Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paediatrics > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

When are Koplik spots found?

A

Measles

24-48 hours before the exanthem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the stages of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

A
  1. Dementia
  2. Epilepsy and myoclonus
  3. Decerebration (increased tone, vegetative state, coma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment for scabies?

A

Permethrin

Wash all clothing and linen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are renal ultrasounds indicated for UTIs?

A

Severe UTI

Recurrent febrile UTIs

Atypical UTI (i.e. non-E.coli)

Children younger than 2 with a febrile UTI

For structural abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are pregnant women vaccinated for pertussis?

A

To provide passive immunity to their children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the triad of Reye syndrome?

A
  1. Preceding viral illness
  2. Acute encephalopathy
  3. Liver failure
    * Due to aspirin use in children with a viral infection*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long is a patient with scarlet fever infectious for?

A

24 hours after penicillin is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the rash of meningococcus progress?

A

Red rash → petechiae → purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What vaccinations are given at 4 years?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Brudzinski sign?

A

Pain and hip flexion with passive neck flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus auerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is a child with erythema infectiosum contagious?

A

During the prodrome only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which TORCH infection is associated with Hutchinson teeth, a congenital dental malformation involving notches and widely shaped central incisors?

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What vaccinations are given at 4 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

Pneumococcal

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DIC secondary to sepsis?

A

Cytokines → hypercoagulation with hypofibrinolysis → microthrombi → impaired perfusion and tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What chemoprophylaxis is given to people who have had contact with Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Ciprofloxacin oral

OR

Ceftriaxone IM (hurts)

Contacts within the past week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which TORCH infection is associated with saddle nose and a short maxilla?

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What vaccination is given at birth?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do meningococci stain?

A

Gram negative diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Passive infant immunity through breast milk occurs through which immunoglobulin?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in newborns?

A

Group B Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug can be given for RSV prevention?

A

Palivizumab

Monoclonal antibody that provides passive immunisation to RSV infection

Indications: infants at risk for severe bronchiolitis e.g. prematurity, heart or lung disease, immunocompromised states

Monthly IM administration during RSV season for the first year of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a non-blanching rash in children suggest?

A

Meningococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the major complication of measles?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A lethal, generalised, demyelinating inflammation of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A sandpaper rash is characteristic of which disease?

A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the treatment for Staphylococcus impetigo?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which TORCH infection is associated with CN VIII deafness?

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is meningococcus spread?

A

Secretions from the back of the nose and throat

Requires close and prolonged contact, not easily spread

Bacteria do not last long outside of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which TORCH infections present with a blueberry muffin appearance, indicative of extramedullay haematopoesis?

A

Rubella + CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which organism causes pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is tonsillitis more commonly viral or bacterial?

A

Viral

If bacterial - S. pyogenes (Group A strep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus (75%)

Followed by respiratory syncytial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Bacterial endotoxins → coagulopathy → haemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What features are suggestive of pyelonephritis in a child with bacteriuria?

A

Fever

Loin pain

Tenderness

If any of these features are present treat as pyelonephritis (common in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gastroenteritis that occurs in an outbreak is most likely?

A

Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which population is predisposed to eczema herpeticum?

A

Atopic people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which TORCHes infection presents with recurrent infections and diarrhoea?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the triad of congenital rubella?

A
  1. Patent ductus arteriosus
  2. Cataracts
  3. Deafness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What causes hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What vaccinations are given at 6 weeks?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

Pneumococcal

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What cause scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei mite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Do premature infants recieve their vaccinations at chronological or corrected age?

A

Chronological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When are Pastia’s lines seen?

A

Scarlet fever

Most pronounced in the groin, underarm and elbow creases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children and teens?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why do infants with bronchiolitis have hyperinfilation in CXR?

A

Mucous plugs act as a one way valve → air goes in but not out → air-trapping and hyperinflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Viral infection followed by extension of commensals from the larynx into the trachea describes which disease?

A

Bacterial tracheitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What cardiovascular defects are associated with congenital rubella?

A

Patent ductus arteriosis

Pulmonary artery hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three most suggestive signs of sepsis from meningococcal disease?

A
  1. Cold hands and feet
  2. Leg pain
  3. Abnormal skin colour e.g. pallor, mottling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the tetrad of HSP?

A
  1. Palpable purpura
  2. Arthritis/arthralgia
  3. GI symptoms
  4. Renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the TORCH infections?

A

T - toxoplasmosis

O - others; syphilis, varicella zoster, parvovirus B19, listeriosis

R - rubella

C - cytomegalovirus

H - herpes simplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is tonsillitis treated?

