Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

A weight-neutral anti-hyperglycemic agent

A

DDP-4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Target TG levels in diabeticts:

A

<150 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First defence against hypoglycemia

A

Decrease in insulin secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Second and third defence against hypoglycemia

A

Glucagon then Epinephrine

Cortisol and GH have no role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Predominant ketone body in ketosis

A

B-hydroxybutyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Components of the criteria for Metabolic Syndrome

A
Central obesity
Low HDL
Triglycerides
Hypertension >130/85
Impaired fasting glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common pattern of thyroid hormone elevation/decrease in sick euthyroid syndrome

A

Decreased total and unbound T3

Normal TSH and T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for severe Graves’ ophthalmopathy

A

Methylprednisolone pulse therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common cause of acute thyroiditis in children and young adults

A

Presence of a pyriform sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for subacute thyroiditis

A

Aspirin, NSAIDs, or glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Next step in diagnosis of a thyroid nodule with low TSH:

A

Thyroid scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Next step in diagnosis of a thyroid nodule with hight TSH:

A

UTZ-guided FNAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most specific UTZ finding of a malignant thyroid nodule:

A

marked hypoechogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most sensitive UTZ finding of a malignant thyroid nodule:

A

Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sequential loss of pituitary hormones from compression:

A

GH -> FSH/LH -> TSH -> ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Screening tests for the following:
GH excess
Cushings syndrome

A

GH excess - serum IGF-1

Cushing’s syndrome - 24 hr urine cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

After measuring 24hr urine cortisol in Cushing syndrome, and hypercortisolism is diagnosed, what is the next step?

A

Measure plasma ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Confirmatory test for acromegaly

A

75g-OGTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most significant clinical impact of GH excess occurs with respect to the _______ system

A

Cardiovascular system (cardiomyopathy, coronary heart disease, arrhythmias, LVH, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug is a glucocorticoid receptor antagonist that can be used to treat hyperglycemia in Cushing’s disease

A

Mifepristone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug for Cushing’s disease that inhibits cortisol synthesis at the level of 11B hydroxylation

A

Metyrapone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Disorder characterized by hyperpigmentation and rapid pituitary tumor enlargment due to increased ACTH

A

Nelson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Origin of most nonfunctioning adenomas

A

Gonadotrope cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Differentiates central vs. peripheral DI

A

Water deprivation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

There is no convincing role of infection of autoimmune thyroiditis except in:

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common cause of ectopic ACTH secretion

A

Carcinoid lung tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Differentiate type 1a and 1b DM

A

1a: Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
1b: Non-autoimmune destruction of beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major user of postprandial glucose

A

Muscles

30
Q

Ketone body preferentially detected by nitroprusside

A

Acetoacetate

31
Q

Features of diabetes are not evident until

A

70-80% of beta cells are destroyed

32
Q

Leading cause of blindness between ages 20-74

A

DM retinopathy

33
Q

Treatment of macular edema

A

Focal photocoagulation

34
Q

Diagnosis of renal insufficiency is established by:

A

Cosyntropin test

35
Q

HbA1c levels suggestive of IFG

A

5.7-6.4%

36
Q

Most common presenting feature of adult hypopituitarism

A

Hypogonadism

37
Q

Hallmarks of hyperprolactinemia in women

A

Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility

38
Q

Mainstay of therapy for micro or macroprolactinomas

A

Dopamine agonists (Cabergoline, Bromocriptine)

39
Q

Initial treatment for most patients with GH-secreting adenomas

A

Surgical resection

40
Q

Most common cause of cushingoid features

A

Iatrogenic hypercortisolism

41
Q

Most common clinical features of Cushing’s (2)

A

Obesity + thin skin

42
Q

Test suggestive of ACTH-secreting tumor rather than ectopic ACTH secretion

A

Cortisol reduction from high dose dexamethasone suppression test

43
Q

_________ inhibits 11B hydroxylase and normalizes plasma cortisol

A

Metyrapone

44
Q

Most common type of pituitary adenoma

A

Nonfunctioning pituitary adenomas

45
Q

Most common causes of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient areas (2)

A

Hashimoto’s and iatrogenic (treatment of hyperthyroidism)

46
Q

Most devastating complication of osteoporosis

A

Fracture

47
Q

Most common early consequence of estrogen deficiency

A

Vertebral fracture

48
Q

Major nonmetabolic complication of DKA treatment

A

Cerebral edema

49
Q

Hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Neovascularization

50
Q

Most effective therapy for diabetic retinopathy

A

Prevention

51
Q

Most common mononeuropathy in DM

A

Third cranial nerve palsy

52
Q

Unifying hypothesis for metabolic syndrome

A

Insulin resistance

53
Q

Most common cause of erectile dysfunction

A

Interruption of blood flow to and from the penis

54
Q

Hormones that should be measured in erectile dysfunction: (2)

A

Serum testosterone
Serum prolactin
(PSA May be requested according to recommended clinics guidelines)

55
Q

The ion of primary physiologic importance in pancreatic secretion:

A

Bicarbonate

56
Q

Clinically important weight loss is defined as loss of _____ kg or >__% of body weight over 6-12 months

A

4.5 kg (10 pounds); >5%

57
Q

Nutritional vitamin D deficiency is best assessed by serum levels of:

A

25 hydroxyvitamin D

58
Q

Most common acid base disturbance in critically ill patients

A

Chronic respiratory alkalosis

59
Q

Most common cause of drug induced respiratory alkalosis

A

Salicylates

60
Q

Mainstay of pharmacologic therapy in Paget’s disease

A

Bisphosphonates

61
Q

2 types of peakless insulin

A

Detemir, Glargine

62
Q

The dominant sign of pheochromocytoma

A

Hypertension

63
Q

Most sensitive biochemical testing for pheochromocytoma

A

Plasma metanephrines

64
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Wilson’s disease

A

Liver biopsy with quantitative copper assays

65
Q

Drug that acts by competitive inhibition of GH

A

Pegvisomant

66
Q

Dominant sign in pheochromocytoma

A

Hypertension

67
Q

Most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

68
Q

Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency is established by

A

Cosyntropin test

69
Q

2 primary bile acids

A

Chenodeoxycholic and cholic acid

70
Q

Thyroglobulin levels are elevated in all cases of thyrotoxicosis except:

A

Thyrotoxicosis facticia