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IM Recall Stuff > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Most common manifestation of salmonella infection

A

Enterocolitis

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2
Q

Empiric treatment of choice for typhoid fever

A

Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

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3
Q

Result of Lepto-MAT that is confirmatory for leptospirosis

A

4-fold rise in titers

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4
Q

Most infectious stage of syphilis

A

Secondary syphilis

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5
Q

Most accurate test in primary syphilis:

A

Darkfield microscopy

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6
Q

Treatment for uncomplicated falciparum malaria

A

Artemisin-based combination therapy

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7
Q

Drug of choice for severe malaria

A

Artesunate

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8
Q

Treatment for uncomplicated falciparum infection in first trimester:

A

Quinine + Clindamycin

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9
Q

Duration which the antimalarial prophylaxis should be taken

A

2 days - 2 weeks before departure up to 4 weeks after the traveler has left the area

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10
Q

Warning signs of dengue

A 
Abdominal pain/tenderness
Persistent vomiting
Clinical fluid accumulation
Mucosal bleed
Lethargy, restlessness
Liver enlargement >2cm
Increase in hematocrit concurrent with rapid decrease in platelet count
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11
Q

Earliest CBC abnormality in dengue fever

A

Progressive decrease in total WBC count

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12
Q

3 Phases of Dengue:

A 
Febrile phase (Day 2-7)
Critical phase (Day 3-7)
Recovery phase
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13
Q

Features of Katayama disease

A

Occurs 4-8 weeks after the skin invasion

Symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, high degree of eosinophilia

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14
Q

Best indicator of immediate state of immunologic competence in HIV

A

CD4 T cell count

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15
Q

Infection wherein a diffuse maculopapular eruption appears over the trunk and neck, resolving in 2 days

A

Roseola

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16
Q

Name the disease: Genital ulcer that starts as a papule, base is red and velvety, lesion is elevated, bleeds readily, with firm induration, pain is common, with no lymphadenopathy; incubation period of 1-4 weeks:

A

Donovanosis

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17
Q

Name the disease: Genital ulcer starts as a papule, vesicle, or pustule, with prominent tender lymphadenopathy which may suppurate - usually unilateral; incubation period of 3 days-6 weeks:

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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18
Q

Name the disease: Genital ulcer starts as a pustule, lesions are usually multiple and may coalesce, base is purulent and bleeds easily, lesion is usually very tender, and lymphadenopathy is usually tender, unilateral, and may suppurate:

A

Chancroid

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19
Q

Treatment of choice for mild leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline

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20
Q

Treatment of choice for severe leptospirosis

A

Penicillin G

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21
Q

Treatment for HIV should start with all pregnant women with HIV, occurrence of an AIDS-defining illness, HIVAN, and at CD4 counts of:

A

<350

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22
Q

AIDS is defined as having a CD4 count of less than:

A

200

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23
Q

Best long-term clinical predictor of outcome in HIV infection:

A

Plasma viral load

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24
Q

Most common neurologic syndrome in HIV-AIDS

A

AIDS-dementia complex

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25
Q

Most common route of spread of HIV worldwide

A

Heterosexual

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26
Q

Most common opportunistic HIV infection

A

Tuberculosis

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27
Q

Most common presentation of M. avium in HIV

A

Disseminated disease (with fever, weight loss, night sweats)

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28
Q

Most common CXR pattern in M. avium infection

A

Bilateral lower lobe infiltrate suggestive of miliary spread

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29
Q

Most common form of heart disease in HIV

A

Coronary artery disease

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30
Q

Most common cause of pancreatic injury in HIV

A

Drug toxicity

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31
Q

Most common presentation of syphilis in HIV

A

Condyloma lata

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32
Q

Most common etiologic causes of focal neurologic deficits in HIV:

A

Toxoplasmosis
PML
CNS lymphoma

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33
Q

Most common abnormality seen in fundoscopy in HIV

A

Cotton wool spots

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34
Q

Leading infectious cause of meningitis in HIV

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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35
Q

Hyperpyrexia is a temperature of ____ and above

A

41.5C

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36
Q

Max normal oral temp at 6 AM? 4 PM?

A

37.2; 37.7 C

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37
Q

Normal daily temperature variation

A

0.5C

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38
Q

Rectal temperatures are generally higher than oral temperatures by ____

A

0.4C

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39
Q

Most common infectious FUO in elderly

A

TB

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40
Q

Criteria for FUO (4)

A

1) Fever of 38.3 and above on at least 2 occasions
2) Illness duration of 3 weeks or more
3) No known immunocompromised state
4) Uncertain diagnoses even after thorough history, PE, labs

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41
Q

Pathologic phase of pneumonia where the neutrophil is the predominant cell

A

Grey hepatization

42
Q

Major risk factor for primary lung abscess

A

Aspiration

43
Q

Tx for primary lung abscess (2)

A
  1. CLINDAMYCIN 600mg IV Q8 or

2. B-lactam/B-lactamase combination

44
Q

This has surpassed TB as the most important infectious cause of adrenal insufficiency

