottom of canada, south extreme, point pelee

88
Q

What is 49 degrees north latitude

A

US Canadien border, 49th parallel

89
Q

What is 52 degrees west longitude

A

east extreme landmass in Canada

90
Q

What is 141 degrees west longitude

A

Canada/alaska border

91
Q

What are the six time zones in canada

A
  • pacific standard time- mountain standered time- central standard time - eastern standard time- atlantic standarnd time - newfoundland standard time
92
Q

12:00 PM1200 hours1:50 PM1350 hours 6:00 AM0600 hours5:30 AM0530 hours 6:00 PM1800 hoursMidnight0000 hours

A

thing to kniw

93
Q

NSTUTC - 3.5 hoursASTUTC - 4 hoursEST(kvil)UTC - 5 hoursCSTwpUTC - 6 hoursMSTUTC - 7 hoursPSTUTC - 8 hours

A

to know

94
Q

what is north east south and west on the compass rose in degrees

A

North = 0 degreesEast = 90 south = 180west = 270

95
Q

uadrantal points are north east, south east, south west and north west.

A

NE= 45SE= 135SW= 225NW= 315

96
Q

true north (READ OVER)

A

is the geographical position of the north, it never changes, it is the top of the globe, and it is why charts use it as a reference point. it is recorded using “T” followed by the numbers, for example true south is recorded as 180 degrees T

97
Q

Magnetic north (READ OVER)

A

earth acts as one huge magnet, the magnetic poles are where the magnetic force emanates from. This is the location the north seeking end of a magnet points to. Everything is considered magnetic degrees less specified by letter.

98
Q

Compass North (READ OVER)

A

when a compass is installed in an aircraft the direction indicated by the compass is affected by different magnetic influences which radiate from metallic and electrical equipment onboard the aircraft. Due to these influences the aircraft compass doesn’t read magnetic north. the letter C is used when compass readings are given.

99
Q

Variation is?

A

is the angular distance between the direction of true north and magnetic north at a given point on the surface of the earth. This is either called easterly or westerly

100
Q

Deviation is?

A

is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north for a specific aircraft. In order to compensate for the deviation cause by the aircraft, the compass will have and adjustment so compass north can be altered to match magnetic north.

101
Q
  • Variation and deviation is ______ when calculated if it is being deviated to the west and it is ______ if deviated to the east
A

added, subtracted

102
Q

Bearing is?

A

(azimuth) is the horizontal direction to or from any point as seen by the observer, usually measured clock wise from true north, magnetic north or some other reference point through 360 degrees.

103
Q

Heading is?

A
  • Heading is the direction in which in the longitude axis of an aircraft is pointing, usually expressed in degrees from north (magnetic true or compass)
104
Q

True bearings

A
  • True bearings, measured clockwise from true north
105
Q

Magnetic bearings

A

measure clockwise from magnetic north

106
Q

compass bearings

A

measured clockwise from compass north

107
Q

Realative bearings

A

measured clockwise from the heading of the aircraft

108
Q

1 NM =

A

6080 feet

109
Q

1 Knot =

A

one Nm per hour

110
Q

what are the four measures of airspeed

A
  • Indicated Air speed- True air speed- Ground speed- mach number
111
Q

Indicated air speed

A

(IAS) is the speed in knots indicated on the air speed indicator

112
Q

True air speed

A

(TAS) is the actual speed in knots moving through the air. corrected for various errors

113
Q

Ground speed

A

(GS) is the speed in knots over the ground

114
Q

mach number

A

is the percentage of the speed of sound at a particular altitude and temperature. For example M.82 is 82% of the speed of sound

115
Q

Distance measuring equipment

A

relieves the pilot of time consuming chores of plotting, measuring and computing to determine ground speed and distance from destination info

116
Q

Non directional beacons

A

NDBs and broadcast stations are beacons that on which pilots can home or from which they can obtain a fix, if the aircraft is equipped with automatic direction finding (ADF) equipment.