A

Supportive

Antibiotics only used in groups at risk of complications of S. pyogenes infection e.g. high rates of rheumatic fever, existing heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which TORCH infection is associated with saber shins?

A

Syphilis

Sharp anterior bowing of the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When is the peak incidence of bronchiolitis?

A

2-6 months of age

Primarily affects children <2

More common in winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which pathogen is most commonly involved in otitis media?

A

S. pneumoniae

Bacterial superinfection following URTI

55
Q

How is hand, foot and mouth disease treated?

A

Supportive

Hygeiene

Lesions are contagious until they dry up

56
Q

How is Kawasaki disease treated?

A

IV immunoglobulin

High dose aspirin

57
Q

Which pathogen may cause meningitis with myalgia and a petechial/purpuric rash?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

58
Q

How is a diagnosis of epiglottitis confirmed?

A

Pharyngoscopy

Cherry-red epiglottis

Not needed for a diagnosis

59
Q

What causes the induction of prostaglandins, particularly PGE2, during fever?

A

Pyogenic cytokines arriving at the anterior hypothalamus

60
Q

Why is the rash from meningococcal sepsis non-blanching?

A

Neisseria meningitidis has direct toxicity to the endothelium of blood vessels → bleeding into the skin

61
Q

What are the distinctive clinical features of a child with epiglottitis?

A

Tripoding

Drooling

Muffled voice with painful speech

Distress

62
Q

What is the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A
  1. Chorioretinitis
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Intracranial calcifications
63
Q

What vaccinations are given in year 7?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis

Human papillomavirus (2 doses)

64
Q

What are the features of Kawaski disease?

A

C - conjunctivitis

R - rash

A - adenopathy

S - strawberry tongue

H - hands and feet (oedema and erythema)

and burn

65
Q

What are the 3 C’s of measles?

A

Conjunctivitis

Cough

Coryza

66
Q

What is the major complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

67
Q

When does Forchheimer sign occur?

A

Rubella

Petechiae on the soft palate and uvula during the prodromal period

68
Q

What is the most common causative agent of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

69
Q

Which TORCHes infection presents with hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash and blueberry muffin rash?

70
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in young children?

71
Q

How long is a child with rubella infectious for?

A

1-2 weeks before the rash appears → 5 days after

72
Q

What are 3 risk factors for bronchiolitis?

A
  1. Prematurity
  2. Congenital heart disease
  3. Congenital lung disease
  4. Immunodeficiency
73
Q

When is a child with varicella zoster contagious?

A

24 hours before the rash until all crusted

74
Q

What follow up imaging is performed if a renal ultrasound is suggestive of vesiculoureteric reflux?

A

Micturating cystourethrogram

75
Q

What vaccinations are given at 12 months?

A

Meningococcal ACWY

Pneumococcal

Measles, mumps, rubella

76
Q

What is the immediate treatment if meningococcal meningitis is suspected?

A

IV ceftriaxone/cefotaxime

77
Q

What vaccination is given in years 10-11?

A

Meningococcal ACWY

78
Q

What vaccinations are given at 18 months?

A

Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis

Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella

Haemophilus influenzae type b

79
Q

Palivizumab is used to prevent what disease?

A

Bronchiolitis (RSV)

80
Q

What are the two most common causes of meningitis in infants (1 month - 2 years)

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae*
  • Neisseria meningitidis*
81
Q

Which antibiotic is used for otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin

Indications: bilateral infection, symptoms not resolving, severe illness, immunosuppression

82
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

83
Q

What is erythema marginatum?

A

Cutaneous manifestation of rheumatic fever

Centrifugally expanding pink rash with a well-defined outer border and central clearing

Non-pruritic

84
Q

What is the classic triad of meningitis?

A

Fever, headache, neck stiffness

85
Q

Which TORCH infection often presents with foetal hydrops?

A

Parvovirus

Due to aplastic anaemia

86
Q

What causes roseola?

A

Herpes virus 6

87
Q

What is the formal name for croup?

A

Laryngotracheitis

88
Q

Where does the rash of measles spread on the body>

A

Cephalocaudal

89
Q

Which TORCH infection presents with encephalitis and herpetic (vesicular) lesions?

90
Q

What causes eczema herpeticum?

A

Herpes simplex 1/2

91
Q

Where does the rash from rubella start?

A

Behind the ears

92
Q

How is acute cystitis treated?

A

Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

5 days (10 days for pyelonephritis)

93
Q

Does vomiting predominate in rotavirus or norovius?

