Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Well’s score indicating of high likelihood of VTE

A

3

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2
Q

Pulmonary embolism 2D Echo finding

A

McConnell’s sign or hypokinesis of free RV wall

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3
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of PE

A

Invasive pulmonary angiogram

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4
Q

Drug that should be avoided in aortic regurgitation

A

Beta blockers

This prolongs diastole, which is the period where regurgitation occurs

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5
Q

Earliest CXR finding of mitral stenosis

A

Straightening of upper left border of cardiac silhouette

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6
Q

Onset of _____ is the hallmark of disease progression in MS

A

Atrial fibrillation

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7
Q

Most effective treatment for MS

A

Balloon valvuloplasty

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8
Q

What is the average time of death after these following symptoms appear in aortic stenosis?
Syncope: ___
Angina pectoris: ____
Dyspnea: _____

A

Syncope: 3 years
Angina: 3 years
Dyspnea: 2 years

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9
Q

Treatment of choice for aortic regurgitation:

A

Surgery within 24 hours of diagnosis

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10
Q

Most common presenting symptoms of chronic, severe MR

A

Fatigue, orthopnea, dyspnea

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11
Q

High-pitched diastolic decrescendo blowing murmur at LSB seen in pulmonary stenosis but can be caused by pulmo HPN as well:

A

Graham-Steele Murmur

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12
Q

Chest pain types with the least likelihood of MI (from least likelihood going upwards)

A

Pleuritic pain -> Positional -> Sharp -> Reproducible with palpation -> Inframammary location

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13
Q

Unifying theme of atherogenesis

A

Inflammation

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14
Q

LDL goal for proven CAD

A

<100

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15
Q

LDL goal for DM

A

<70

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16
Q

Do not give nitrates if sildenafil has been given in the past ____ hours

A

24 hours

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17
Q

The 2 first line medications for angina:

A

Beta blockers

ACE inhibitors

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18
Q

Intervention of choice for single or two-vessel CAD with normal LV function

A

PCI

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19
Q

Intervention of choice for left main artery CAD

A

CABG

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20
Q

First cardiac marker to rise in MI

A

Myoglobin

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21
Q

In MI, CK rises in _____ hours and returns to normal in _____ hours

A

Rises in 4-8 hours

Returns to normal in 48-72 hours

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22
Q

Streptokinase is given as:

A

1.5M units IV over 1 hour

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23
Q

Clear contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy:

A
  1. Cerebrovascular hemorrhage at any time
  2. Ischemic stroke or other cerebrovascular event in the past year
  3. BP 180/110 mmHg or higher
  4. Aortic dissection
  5. Active internal bleeding
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24
Q

Most common cause of diastolic HF (HFpEF)

A

Hypertension

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25
Q

Most common cause of systolic HF (HFrEF)

A

Coronary artery disease

26
Q

Echocardiographic finding characteristic of HCMP

A

Systolic anterior motion (SAM)

27
Q

Most common type of cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated CMP

28
Q

Fluid needed to produce cardiac tamponade is as little as _____

A

200 mL

29
Q

Dilated CMP has an ejection fraction of:

A

<30%

30
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is more likely to be seen in:

A

Cardiac tamponade

31
Q

Kussmaul’s sign is a prominent feature of:

A

Constrictive pericarditis

32
Q

Pericardial knock is a prominent feature of:

A

Constrictive pericarditis

33
Q

First line for treatment of PAD (increases claudication distance and improves quality of life)

A

Cilostazol

34
Q

Most common preventable cause of death among hospitalized patients

A

PE

35
Q

Most common acquired cause of thrombophilia and associated with venous/arterial thrombosis

A

APAS

36
Q

Classic signs of PE

A

Tachycardia, low-grade fever, neck vein distension

37
Q

Most frequent symptom of PE

A

Dyspnea

38
Q

Hallmarks of massive PE

A

Dyspnea, syncope, hypotension

39
Q

Most common ECG abnormality in PE

A

T wave inversion in leads V1-V4

40
Q

The only FDA-approved indication for PE fibrinolysis

A

Massive PE

41
Q

Name the 4 statin benefit groups:

A
  1. Clinical ASCVD
  2. LDL-C >190 w/o secondary cause
  3. Primary prevention with DM: Age 40-75 nd LDL-C 70-189
  4. Primary prevention w/o DM: Age 40-75 with 10 year ASCVD risk of >=7.5%
42
Q

Treatment agent for dyslipidemia that is a PCSK9 inhibitor

A

Evolocumab

43
Q

Treatment agent for dyslipidemia that is a CETP inhibitor

A

Torcetrapib

44
Q

Systolic leg pressures are usually ____ mmHg higher than the arms

A

20 mmHg

45
Q

This scoring system predicts occurrence of stroke in AF

A

CHA2DS2 VASc Score

46
Q

Minor criteria in Duke’s Criteria

A
FIVEPM
Fever
Immunologic
Vascular
ECG
Predisposing condition
Microbiological
47
Q

In IE, the following are associated with increased embolization:
Endocarditis caused by [Organism]
Vegetations >__mm in diameter
Infections involving _____ valve

A

S. aureus
>10 mm diameter vegetation
Mitral valve

48
Q

Most common primary malignant pericardial tumor

A

Mesothelioma

49
Q

Most common tumor of the valves

A

Papillary fibroelastomas

50
Q

Most common cause of HF in industrialized countries

A

CAD

51
Q

T OR F: Dyspnea on exertion is a major criteria of Framingham.

A

False

52
Q

Treatment options for severe chorea in RF (2)

A

Carbamazepine and valproic acid

53
Q

Most important bedside measurement from which to evaluate fluid status

A

JVP

54
Q

Most common cause of a midsystolic murmur in an adult

A

Aortic stenosis

55
Q

Mainstay of treatment for control of rotatory vertigo

A

Low salt diet (2g/day)

56
Q

2 mainstays of anti-ischemic treatment in NSTE-ACS

A

Nitrates, beta blockers

57
Q

Drug of choice for SVT with heart disease

A

IV amiodarone

58
Q

Drug of choice for cholesterol-lowering in children and in women of childbearing age, pregnant, or could be pregnant

A

Bile-acid sequestrants

59
Q

Gold standard for evaluating and identifying renal artery lesions

A

Contrast arteriography

60
Q

ABI ratio diagnostic of PAD

A

<0.9

61
Q

Cardiovascular risk in hypertension doubles every ___mmHg increase in SBP and ____mmHg increase in DBP

A

20 mmHg, 10 mmHg