117
Q

(VOR)

A

VHF omnidirectional range navigation system has made flight between VOR stations as simples as following a highway.

118
Q

NBD (READ OVER)

A
  • Used for unroute nav, holding facility, IFR approach, Fix determination- they are limited because they are subject to weather interference - not as accurate as some nav aids, so higher approach limits - can range 25 miles most of them anyways- frequency range of NDBs are 190-415 KHz and 510-535 KHz (just below commercial am radio)
119
Q

Homing is when

A

the pilot keeps the head of the ADF needle at the zero degree position or straight ahead and will eventually drive there but due to wind drift this will not result in the fasted route

120
Q

Tracking

A

is the process of adjusting for wind drift and flying a more direct route to the station

121
Q

VORs (READ OVER)

A
  • forms the backbone for modern air navigation in north america, and most of the world- VORs operate in the frequency band from 112.1 to 117.9 MHZ (just above commercial FM)- Used for Enroute nav, holding FIX,IFR approach, determination of intersection- Advantages include, Little interference, 360 degrees, accuracy +/- 2 degrees, easy to use, good reception distance- Some disadvantages are line of sight charactaritsucs, interference with radio transmitters
122
Q

Distance Measuring equipment (READ OVER)

A
  • useful for IFR pilots, as it tells the distance from the transmitter. This info is useful when flying enrolee or during an instrument approach, where accurate position information is required. DME equipment consist of both ground and airborne equipment- longitudinal separation between IFR can be reduced to 20 Nm (where radar is not available)- provides information to pilot continuously- provides DME arcs to an IFR approach, removing the need for procedure turns- dme positions on non precision approaches results in lower limits because exact position on final can be determined- The distance calculated is the slant range
123
Q

Instrument Landing System (ILS) (READ OVER)

A
  • approach aid that has been poplar since the 50s- could help land in 200 ft ceilings and .5 mile visabilities. - Current tech permits landing with 0 vis and 0 ceiling - The ILS is a VHF NAVAID with a frequency band between 108.1 and 111.9 Mhz. The localizer (which provides azimuth information is paired with a UHF glide path frequency.- The localizer transmits a beam in the opposite direction from the airport, this is called the back course. to fly in this localizer signal, reverse sensing is used and the pilot flies away from the CDI (Course deviation indicator- the vertical needle) in order to painting the centre line.- The localizer, provides lateral guidance, actually leading the pilot down the extended runway centreline. on a front course approach, the pilot flies to the needle. on a back course the pilot flies away from the needle- Glide path, Provides vertical guidance, and takes the aircraft to a point about 1200’ down the runway- NDB/DME, when the pilot flies over an NDB and checks the chart, they will know how far it is to the runway. where available DME information on the localizer will tell the pilot how far it is to the runway.
124
Q

Critical areas

A
  • there is a designated area around the localizer and glide path antennae. andy vehicle present in the area could distort the signals being sent to the aircraft. as a result vehicles are kept away from these critical areas when approaches are in progress
125
Q

Tolerances

A
  • there localizer can normally be used to a distance of 25 miles. The signal is only 5 degrees wide, which makes it 4 times more sensitive than a VOR radial. the glide path has width of only 1.4 degrees so it is very narrow and thus provides an accurate decent path
126
Q

Identification

A
  • the mores code letter I is normally transmitted right after the code for the airport that the ILS serves
127
Q

Managing the eqpuipment- Approve shutdown if

A

pprove shutdown if there is no IFR traffic in or about to enter are affected by shut down, there is IFR traffic in that can use other available facilities, or if terminal and enrolee IFR traffic can be controlled safely and efficiently by using other available facilities

128
Q

Delay the shut down if

A
  • Delay the shut down if terminal or enrolee IFR traffic cannot be controlled safely and efficiently by using other facilities for a short period of time, or if a pilot or operator has indicated a requirement to have the facility on the air for a specified, short period of time
129
Q