A

Norovirus

Diarrhoea is more severe in rotavirus

94
Q

What imaging finding is characteristic of croup?

A

Steeple sign (subglottic narrowing)

95
Q

What is Kernig sign?

A

Pain with leg flexion in meningitis

96
Q

Why is dexamethasone given to infants with meningitis?

A

Reduces the risk of hearing loss (Hib) and may improve mortality (pneumococcus)

Thought to reduce the overwhelming inflammatory response to administration of antibiotics - give before antibiotics

97
Q

How is eczema herpeticum treated?

A

Oral acyclovir

Dermatologic emergency

98
Q

What vaccinations are given at 6 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

99
Q

How is encephalitis treated?

A

Acyclovir

In case the cause is HSV - rare but devestating

100
Q

What is the characteristic x-ray sign of epiglottitis?

A

Thumbprint sign

Enlarged epiglottis with supraglottic narrowing

101
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Group A B-haemolytic Streptococcus if low SES

102
Q

How does Streptoccocus pneumoniae (pneumococci) stain?

A

Gram positive diplococci

103
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

TOXINS from Group A Streptococcus

104
Q

What type of immunoglobulin can cross from maternal blood into the placenta?

105
Q

What are the most common causes of viral meningitis?

A

Enterovirus: coxsackie and echovirus

Herpes simplex

EBV

More common in teens and young adults

Less severe than bacterial meningitis and a full recovery can be expected

106
Q

What is the most common cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Meningococcal meningitis

(Neisseria meningitidis)

107
Q

Why do infants with bronchiolotis have atelectasis on CXR?

A

Mucous plugs trap air in the bronchioles → air diffuses into the bloodstream → airways collapse

108
Q

How is herpetic gingivostomatitis managed?

A

Supportive management with analgesia

Acyclovir if immunocompromised

109
Q

When is dexamethasone given during the treatment of meningitis?

A

Before administration of Abx

Prevents overwhelming inflammatory response

110
Q

What immunisation is given at birth?

A

Hepatitis B

111
Q

What immunisations are given at 6 weeks?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

Pneumococcal

Rotavirus

112
Q

What immunisations are given at 4 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

Pneumococcal

Rotavirus

113
Q

What immunisations are given at 6 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, polio

114
Q

What immunisations are given at 12 months?

A

Meningococcal ACWY

Pneumococcal

Measles, mumps, rubella

115
Q

What immunisations are given at 18 months?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis

Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella

Haemophilus influenzae type b

116
Q

What immunisations are given at 4 years?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio

117
Q

What immunisations are given in year 7?

A

Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis

Human papillomavirus (2 doses)

118
Q

Give three ways by which GAS infection can be confirmed (current or recent)

A
  1. Throat culture
  2. Rapid streptococcal antigen test
  3. Antistreptolysin antibody
  4. Antideoxyribonuclease B antiboody
119
Q

What are the major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Carditis
  2. Arthritis
  3. Chorea
  4. Erythema marginatum
  5. Subcutaneous nodules
120
Q

What are anti-deoxyribonuclease B antibodies tested for?

A

Group A strep

121
Q

Which vaccines are live-attenuated?

A

MMR

Rotavirus

Varicella

Zoster

Yellow fever

Tyhoid

Japanese encephalitis

BCG

122
Q

Does SSSS involved the mucosa?

123
Q

How is Sydenham’s chorea treated?

A

Usually no treatment

Carbamazepine or valproic acid, if necessary

124
Q

Following acute rheumatic fever, how long is secondary prevention with benzathine penicillin continued for?

A

3-4 weekly

Minimum of 10 yearts after more recent episode or until age 21 (whichever is longer)

125
Q

Which organism often causes infection following fresh water exposure?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

126
Q

What are the most common causes of ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Conjunctivitis in the first month of life

Chlamydia or gonorrhoea

127
Q

What are the possible complications of meningitis?

A

SIADH

Cerebral oedema

Hearing loss

Waterhouse-Friderischsen syndrome

Epilepsy

Cognitive deficits, CP

128
Q

How many annual URTIs is normal for a young child?

129
Q

What is cat scratch disease?

A

Benign, self-limiting illness caused by Bartonella henselae, transmitted by cats

Mild constitutional symptoms, papules/vesicles, lymphadenopathy

130
Q

Which helminth causes threadworm/pinworm?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

131
Q

Which medication is in Combantrin?

(anti-helminth chocolates)

132
Q

What is the triad of infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Generalised non-tender lymphadenopathy
  3. Exudative pharyngitis/tonsilitis
133
Q

Which childhood vaccination is associated with febrile seizures?

Paediatrics (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions