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MK ACVD Exam > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Brucella canis

A

Infects phagocytes and suppresses TNF-alpha –> disrupts bactericidal activity of NK cells and macs–> replicates within cell –> bacteremia

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2
Q

How does Brucella canis infect canine hosts?

A

Penetration through mucous membranes (vaginal discharge and semen have highest concentration of organisms)

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3
Q

What are the most common signs of canine Brucellosis?

A

Reproductive failures, abortion

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4
Q

Describe the acid-fast staining pattern of Actinomyces

A

Non-acid-fast

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5
Q

Where is actinomyces normally found?

A

It is normal flora in the oral cavity, GIT, and genital tract

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6
Q

Describe typical lesions of actinomycosis in dogs

A

Cervicofacial or truncal/limb SQ nodules, pneumonia and pyothorax may be seen

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7
Q

Describe typical clinical signs of actinomycosis in cats

A

Pyothorax> SQ lesions

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8
Q

Describe the culture characteristics of actinomyces

A

Fastidious and can be difficult to grow on culture, should be grown anaerobically
(positive culture does not mean disease since it’s a commensal)

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9
Q

Describe cytologic findings for actinomyces

A

Suppurative to pyogranulomatous inflammation, dense mats of filamentous bacteria, sulfur granules

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10
Q

What is the treatment of choice for actinomyces?

A

High doses of penicillins for prolonged periods of time (other options: clinda, doxycycline, erythromycin, chloramphenicol are options), +/- surgery

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11
Q

What is the prognosis for actinomyces?

A

Low mortality, cure rate as high as 90%

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12
Q

Describe the acid-fast staining pattern of Nocardia

A

partially acid-fast

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13
Q

Is Nocardia an aerobe or anaerobe?

A

Aerobe

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14
Q

Where is Nocardia typically found?

A

Soil saprophyte, fresh and salt water, decaying plant matter

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15
Q

What is a predisposing factor to the development of Nocardiosis?

A

immunosuppression or other comorbidity (this is less common in cats)

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16
Q

Describe the culture characteristics of Nocardia

A

Usually cultured, aerobic, Sabouraud’s or blood agar

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17
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Nocardia?

A

Surgery and antibiotics (sulfas)

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18
Q

What is the prognosis for Nocardia?

A

Guarded, moderate to high mortality

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19
Q

What are the 4 clinical forms of Actinomyces infection?

A

Cervicofacial, thoracic, abdominal, SQ

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20
Q

How is Nocardia acquired?

A

Inhalation or inoculation

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21
Q

Where would Nocardia be expected to be more prevalent geographically?

A

SW US, Australia (dry, dusty, windy)

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22
Q

What are the clinical forms of Nocardia infection?

A

Pulmonary
Disseminated
Cutaneous/SQ

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23
Q

Are sulfur granules more common with Actinomyces or with Nocardia?

A

Actinomyces - sulfur granules on FNA should prompt suspicion of Actinomyces

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24
Q

How does Nocardia spread?

A

Direct or hematogenous

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25
Q

How does Actinomyces spread?

A

Direct via adjacent tissue

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26
Q

What antibiotic could be considered if you are struggling to differentiate between Nocardia and Actinomyces?

A

doxycycline

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27
Q

What do anaerobic bacteria fail to produce that prevents their growth in oxygen?

A

They don’t produce superoxide dismutase

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28
Q

What part of gram-negative anaerobic bacteria results in inflammation?

A

LPS with endotoxic activity (responsible for endotoxic shock in septicemia)

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29
Q

What part of gram-positive anaerobic bacteria results in inflammation?

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer

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30
Q

What are the cell wall components of fungi?

A

Manno-proteins, beta-glucan, chitin

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31
Q

Will Mycoplasma stain with gram stain?

A

No because it lacks a cell wall (this lack of cell wall also makes it resistant to cephalosporins and penicillins)

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32
Q

What organism has a “fried egg” appearance on culture media?

A

Mycoplasma

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33
Q

What is the defining characteristic of L form bacteria?

A

They lack a cell wall

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34
Q

What antibiotics would you consider using to treat L form bacteria?

A

Macrolides, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, FQ (resistant to beta lactams due to lack of cell wall)

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35
Q

What strain of Streptococcus is likely to be more pathogenic?

A

beta-hemolytic (Groups A, B, C, E, G, L, M)

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36
Q

Where is a dog or cat likely to acquire group A Strep?

A

Humans (shedding via respiratory droplets; S. pyogenes, S. pneumoniae)

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37
Q

What species of Strep has been implicated in canine and feline necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Strep canis (Group G)

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38
Q

What are the virulence factors in Strep canis?

A

Streptolysin O gene, M-protein (inhibits phagocytosis by neutrophils and macs)

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39
Q

What antibiotic has been implicated in triggering Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A

Enrofloxacin

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40
Q

Is Streptococcus gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram positive

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41
Q

How does the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria differ from that of gram-positive?

A

Gram negative: thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS)
Gram positive: thick peptidoglycan layer but no outer layer

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42
Q

What is the virulence factor of Rhodococcus equi in horses?

A

Plasmid that encodes virulence protein VapA, allowing it to persist within macrophages

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43
Q

Define the bacterial characteristics of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Gram-positive, facultative anaerobe, rod-shaped

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44
Q

Define the pathogenesis of Dermatophilus congolensis

A

Motile zoospore attracted to CO2 on skin surface –> germinates on skin to produce a filament which invades epidermis and proliferates

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45
Q

What culture media should be used for Dermatophilus?

A

Blood agar (Not MacConkey or Sabouraud’s)

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46
Q

What category of Staph tends to have higher virulence and is therefore a good indicator of pathogenic potential?

A

Coagulase positive (Staph aureus, Staph pseud, Staph schleiferi subsp coagulans)

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47
Q

What specific type of coagulase negative Staph has a higher potential to be pathogenic compared to other CoNS?