A

HIV

45
Q

NBTE resulting from a hypergoagulable state seen in malignancy and other chronic diseases leads to ______ endocaditis

A

Marantic

46
Q

Virus and strep, enterococci, CoNS, HACEK cause ______ endocarditis

A

Subacute endocarditis

47
Q

This is primarily what determines the temporal course of endocarditis

A

Causative microorganism

48
Q

Most frequent clinical feature of IE

A

Fever

49
Q

Septic emboli in IE is common in patients with this causative organism

A

S. Aureus

50
Q

Treatment for enterococcal IE:

A

Penicillin/Ampicillin/Vancomycin + Gentamicin for 4-6 weeks

51
Q

Tx for IE in moderately penicillin resistant Streptococci

A

Penicillin/Ceftriaxone + Gentamicin for 6 weeks

Or

Vancomycin

52
Q

The major indication for cardiac surgery in IE

A

Moderate to severe refractory CHF caused by new or worsening valve dysfunction or intracardiac fistulae

53
Q

Pathognomonic for ciguatera poisoning

A

Reversal of hot and cold perception

54
Q

Treatment for scombroid poisoning

A

Antihistamines

55
Q

Empiric treatment for bacterial meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone 2g Q12 + Vancomycin 15mg/kg Q12

56
Q

Treatment for brain abscess, empirical

A

Ceftriaxone + vancomycin + metronidazole

57
Q

Antibiotic of choice for meningococccal meningitis

A

Penicillin

58
Q

For every 1C increase in temperature, heart rate increases by:

A

15-20 bpm

59
Q

Most common way for microorganisms to gain access to the lower respiratory tract:

A

Aspiration from the oropharynx

60
Q

Most common route for infection in septic arthritis

A

Hematogenous

61
Q

Most common site of osteomyelitis in adults

A

Vertebral column

62
Q

In adults, primary bacterial peritonitis most commonly occurs in conjunction with which disease?

A

Liver cirrhosis

63
Q

Most common manifestation of primary bacterial peritonitis:

A

Fever

64
Q

Most common primary manifestation of liver abscess:

A

Fever

65
Q

Mainstay of therapy for liver abscesses

A

Drainage

66
Q

Most common etiologic agent associated with outbreaks of acute gastroenteritis

A

Norovirus

67
Q

Most common manifestation of C. difficile infection

A

Diarrhea

68
Q

Most common cause of genital ulceration in developing countries

A

Genital herpes

69
Q

Most common cause of epidemic encephalitis

A

West Nile virus

70
Q

Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis

A

Herpes simplex virus 1

71
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults >20 years old

A

S. pneumoniae

72
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Enteroviruses

73
Q

Cranial nerve palsies are more common in ______ meningitis than other viral infections

A

HIV meningitis

74
Q

Most common complication of fungal meningitis

A

Hydrocephalus

75
Q

Most common localizing sign of a frontal lobe abscess

A

Hemiparesis

76
Q

Most common parasitic disease of the CNS worldwide

A

Neurocysticercosis

77
Q

Most common adverse effects of beta lactams

A

Hypersensitivity reactions

78
Q

The most common pneumococcal syndrome

A

Otitis media

79
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in native joints

A

S. aureus

80
Q

Most common cause of bacterial endocarditis

A

Viridans streptococci

81
Q

Preferred antibiotic therapy for tetanus

A

Metronidazole

82
Q

Most common cause of death in tetanus

A

Respiratory failure

83
Q

Most common form of infection with N. meningitidis

A

Asymptomatic carriage of organism in the nasopharynx

84
Q

Death from meningococcal disease is most commonly due to:

A

Hypovolemic shock

85
Q

Most common complication of meningococcal disease

A

Scarring after necrosis of purpuric lesions

86
Q

The most common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbations

A

Nontypable H. influenzae

87
Q

Death from meningococcal disease is most commonly due to:

A

Hypovolemic shock

88
Q

Most common complication of meningococcal disease

A

Scarring after necrosis of purpuric lesions

89
Q

The most common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbations

A

Nontypable H. influenzae

90
Q

In sexually active men under age 35, acute epididymitis is caused most frequently by:

A

C. trachomatis

91
Q

Treatment for neurosyphilis

A

Aqueous penicillin G

92
Q

Drug of choice for rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Doxycycline

93
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole

94
Q

Drug of choice for radical cure of P. vivax infections

A

Primaquine

95
Q

Gold standard of diagnosing each type of osteomyelitis

A

MRI

96
Q

Threshold of bacteriuria in CA-UTI

A

CFU 10^3/mL of urine

97
Q

Threshold of bacteriuria in ASB (including CA-ASB)

A

CFU 10^5/mL of urine

98
Q

Minimal level of bacteriuria indicating infection in men

A

CFU 10^3/mL of urine

99
Q

Gold standard of diagnosis of a P. aeruginosa otitis externa

A

Positive technetium-99 bone scan

100
Q

Components of the Cushing reflex (3)

A

Bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respirations

101
Q

Most common adverse reaction of significance among those treated for drug-susceptible TB

A

Hepatitis

IM Recall Stuff (13 decks)

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