Disapprove the shut down

A
  • Disapprove the shut down if, terminal or enrolee IRF traffic cannot be controlled safely and efficiently by using other facilities for an extended period of time , or if a request has been received to have a facility left on the air for an extended period of time
130
Q

TOC (technical operation Co-ordinator)

A
  • the TOC (technical operation Co-ordinator) is the central reporting agency for all malfunctions, outages and failure of any electronic equipment used in ANS
131
Q

Frequency

A

The number of cycles in a given time, generally expressed in terms of cycles per second or hertz

132
Q

Wave length

A

is the physical measurement between crest to crest for waves

133
Q

Very low frequency (VLF

A

> 30 kHz and measured in meters

134
Q

Low frequency (LF)

A

30-300 kHz and measured in meters

135
Q

Medium frequency (MF)

A

300-30000 kHz measured in meters

136
Q

high frequency (HF)

A

3000-30 000 kHz measured in meters

137
Q

Very high frequency (VHF)

A

30-300 Mhz and measured in cm

138
Q

Ultra High frequency (UHF)

A

300-3000 MHz measured in cm

139
Q

30 kHz = 30 000 Hz3 000 Mhz = 3 000 000 000 Hz

A

30 kHz = 30 000 Hz3 000 Mhz = 3 000 000 000 Hz

140
Q

LF, MF and HF proporties:

A

Ground waves follows surface of earth- these waves bend with the curvature of the earth due to diffraction Sky waves;- travel up into the atmosphere then are reflected back into the earth by ionosphere. this can sometimes result in sky waves being heard farther then ground waves

141
Q

VHF and UHF proporties

A
  • These waves do not bend they will be within the line of sight and will travel right into space.- the higher the altitude of the aircraft, the greater the distance at which it will be abe to receive WHF signals, stations below the horizon only a few hundred KMs apart cannot interfere with each other
142
Q

LF/MF, 30-3000kHz

A

non-directional beacons (NDBs) and commercial broadcasting

143
Q

HF, 3000-30000kHz

A

used for northern areas, primarily long range communications

144
Q

VHF,30-300 MHz

A

Primarily ATS band for air/ground communications, also for ILS localizer and VOR

145
Q

UHF, 300-3000 MHz

A

used for military Air/ground communications, ATS and defence radar, DME, TACAN, and ILS glide path, the military is phasing the use of UHF ground/air communications in favour of VHF

146
Q

Frequency Prodected Service Volume (FPSV),

A

agreements as to the “volume of airspace’ particular frequencies will serve, are reached with all regulatory agencies and users in north america, the volume is then protected by the agreement and is referred to as the Frequency Prodected Service Volume (FPSV).

147
Q

Data link concept (READ OVER)

A

extends the information super highway to aviation, expanding the exchange of information through digital communications. the availibility of information in the cockpit and the reliability and efficiancy of communications between pilots and airspace managers are greatly enhanced through this space age telecommunications network. This allows messages, requests and ATC clearances to be displayed with to pilots and ATC in sexual form, eliminating the reliance on copying voice communication.

148
Q

The data Link communication infastructure includes

A
  • mode S secondary surveillance radar - Communication satellites - VHF data links
149
Q

Mode S secondary servalence Radar

A

Provides Two way communications capability for air traffic, flight info and survalence services. In mode S, each aircraft is affresed individually. It gives ID, altitude and data. The opportunity to send data back and forth allows controllers, through their computer network to keep track of aircrafts position and route

150
Q

Satellite communications (SATCOM)

A

is used for communications in oceanic environment and in remote locations

151
Q

VHF data Link

A

Widely used for aircraft operations and for limited flight information and ATS, such as pre departure clearance, ATIS info, altimeter info, runway assignments etc. Graphical weather service provides weather graphics info derived from ground based weather radar. The information is displayed on a cockpit control and display unit.