A

Staph schleiferi subsp scheiferi

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48
Q

Name 5 characteristics of the skin that make dogs more susceptible to pyoderma than cats and humans.

A

1) Thin skin
2) Compact stratum corneum
3) lack of intercellular lipids
4) lack of lipid follicular plug
5) higher pH

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49
Q

How does Staph hyicus cause disease in pigs?

A

Exfoliative toxins (Exh, SHET) digest desmoglein-1 in the epidermis
(Greasy Pig Disease)

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50
Q

What species serves as a reservoir for MRSA in the US?

A

Horses (harbor MRSA strain USA 500)

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51
Q

In what cell type would you find Bartonella?

A

RBC

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52
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for Bartonella?

A

Blood culture, tissue culture

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53
Q

What is the primary species of Borrelia isolates in the US?

A

B. burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

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54
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia?

A

Ixodes scapularis/Deer tick/Black-legged tick
(and other Ixodes ticks)

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55
Q

Describe the pathomechanism of transmission of Borrelia from tick to host

A

Spirochetes multiply in tick while attached to reservoir host –> crosses tick gut into hemolymph –> disseminates to tick salivary glands –> inoculated into host dermis during bite –> spirochetes replicate and migrate through skin

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56
Q

What proteins allow for spirochetes to migrate from tick mid-gut to salivary gland before inoculating into the host skin?

A

Downregulation of OspA (outer surface protein) and increased expression of OspC (blocks clearance of spirochetes so they can disseminate)

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57
Q

What species are the reservoir for Borrelia?

A

Mammals (esp white footed mouse and other small mammals), birds

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58
Q

How long does a tick need to be attached in order to spread Lyme disease?

A

24-48 hours

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59
Q

What does a SNAP4Dx detect in Lyme disease?

A

presence of antibodies to the C6 peptide of Borrelia (encoded by the IR6 gene sequence in the variable surface lipoprotein component)

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60
Q

In what cell type would you find Ehrlichia?

A

leukocytes

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61
Q

What is the primary vector for Ehrlichia?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick)

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62
Q

What are the dermatologic signs of Ehrlichia?

A

Petechiation, ecchymoses

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63
Q

In what cell types would you find Anaplasma?

A

Leukocytes, RBCs, endothelial cells, platelets

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64
Q

What are possible dermatologic signs of RMSF?

A

Edema and hyperemia of lips, penile sheath, scrotum, pinnae, extremities; vesicles and macules on buccal mucosa, cutaneous necrosis

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65
Q

What are the clinical signs of impetigo?

A

Non-follicular superficial pustules (usually glabrous areas)

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66
Q

What organisms would you expect to find in necrotic skin with crepitus?

A

Bacteroides, Clostridium (gas-producing bacteria)

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67
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in bite wounds?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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68
Q

Is Staph gram positive or gram negative?

A

Positive

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69
Q

True or false: M. canis is part of the normal skin microbiome of dogs and cats

A

False

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70
Q

What cat breed is predisposed to dermatophytosis?

A

Persian

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71
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to dermatophytosis?

A

Yorkie
Working dogs (GSP, fox terrier, Lab, etc)

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72
Q

True or false: FIV and FeLV affected cats are at increased risk for dermatophytosis

A

False

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73
Q

What is the infective form of dermatophytes?

A

Arthrospores/arthroconidia

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74
Q

What is the typical source of Trichophyton infection?

A

Rodents and rodent burrows

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75
Q

What is the typical source of Microsporum gypseum infection?

A

Contaminated soil

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76
Q

What is required in order for dermatophytes to cause infection?

A

Skin microtrauma

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77
Q

What endoproteases are secreted by dermatophytes?

A

Subtilisins
Fungalysins

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78
Q

What is the function of fungal exoproteases?

A

Digest keratin into peptides and AAs

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79
Q

What type of immune response is necessary to cure dermatophytosis?

A

Cell-mediated

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80
Q

What type of dermatophyte lesion is associated with tissue grains?

A

Pseudomycetomas
Mycetomas

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81
Q

What genus of dermatophyte fluoresces?

A

Microsporum (plus T. schoenleinii)

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82
Q

What causes fluorescence of M. canis?

A

Pteridine within hair cortex/medulla

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83
Q

True or false: Hair shafts can fluoresce even when dermatophyte infection is cured.

A

True

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84
Q

What is the recommended mounting medium when examining trichogram for dermatophyte spores?

A

Mineral oil

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85
Q

True or false: The combination of miconazole and chlorhexidine is more effective against dermatophytosis than either ingredient alone.

A

True

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86
Q

What are the currently recommended topical treatments for dermatophytosis and how often should they be applied?

A

Twice weekly
Lime sulfur
Enilconazole (not available in USA)
Miconazole + chlorhex

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87
Q

What is considered the “mycologic cure” in dermatophytosis?

A

Two negative consecutive cultures taken at least 2 weeks apart

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88
Q

What are the most effective and safe oral treatments for dermatophytosis?

A

Itraconazole (NON-compounded)
Terbinafine

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89
Q

How often should bleach solutions be made when treating dermatophytosis in the environment?

A

At least once weekly

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90
Q

What are 3 important steps in disinfecting nonporous surfaces of dermatophytosis?

A

1) Mechanical removal of debris
2) Detergent application
3) Application of disinfectant

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91
Q

What water temperature should be used when washing laundry to eliminate dermatophytosis?

A

Any temp (two washes on longest cycle)

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92
Q

How often should environmental decontamination be done to help eliminate Ringworm?

A

Twice weekly

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93
Q

What is the primary dermatophyte pathogen in humans?

A

Trichophyton rubrum

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94
Q

A modified Fite-Faraco stain is applied to a tissue sample and is positive. You are trying to differentiate Nocardia from Actinomyces - which is most likely?