152
Q

What are the flight rules of class A airspace

A

-IFR only, no VFR aircraft permitted-all aircraft subjected to ATC clearance and instruction-ATC separation provided to all aircraft-aircraft must be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

153
Q

What is the dimensions of class A airspace

A

extended from FL 180, up to and including FL 600

154
Q

What are the flight rules of class B airspace

A

-Both IFR and VFR flights permitted -all aircraft are subject to ATC clearance and instructions-ATC separation provided to all air craft -control zones and associated terminal control areas may also be in class B airspace, there are none in canada

155
Q

What is the dimensions of class B airspace

A

All low level controlled airspace above 12500 ASL, or at and above the MEA (minimum enroute Altitude) Wichever is higher, up to but not including 18000 ASL

156
Q

What are the flight rules of class C airspace

A
  • Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted - VFR flights require ATC clearance to enter Class C airspace- ATC separation provided to all IFR air traffic- All aircraft will be provided with air traffic information - ATC will provide conflict resolution between IFR and VFR flights upon request- Class C airspace becomes Class E airspace when the appropriate ATC in not an option
157
Q

What is the dimensions of class C airspace

A

Control zones and associated terminal control areas may be class C airspace

158
Q

What are the flight rules of class D airspace

A
  • Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted - VFR flights must establish two- way communication with etc agency prior to entering class d - ATC separation provided to all IFR aircraft- all aircraft will be provided with air traffic information- equipment and workload permitting, ATC will provide conflict resolution between IFR and VFR flights and upon request between VFR aircraft.- Class D airspace becomes class E airspace when the appropriate ATC unit is not an option
159
Q

What is the dimensions of class D airspace

A
  • control zones and associated terminal control areas may be class D airspace.
160
Q

What are the flight rules of class E airspace

A
  • Class e airspace exists where an operations; need exists for controlled airspace, but does not meet the requirements for class A, B, C or D airspace - both IFR and VFR operations are permitted - ATC separation provided to only IFR aircraft - No special requirements for VFR- Aircraft are requited to be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude equipment to operate in class E airspace that is specified as transponder airspace
161
Q

What is the dimensions of class E airspace

A
  • Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones may be classified as class E air space- all airspace above FL 600 may be class E airspace
162
Q

What are the flight rules of class F airspace

A
  • Activities and flight rules are defined by the specialized activities being conducted - when class F airspace in inactive it will assume the rules of the surrounding airspace
163
Q

What is the dimensions of class F airspace

A
  • Airspace of differed dimensions are specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook and published on appropriate aeronautical charts
164
Q

What are the flight rules of class G airspace

A
  • No ATC services provided, ATC has neither authority or responsibility for control over air traffic - flight information services and alerting services are provided
165
Q

What is the dimensions of class G airspace

A
  • all uncontrolled domestic airspace
166
Q

What is Class F Advisory airspace

A

Airspace within which an activity occurs that for flight safety purposes, non participating pilots should be aware of, such as training areas, parachuting, hang gliding, military operations etc

167
Q

What is class F restricted airspace

A

airspace of defined dimensions above land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions

168
Q

De coding class F air space EX. [CY][A][113][(a)]

A
  • Part one is the nation (the first two letters indicate the country, canada is CY)- part two is the type, Either A for advisory or R for restricted- Part three is the region code (see region code slides)- Part four is the activity, A for acrobatic, F for aircraft test area, H for hanfggliding, M for military operations, P for parachuting, S for soaring and T for training.
169
Q

what are low level air routes

A
  • Low level air routes, similar to low level airways (same lateral dimensions) except that they begin at the surface of the earth and not 2200 AGL and are uncontrolled
170
Q

what is the region code for BC

A

101-199

171
Q

what is the region code for AB

A

201-299

172
Q

what is the region code for SK

A

301-399

173
Q

what is the region code for MB

A

401-499

174
Q

what is the region code for ON

A

501-599

175
Q

what is the region code for Atlantic provinces

A

701-799

176
Q

what is the region code for Yukon territory

A

801-899

177
Q

what is the region code for north west territorys

A

901-999

178
Q

what is the region code for QB

A

601-699

INTRO TO AVIATION MASTER LIST (11 decks)

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