A

Nocardia
(Fite-Faraco is a modified acid fast stain)

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95
Q

Is Actinobacillus gram-negative or gram-positive?

A

Gram-negative (different from Actinomyces and Nocardia)

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96
Q

Is Actinobacillus aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Aerobic

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97
Q

What is another name for bacterial pseudomycetoma?

A

Botryomycosis

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98
Q

What bacteria are usually associated with pseudomycetoma formation??

A

Coagulase-positive Staph

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99
Q

Is Dermatophilus congolensis an aerobe or anaerobe?

A

Aerobe (or facultative anaerobe)

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100
Q

What is the most common aerobic bacteria isolated from cat bite wounds?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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101
Q

What bacterial infection has a “bundle of grapes” appearance clinically?

A

Botryomycosis

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102
Q

Is Mycobacteria an aerobe or anaerobe?

A

Aerobe

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103
Q

What virulence factors are responsible for causing the host granulomatous response in Mycobacterial infections?

A

Cord factor
Wax D

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104
Q

What subspecies of Mycobacteria are tuberculous?

A

M. tuberculosis
M. bovis
M. microti

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105
Q

How is M. bovis typically transmitted?

A

Through the GI tract

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106
Q

What are the most common body sites for localization and shedding of M. bovis?

A

Ileocecal LN

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107
Q

What body system is most likely to be affected by M. tuberculosis?

A

Lungs

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108
Q

What addition to culture media can improve the growth of M. tuberculosis and inhibit the growth of M. bovis?

A

Glycerol

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109
Q

Is Mycobacteria acid-fast?

A

Yes

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110
Q

What is the recommended treatment for animals diagnosed with M. tuberculosis?

A

Euthanasia (due to zoonotic risk)

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111
Q

Where are bacteria of the M. avium complex usually found?

A

Bird feces
Ubiquitous in soil/water

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112
Q

How is Mycobacterium avium complex usually transmitted?

A

Ingestion of organism

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113
Q

What are the typical cytology findings of Mycobacteria?

A

Organisms within macrophages

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114
Q

What are the 4 primary causative agents of feline leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium lepraemurium
Mycobacterium visible
Mycobacterium lepraefelis
Mycobacterium tarwinense

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115
Q

What breed is predisposed to canine leproid granuloma?

A

Boxers (short-coated breeds overrepresented)

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116
Q

You find negative-staining bacilli within macrophages on cytology of nodules from a Boxer’s head. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

leproid granuloma caused by Mycobacteria

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117
Q

What is the treatment recommendation for canine leproid granuloma?

A

Benign neglect- many will spontaneously regress in 1-3 months
Surgery
Rifampin/doxy/clarithromycin

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118
Q

Is there a public health risk in canine leproid granuloma?

A

No

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119
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of rapidly-growing Mycobacteria?

A

Panniculitis

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120
Q

What is the gold standard culture medium for identification of rapidly growing Mycobacteria?

A

Broth microdilution

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121
Q

Describe the acid-fast staining characteristics of Mycobacteria.

A

Positive on acid-fast

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122
Q

What is the geographical distribution of Mycobacterium tarwinense?

A

Australia

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123
Q

What body region(s) is typically affected by Mycobacterium tarwinense?

A

Head and ocular tissue

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124
Q

What body region(s) is typically affected by Mycobacterium lepraemurium?

A

Head (without significant ocular involvement)
Forelimbs

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125
Q

What is the proposed transmission of Mycobacterium lepraemurium?

A

Rodent bites

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126
Q

What subspecies of Mycobacterium typically affects older cats (>9 years) with feline leprosy?

A

M. lepraefelis

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127
Q

What species of Mycobacterium typically affects younger cats (<3 years) with feline leprosy?

A

M. lepraemurium

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128
Q

What type of feline leprosy is associated with an unfavorable prognosis?

A

Mycobacterium lepraefelis

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129
Q

What species of feline leprosy is suspected to be associated with immunosuppression/comorbidities?

A

M. lepraefelis

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130
Q

What species of Mycobacterium is associated with systemic involvement in cases of feline leprosy?

A

M. lepraefelis (liver)

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131
Q

Where does the disease process occur for rapidly-growing Mycobacteria species?

A

SQ fat (panniculitis)

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132
Q

Where does the disease process occur for slow-growing Mycobacteria species?

A

Dermis (nodules)

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133
Q

What is the most common Staph isolate in horses?

A

Staph aureus

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134
Q

What toxin produced by Staph influences bacterial binding?

A

Protein A

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135
Q

What gene confers beta-lactam resistance to Staph?

A

mecA

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136
Q

What are the 3 members of the Staph intermedius group?

A

Staph intermedius
Staph pseudintermedius
Staph delphini

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137
Q

Which gene is targeted using PCR to help differentiate coagulase-positive Staph species?

A

thermonuclease (nuc)

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138
Q

What sites are swabbed to determine Staph pseud carriage on dogs?

A

Oral mucosa
Perineum

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139
Q

What is the most commonly found Staph species colonizing cats?

A

Staph felis/Staph simulans

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140
Q

What is the most common Staph intermedius group member found on horses?

A

S. delphini

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141
Q

What cytotoxins are produced by Staph pseudintermedius?

A

Luk-1 (leukotoxic to PMNs)
alpha-hemolysin (hemolysis)
beta-hemolysin (hemolysis)

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142
Q

What exfoliative toxins does Staph pseud produce?

A

SIET (Staph pseud exfoliative toxin)
EXI (ExpA)
ExpB

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143
Q

What Staph toxins cause degradation of Dsg-1?

A

EXI, ExpB

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144
Q

What enterotoxins are produced by Staph pseud?

A

SEC (Staph enterotoxin C)
se-int

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145
Q

What is the function of MSCRAMMs in relation to Staph?

A

These are Staph proteins which play a role in bacterial attachment to the host ECM

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146
Q

What Staph pseud surface proteins (Sps) mediate Staph adherence to canine corneocytes?

A

SpsD
SpsO

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147
Q

What Staph pseud surface proteins (Sps) mediate Staph adherence to the ECM?

A

SpsD
SpsL

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148
Q

What Staph pseud gene encodes tetracycline resistance?

A

tet(M)

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149
Q

What Staph pseud gene encodes macrolide resistance?

A

erm(B)

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150
Q

What genera of fungus are typically found on the skin of dogs and cats?

A

Alternaria
Cladosporium
Epicoccum

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151
Q

Which breed of cat has higher carriage rates of Malassezia?

A

Devon Rex
Sphynx

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152
Q

Which special fungal stain will stain both living and nonviable fungi?

A

GMS

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153
Q

What can be stained by GMS that would not stain with PAS?

A

Oomycetes

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154
Q

What is the typical size of Malassezia?

A

3-8 um

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155
Q

What is the typical morphology of Candida?

A

3-4 um
ovoid shape

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156
Q

What is the typical morphology of dermatophytes?

A

2-3 um wavy parallel-walled hyphae
2 um arthrospores

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157
Q

What is the typical morphology of white-grain eumycotic mycetomas?

A

2-7 um septate, non-pigmented hyphae

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158
Q

What is the morphology of black-grain eumycotic mycetomas?

A

2-7 um pigmented hyphae
Septate

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159
Q

What is the morphology of hyalohyphomycosis?

A

2-6 um hyphae
Septate
parallel walls
Occasional acute-angle branching

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160
Q

What is the morphology of Aspergillus spp?

A

2-6 um hyphae
Septate
Parallel walls
Frequent acute angle branching

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161
Q

What is the morphology of mucorales?

A

8-20 um hyphae
Sparse septae
Nonparallel walls
Irregular branching

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162
Q

What is the morphology of entomophthoromycosis?

A

6-20 um hyphae (Basidiobolus)
5-12 um hyphae (Conidiobolus, shown in image)
Sparsely septate
Nonparallel walls
Rare irregular branching
Eosinophilic sleeve around hyphae

163
Q

What is the morphology of phaeohyphomycosis?

A

2-10 um pigmented hyphae with beaded appearance
4-15 um yeast-like form
+/- branching

164
Q

What is the morphology of chromoblastomycosis?

A

10-20 um pigmented Medlar bodies
Transverse and longitudinal septae

165
Q

What is the morphology of Lagenidium?

A

8-25 um
Nonparallel walls
Irregular branching
Rare septae
Does not stain with PAS

166
Q

What is the morphology of Pythium?

A

2-7 um
Nonparallel walls
Irregular branching
Rare septae
Does not stain with PAS

167
Q

What is the causative agent in “thrush”?

A

Candida

168
Q

What is unique about Candida growth compared to other opportunistic fungi?

A

It grows as yeast, hyphae, and pseudohyphae simultaneously

169
Q

What is the morphology of Blastomyces?

A

5-20 um yeast
Double contoured wall
Broad-based budding

170
Q

What is the morphology of Histoplasma?

A

2-4 um round yeast
Clear halo
Thin cell wall

171
Q

What type of fungal stain is best to highlight Histoplasma?

A

GMS

172
Q

What is the morphology of Cryptococcus?

A

2.5-20 um oval yeast
Thick capsule (“soap bubble”)

173
Q

What stain is best to highlight Cryptococcus?

A

Mucicarmine

174
Q

What is the morphology of Coccidiodes?

A

20-80 um spherules containing endospores
Double contoured wall

175
Q

What is the morphology of Sporothrix?

A

3-10 um long cigar-shaped yeasts
Yeasts often in macrophages

176
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte in pigs?

A

M. nanum

177
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte in cattle?

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

178
Q

Define hyalohyphomycosis.

A

Fungal infection caused by opportunistic, non-dermatophytic saprophytes that grow as NON-PIGMENTED hyphae in tissue

179
Q

What are the features of eumycotic mycetomas?

A

1) tumefaction
2) tissue grains within exudate
3) draining tracts

180
Q

What are the typical causative agents of black grain eumycotic mycetomas?

A

Curvularia lunata
Curvularia geniculata
Cladophialophora bantiana
Phialophora oxyspora

181
Q

What are the typical causative agents of white-grain eumycotic mycetomas?

A

Pseudallescheria boydii (Scedosporium)
Penicillium dupontii

182
Q

What is usually surrounding eumycotic mycetomas on histopathology?

A

Splendore-Hoeppli

183
Q

Is Aspergillus pigmented or non-pigmented?

A

Non-pigmented (looks like hyalohyphomycosis)

184
Q

Are Mucorales pigmented or non-pigmented?

A

Non-pigmented

185
Q

Are entomophthorales pigmented or non-pigmented?

A

Non-pigmented

186
Q

What are the primary causes of entomophthoromycosis?

A

Conidiobolus
Basidiobolus

187
Q

What are the typical clinical signs of Coniodiobolus coronatus in horses?

A

Rhinitis and sinusitis

188
Q

How could you differentiate an oomycete infection from entomophthoromycosis on histopath?

A

Entomophthoromycosis would stain with PAS, oomycetes do not

189
Q

Define phaeohyphomycosis

A

Cutaneous/SQ infection caused by PIGMENTED opportunistic fungal hyphae that do not result in tissue grain formation

190
Q

What stain could be used to highlight melanin within fungal cell walls when they don’t stain routinely on H+E, aiding in the dx of phaeohyphomycosis?

A

Fontana-Masson

191
Q

What type of infection is associated with sclerotic bodies/Medlar bodies?

A

Chromoblastomycosis (a subset of pigmented fungi)

192
Q

What type of fungi do oomycetes most closely resemble?

A

Entomophthorales (Conidiobolus spp, Basidiobolus spp)

193
Q

What oomyctes cause oomycosis?

A

Lagenidium
Pythium

194
Q

What organism are oomycetes most closely related to?

A

Algae

195
Q

What is the primary component of an oomycete cell WALL?

A

Cellulose

196
Q

What is the primary component of the oomycete cell MEMBRANE?

A

B-glucan

197
Q

What is the primary component of the fungal cell WALL?

A

Chitin

198
Q

What is the primary component of the fungal cell MEMBRANE?

A

Ergosterol

199
Q

True are false: most animals with oomycete infections are immunocompromised.

A

False

200
Q

What clinical feature helps differentiate Lagenidium from Pythium?

A

Lagenidium infrequently involves GIT and more frequently involves lymphadenopathy

201
Q

What oomycete is associated with slowly progressive disease and a better prognosis?

A

Paralagenidium (karlingii)

202
Q

What stain is best to highlight infection caused by oomycetes on histopath?

A

GMS

203
Q

Why is PAS stain a poor choice for highlighting oomycetes?

A

They have no chitin in the cell wall

204
Q

Define dimorphic fungi

A

Fungi that exist as hyphae in culture and as yeasts/spherules in tissue

205
Q

Are dimorphic fungi opportunistic or primary pathogens?

A

Primary pathogens

206
Q

Name 5 dimorphic fungi of pathogenic significance in animals

A

Histoplasma
Coccidiodes
Cryptococcus
Blastomyces
Sporothrix

207
Q

Where is Histoplasma usually found in the environment?

A

Organic matter in bat feces

208
Q

What species of Histoplasma typically infects equids?

A

H. farciminosum

209
Q

Where in the environment is Blastomyces typically found?

A

Moist, acidic soil near woods or decaying vegetation

210
Q

Where in the environment is Coccidiodes usually found?

A

Arid soil in SW USA (Valley Fever)

211
Q

Where in the environment is Cryptococcus usually found?

A

Nitrogen-rich alkaline debris contaminated with pigeon feces

212
Q

Where in the environment is Sporothrix usually found?

A

Tropical/subtropical soil and decaying plant matter (central/south America)

213
Q

Do dimorphic fungi usually cause cutaneous or systemic disease?

A

Systemic (cutaneous is uncommon)

214
Q

How are dimorphic fungi usually acquired?

A

Via inhalation (exception: Sporothrix)

215
Q

What dimorphic fungi preferentially affects bone?

A

Coccidiodes

216
Q

What fungal organism is associated with endosporulation?

A

Coccidiodes

217
Q

What is the likely organism demonstrated in this image?

A

Coccidiodes (endosporulation within spherules)

218
Q

What is the likely organism demonstrated in this image?

A

Cryptococcus (thick clear capsule)

219
Q

What is the organism highlighted in this image and what is the stain demonstrated?

A

Cryptococcus, mucicarmine

220
Q

What type of organism is Leishmania?

A

Protozoa

221
Q

How is Leishmania transmitted?

A

Bite from Phlebotomus and Lutzomyia sandflies

222
Q

What are the 3 forms of leishmaniasis in humans?

A

Cutaneous
Mucocutaneous
Visceral

223
Q

Describe the life cycle of Leishmania

A

1) Lives in host macrophages as amastigotes –>
2) amastigotes multiply and rupture out of macs –>
3) sandfly ingests amastigote after sucking blood from host –>
4) transform into flagellated promastigote form in sandfly gut –>
5) promastigotes multiply and detach from gut epithelia to travel to mouthparts –>
6) promastigotes injected into host skin when sandfly bites and become amastigotes again

224
Q

What cytokines have induced antileishmanial activity of macrophages?

A

IFN-gamma
IL-2
TNF-a

225
Q

What claw manifestation may be seen with canine Leishmania?

A

Onychogryphosis (hypertrophy and abnormal curvature of claws)

226
Q

True or false: Dogs with cutaneous signs of Leishmania often have concurrent visceral disease

A

True

227
Q

What are the most common cutaneous presentations for canine leishmaniasis?

A

1) Exfoliative dermatitis with silver scaling and alopecia
2) Ulcerative dermatitis over bony prominences, paws, MCJ, pinnae

228
Q

What are the most common signs of visceral involvement in canine leishmaniasis?

A

Weight loss
Muscle atrophy

229
Q

What is the most common cause of death in canine leishmaniasis?

A

Renal failure due to immune complex deposition

230
Q

True or false: Leishmania parasites are usually not found on blood smear

A

True

231
Q

What tissue is most likely to yield positive PCR for Leishmania?

A

Bone marrow/LN (>skin>conjunctiva>buffy coat>whole blood)

232
Q

What stain allows for best detection of Leishmania amastigotes on cytology?

A

Giemsa

233
Q

What are the nine inflammatory patterns that have been associated with cutaneous leishmaniosis?

A

1) Superficial perivascular dermatitis
2) Deep perivascular dermatitis
3) Granulomatous perifolliculitis
4) Interstitial dermatitis
5) Suppurative folliculitis
6) Lichenoid interface dermatitis
7) Lobal panniculitis
8) Nodular dermatitis
9) Intraepidermal pustular dermatitis

234
Q

What prevention measures are recommended for Leishmania?

A

Permethrin, imidacloprid
Keep dogs inside at dusk and dawn
Vaccination

235
Q

True or false: Most dogs treated for Leishmaniasis are cured.

A

False - most remain carriers despite symptoms resolving

236
Q

What breed is a reservoir for visceral leishmaniasis in North America?

A

Foxhounds

237
Q

Is Actinomyces gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-positive

238
Q

What is the length of treatment for Actinomycosis?

A

Weeks-months past clinical resolution

239
Q

What species of Nocardia usually affects humans, dogs, and cats in the SW US?

A

Nocardia brasiliensis

240
Q

What species of Nocardia usually affects dogs and cats from the western US and Australia?

A

Nocardia nova

241
Q

What form of nocardiosis is most common in humans?

A

Pulmonary

242
Q

What form of nocardiosis is most common in cats?

A

Cutaneous/SQ

243
Q

What atypical bacterial infection is usually associated with a mixed bacterial population?

A

Actinomycosis

244
Q

Define rapidly-growing mycobacteria

A

Mycobacteria that form colonies on solid media within 7 days

245
Q

What are the three syndromes of rapidly-growing Mycobacteria in dogs and cats?

A

1) Panniculitis (most common)
2) Pyogranulomatous pneumonia
3) Disseminated systemic disease

246
Q

Would a rapidly growing Mycobacterial infection prefer a fat cat or a skinny cat?

A

Fat cat – prefers higher adiposity

247
Q

What species of Leishmania is usually associated with cutaneous/MC disease?

A

L. braziliensis

248
Q

What type of T-cells are protective against Leishmania infection and can lyse infected macrophages?

A

CD8+ (Cytotoxic)

249
Q

What determines whether a dog infected with Leishmania will develop disease?

A

Immune response at time of inoculation

250
Q

Describe the structure of canine distemper virus

A

enveloped ssRNA virus

251
Q

What virus is associated with hard pad disease?

A

Canine distemper virus

252
Q

What is another name for porcine herpesvirus-1?

A

Pseudorabies

253
Q

What is the structure of porcine herpesvirus-1?

A

enveloped dsDNA alpha-herpesvirus

254
Q

What species is the main reservoir for Pseudorabies?

A

Pigs

255
Q

What are the main clinical signs of Pseudorabies in dogs?

A

Intense upper body pruritus
Ptyalism

256
Q

What is the prognosis for Pseudorabies in dogs?

A

Grave - death within 48 hours of CS

257
Q

What is the structure of feline herpesvirus-1?

A

ds DNA virus with glycoprotein-lipid envelope

258
Q

What is the structure of feline calicivirus?

A

small non-enveloped ssRNA virus

259
Q

What virus is associated with URI, oral ulcers, and acute lameness in cats?

A

Calicivirus

260
Q

What is the structure of papillomavirus?

A

small, non-enveloped, dsDNA virus

261
Q

What type of immunity is necessary for regression of papillomas?

A

Cellular

262
Q

What genes encode for viral capsid proteins in papillomavirus?

A

L1, L2

263
Q

What gene regulates viral DNA replication in papillomavirus?

A

E1

264
Q

What gene activates transcription in papillomavirus?

A

E2

265
Q

What gene modulates the immune response of infected cells in papillomavirus?

A

E3

266
Q

What gene disrupts cytokeratins and facilitates viral release in papillomavirus?

A

E4

267
Q

What genes are oncogenes responsible for cell immortalization in papillomavirus?

A

E6, E7

268
Q

How does papillomavirus gene E7 cause cell immortalization?

A

binds and inhibits retinoblastoma (Rb), a tumor suppressor protein

269
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of canine papillomavirus

A

Virus infects basal KC –> genome replication in S. spinosum and S. granulosum –> release of new infectious virus in keratinized squames

270
Q

What are the cytopathic effects of papillomavirus?

A

1) Acanthosis and hyperkeratosis due to increased mitosis
2) Formation of koilocytes in upper S. spinosum
3) Giant keratohyalin granules in SG
4) Intranuclear inclusion bodies
5) Expanded blue-gray cytoplasm with enlarged nuclei and marginated chromatin

271
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to exophytic cutaneous papillomas?

A

Kerry blue terriers
Cocker spaniels

272
Q

What breeds are predisposed to pigmented viral plaques?

A

Pugs
Miniature Schnauzers

273
Q

What is the typical age of onset for feline cutaneous papillomas?

A

Middle-aged and older (unlike dogs)

274
Q

What test would be recommended to confirm a lesion is viral?

A

IHC

275
Q

What papilloma syndrome in dogs usually regresses on its own?

A

oral papillomatosis (takes ~3 months)

276
Q

Which cell receptors recognize dsRNA viruses?

A

TLR3
Rig-like receptors

277
Q

Which TLRs recognize ssRNA viruses?

A

TLR7
TLR8

278
Q

Which receptors detect DNA viruses?

A

TLR9

279
Q

Which cytokine is produced within hours of virus invasion, prior to adaptive immunity?

A

type I interferons (IFN-a, IFN-beta)

280
Q

What is the primary virus-neutralizing antibody?

A

IgG

281
Q

What protein allows distemper virus to penetrate host cells?

A

H protein

282
Q

What protein allows distemper virus to fuse infected and noninfected cells?

A

F protein

283
Q

Where are inclusion bodies typically found in distemper virus?

A

Intracytoplasmic > intranuclear

284
Q

What papillomavirus is associated with canine oral papillomas?

A

CPV-1

285
Q

How is FeLV transmitted?

A

Saliva (food bowls, grooming)

286
Q

Describe the structure of FeLV

A

enveloped ssRNA

287
Q

What viral family is FeLV a member of?

A

Retrovirus

288
Q

What IHC stain can be done to diagnose FeLV?

A

gp70

289
Q

How is FIV transmitted?

A

Cat bites

290
Q

What virus is associated with cutaneous horns in cats?

A

FeLV

291
Q

What virus family is distemper a member of?

A

Paramyxovirus

292
Q

What is the reservoir for feline poxvirus?

A

Rodents

293
Q

Is feline poxvirus zoonotic?

A

Yes - fatal to immunocompromised humans

294
Q

Is feline poxvirus reportable?

A

Yes

295
Q

What is the causative agent of feline poxvirus?

A

Cowpox

296
Q

Where are inclusion bodies of poxvirus found?

A

Intracytoplasmic in KC (eosinophilic inclusions)

297
Q

Describe the structure of feline poxvirus

A

enveloped dsDNA

298
Q

What is another name for “orf?”

A

Contagious ecthyma
Contagious viral pustular dermatitis

299
Q

Is Orf zoonotic?

A

Yes - painful umbilicated papules/nodules

300
Q

Is Orf reportable?

A

No

301
Q

What is the seasonal distribution for feline poxvirus?

A

summer and fall

302
Q

What is the primary causative agent of feline herpesviral dermatitis?

A

FHV-1

303
Q

True or false: Oral lysine has been demonstrated to be of major benefit in treatment of feline herpesvirus

A

False

304
Q

What papillomaviruses are associated with cutaneous papillomatosis in dogs?

A

CPV-1
CPV-2
CPV-6
CPV-7

305
Q

Are dogs who have recovered from oral papillomatosis usually reinfected?

A

No- they are immune to reinfection

306
Q

What breeds are predisposed to cutaneous inverted papillomas?

A

Beagles
Bernese Mt Dogs
Cocker Spaniels
Kerry Blue Terriers
Great Danes
Irish Setters
Whippets

307
Q

What CPV are associated with pigmented viral plaques?

A

CPV 3-5, 8-12, 15, 16, 18

308
Q

What is the causative agent of feline sarcoids?

A

Bovine papillomavirus-14

309
Q

What virus has been associated with feline bowenoid in situ carcinoma?

A

Feline papillomavirus-2

310
Q

Describe the structure of FIV

A

enveloped ssRNA

311
Q

What is the structure of Orf virus?

A

enveloped dsDNA

312
Q

Where are inclusions found in feline herpesvirus?

A

Intranuclear (basophilic)

313
Q

What virus has been associated with exfoliative erythema multiforme following URI?

A

FHV-1

314
Q

Where does calicivirus remain latent in cats?

A

Oropharynx
Tonsils

315
Q

Which virus has a hemorrhagic virulent form in cats?

A

Calicivirus

316
Q

Which T-cell subset is essential in the cell-mediated immunity to fight papillomavirus?

A

CD4+ (T-helper)

317
Q

What is a typical history in a cat with cutaneous fibropapillomas/feline sarcoids?

A

Exposure to cattle

318
Q

Are Rickettsia gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-negative

319
Q

What organism typically transmits Rickettsia ricketsii?

A

Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mt wood tick)
Dermacentor variabilis (American Dog tick)

320
Q

What organism typically transmits Ehrlichia canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineous (Brown dog tick)

321
Q

What species is the definitive host of Toxoplasma?

A

Cats

322
Q

In what cells would you find toxoplasma organisms?

A

Macrophages

323
Q

What species is the definitive host of Neospora?

A

Dogs and coyotes

324
Q

A dog is presented with multisystemic disease and pyogranulomatous dermatitis. What 2 organisms should be evaluated via serology?

A

Neospora
Toxoplasma

325
Q

What breed has the highest incidence of Babesia canis?

A

Greyhounds

326
Q

What breed has the highest incidence of Babesia gibsoni?

A

Pitbulls

327
Q

What is the typical distribution of skin lesions in Leishmania?

A

Head
Pinnae
Extremities

328
Q

What is typically the earliest cutaneous sign of RMSF in dogs?

A

Edema and hyperemia of extremities

329
Q

In what cells does Rickettsia replicate?

A

Endothelial cells

330
Q

What serves as the greatest human health risk in a dog with RMSF?

A

Exposure to tick feces and hemolymph (use forceps when removing!)

331
Q

In what cell type would you find Ehrlichia organisms?

A

Macrophages

332
Q

What antibiotic class would you want to avoid when treating Mycoplasma or L-form infections?

A

Beta-lactams (they generally lack a cell wall)

333
Q

What is the primary clinical sign of borreliosis?

A

Polyarthropathy

334
Q

What is the most common species of Staph in food animals?

A

S. aureus

335
Q

What Staph organisms are part of the normal skin flora in food animals?

A

S. aureus
S. hyicus

336
Q

What is the major MRSA strain associated with swine?

A

ST398

337
Q

What exfoliative toxins from S. hyicus are associated with the pathogenesis of greasy pig disease?

A

Exh A, B, C, D
SHETA
SHETB

338
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of greasy pig disease

A

Staph hyicus toxins digest desmoglein-1 –> scale/crust

339
Q

Is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae zoonotic?

A

Yes

340
Q

Is Erysipelothrix fast-growing or slow-growing on culture?

A

Slow-growing

341
Q

What is the infectious stage of Dermatophilosis congolensis?

A

Zoospore

342
Q

Is Dermatophilosis congolensis zoonotic?

A

Yes (Pruritic/painful pustules or nodules)

343
Q

What is the causative agent of lumpy jaw in cattle?

A

Actinomyces bovis

344
Q

What is the causative agent of “wooden tongue” in cattle?

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

345
Q

At what part of the hair follicle does a dermatophyte stop growing?

A

Adamson’s fringe

346
Q

What are the growth requirements for T. verrucosum?

A

Thiamine
Inositol

347
Q

What is the cause of “swamp cancer”?

A

Pythium insidiosum

348
Q

How are cats infected with cowpox?

A

Hunting rodents

349
Q

What papillomaviruses have been associated with equine sarcoids?

A

BPV-1>BPV-2

350
Q

What is the causative agent of teat fibropapillomas?

A

BPV-1

351
Q

What is the causative agent of head/neck/shoulder fibropapillomas in cattle?

A

BPV-2

352
Q

What does Staph protein A bind to?

A

Fc portion of IgG

353
Q

Which Lancefield groups of Strep are beta-hemolytic?

A

A, B, C, G, E, L, M

354
Q

What is the only Lancefield Group A Strep?

A

Strep pyogenes

355
Q

What organism is primarily responsible for fading puppy syndrome?

A

Strep canis

356
Q

What Lancefield group is Strep canis part of?

A

Group G

357
Q

What are the most commonly zoonotic poxviruses of large animals?

A

Pseudocowpox (parapoxvirus)
Contagious Viral Pustular Dermatitis (orf)
Bovine papular stomatitis (parapoxvirus)

358
Q

What organism can mechanically transmit poxvirus?

A

Stomoxys calcitrans (stable fly)

359
Q

What is a vector in the spread of swinepox?

A

Haematopinus suis (swine louse)

360
Q

What condition is a “horseshoe scab” pathognomonic for in cattle?

A

Pseudocowpox

361
Q

What poxvirus has a vaccine that should be given annually?

A

Orf

362
Q

What are the typical lesions of Orf?

A

Proliferative lesions with thick crusts (lips, muzzle, nostrils, eyelids, teats, udders)

363
Q

Does poxvirus in ruminants require treatment?

A

No - low mortality and is self-limiting (careful for zoonosis)

364
Q

What is the causative agent of Valley Fever?

A

Coccidiodes

365
Q

What antigen is detected on enzyme immunoassay for Blasto, Coccidioides, and Histoplasma?

A

galactomannan

366
Q

What are the virulence factors of Malassezia?

A

1) Thick cell wall
2) Biofilm
3) Phospholipase A2
4) Production of enzymes (sphingomyelinase, chitin deacetylase)

367
Q

What receptor expressed by phagocytes selectively recognizes Malassezia but not other fungi?

A

Mincle – binds glucosyl and mannosyl glycolipids

368
Q

What receptor expressed by Langerhans cells is a PRR for commensal and pathogenic fungi?

A

Langerin – recognizes mannose and B-glucan

369
Q

What cat breeds are predisposed to Malassezia?

A

Sphynx
Devon Rex

370
Q

What are fungal cell walls made of?

A

Chitin
Chitosan
Mannan
Glucan

371
Q

What should be added to a culture plate for growth of Trichophyton equinum?

A

Niacin

372
Q

What antigens are virulence factors for Blastomyces, causing adherence of yeast to host cells?

A

BAD1
WI-1

372
Q

What organism causes ringworm in hedgehogs?

A

Trichophyton erinacei

373
Q

Which dog breeds have an increased risk of disseminated Coccidiomycosis infection?

A

Boxers
Dobermans

374
Q

What occurs in inflamed skin that stimulates Malassezia to produce more phospholipase?

A

Endogenous opioids (i.e. beta-endorphin)

375
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for treatment of toxic shock syndrome?

A

Clindamycin

376
Q

What causes Mycobacteria to be positive on acid-fast?

A

High mycolic acid lipid content in their walls

377
Q

What organisms are most likely to cause black grain mycetomas?

A

Curvularia geniculata
Madurella

378
Q

What organism is likely to cause white grain mycetoma?

A

Pseudallescheria
Acremonium

379
Q

What is the major strain type for MRSP in the US?

A

ST68

380
Q

What is the major strain type for MRSP in Japan and Europe?

A

ST71

381
Q

What is essential for antibiotic treatment of Brucella canis?

A

combine multiple antibiotics (tetracycline + FQ or aminoglycoside + sulfonamide)

382
Q

How long should dogs in an infected Brucella kennel be tested for after seronegative status is reached?

A

3 months

383
Q

Which Brucella species cause disease in people?

A

B. canis
B. abortus
B. suis
B. melitensis

384
Q

Why is B. canis less virulent than other Brucella species?

A

It lacks LPS in cell wall

385
Q

What cutaneous lesions can be seen with Burkholderia?

A

Ulcers
Chronic abscesses and SQ granulomas

386
Q

What is the definition of extensively drug resistant (XDR)?

A

Susceptibility to <=2 antimicrobial classes

387
Q

What is the definition of multidrug resistant?

A

Resistance to >= 2 antimicrobial classes

388
Q

Where is the most consistent site of Staph carriage in dogs and cats?

A

Oral cavity

389
Q

What is the best predictor of pathogenic potential of a Staph strain?

A

Ability to coagulate plasma

390
Q

What Staph species are carried most frequently by cats?

A

S. aureus
S. pseudintermedius

391
Q

What is the most frequently isolated MRSA strain from pets in the US?

A

CC22

392
Q

What genes expressed by Staph pseud confer resistance to tetracyclines?

A

tet(M)
tet(K)

393
Q

What tetracycline will Staph be susceptible to if it possesses tet(K) but not tet(M)?

A

Minocycline

394
Q

In equine sarcoid, what early genes of the virus possess transforming capability?

A

E5, 6, 7

395
Q

In equine sarcoids, what early genes of the virus regulate replication and transcription?

A

E 1, 2, 4

396
Q

Which viral genes encode structural proteins in BPV?

A

late genes (L1, 2)

397
Q

Which BPV viral genes have been positively correlated with disease severity in equine sarcoids?

A

E 2, 5, 6, 7
L 1, 2

398
Q

Which BPV viral genes function as the major oncoproteins that stimulate sarcoid development in horses?

A

E 2, 5, 6, 7

399
Q

True or false: BPV DNA has been found in non-sarcoid lesions in horses and in normal equine skin

A

True

400
Q

What controls the invasiveness of equine sarcoids?

A

MMP 1, 2, 3

401
Q

What horse breeds are predisposed to develop sarcoids?

A

QH + Franches-Montagnes > TB> SB

402
Q

What stain could be applied to a slide to highlight Leishmania kinetoplasts?

A

Giemsa

403
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Leishmania?

A

PCR on bone marrow or LN

MK ACVD Exam (18 decks)

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