Infectious Diseases Flashcards
Aedes aegyptes is the mosquito that transmits _____
Zika and Dengue
Anopheles mosquitos transmit _______
Malaria - Falciparum
Tsetse flies transmits _______
Sandflies transmit _________
Ixodes ticks transmit ________
Tsetse flies transmits trypanosomiasis.
Sandflies transmit leishmaniasis.
Ixodes ticks transmit Lyme disease.
Toxoplasmosis crosses the placenta ______ weeks after maternal infection
4-8 weeks
If mother get Toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy what do you treat her with?
And if amniotic fluid is positive?
Spiramycin
Pyrimethamine plus Sulphadiazine (supplement with folonic acid)
What are the most common clinical findings in a newborn with congenital Toxoplasmosis?
85% of congenitally infected infants appear normal at birth
85% of these will suffer one or more episodes opf chorioretinitis if left untreated
Hearing loss in 10-30%
Developmental delay in 20-75%
How long and what do you treat a newborn with confirmed diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine + Folonic acid
Treat until 12 months of age (immune competent)
Are the risks of meningitis higher in EOS or LOS?
LOS
Perinatal syphillis can present in various ways - list atleast 5/7 of common signs seen?
- Osteochondritis/periostitis
- Snuffles, haemorrhagic rhinitis
- Skin changes: bullous lesions, palms/soles involved
- Unexplained enlarged placenta
- Nephrotic syndrome (rare, usually at 2-3 months of age)
- Hepatosplenomegaly +/- splenomegaly jaundice
- Non immune hydrops fetalis
Darkfield microscopy for spirochetes is seen in ______
Syphillis
If a mother is HBsAg positive and maternal HBeAg is positive - the rate of transmission:
- with treatment?
- without treatment?
- With treatment - 7-28%
- Without treatment 90%
RIsk of congenital rubella infection:
<8 weeks: XX
8-12 weeks: XX
12-20 weeks: XX
>20 weeks: XX
<8 weeks: 100%
8-12 weeks: 50%
12-20 weeks: 20%
>20 weeks: <1 %
Vaccine related birth defects in 1% if vaccine given first 4 weeks of pregnancy
Congenital XX syndrome:
SNHL (58%) + Eyes (cataracts, retinopathy, micropthalmia 43%), Cardiac (PDA, PS stenosis) + neurodevelopmental disability
Congenital rubella syndrome!
What time period of neonatal exposure to maternal varicella warrants treatment with ZIG?
If mother develops Varicella 7 days before delivery or 7 days after delivery
When is varicella normally infectious?
Varicella (chickenpox) is infectious from 48 hours before rash until crusting of all lesions has occurred (usually 5 days after rash starts).
Multiple plasmodium in an RBC is indicative of _______
Falciparum
Strep on agar plate with green haemolysis seen?
Alpha haemolytic
Three viruses with high R0 value?
Measles, pertussis, polio
What meningococcal vaccines are available?
Meningicoccal C conjugate
Meningicoccal conjugate vaccine - ACWY
(Above funded in australia)
Meningicoccal B vaccine
- there is a new 4C meningicoccal B vaccine
Which meningicoccal strain is on the rise?
W
Which vaccinations should be given in pregnancy?
Influenzae and pertussis
When during the pregnancy is the immunisation recommended?
Funded from 13 weeks gestation (recommended in second trimester)
HBIG can be administered upto ____ days after delivery
7 days
Check the Hep b status of babies with infected mothers at ___ months
at 9 mo
Check HbsAg and HBsAb
Vaccination prior to immunosuppression?
- complete all age appropriate vaccinations according to schedule
- Live viral vaccines are recommended prior to planned immunosuppression - if time permits
- Immunosuppression should not be delayed
If a patient is on high dose Azathioprine (>3mg/kg), 6-MP (>1.5mg/kg) or Methotrexate (>0.4mg/kg) how long do you delayed the administration of live vaccines?
Delay for 3 months after discontinuation
How long do you delay live vaccines after Leflunomide, teriflunomide?
6 months after discontinuation
How long after IVIG do you delay live vaccines?
?10 months
How long do you delay vaccines if a patient is on Sirolimus?
6 months
How much do you delaye vaccines for most biologics?
12 months
AUC/MIC is important in prescription of which anitbiotics
Vancomycin, azithromycin, fluoroquinolone, aminoglycosides
CMax/MIC is imporrtant in prescription of which antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones
Vancomycin has no effect on ______-
Gram negatives
P. Aerigunosa is intrinsically resistant to ______
Cefotaxime (and other first and second Gen Cephs)
Enterococci have intrinsic resistant to ______
Cephalosporins
E. Faecalis - need to use Pen or Amox; or vanc
How does Clavulonic acid work?
Inhibits beta lactamase
Cephalosporins are resistant to ________ produced by Staph Aureus
Penicillinase (beta-lactamase)
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime and Ceftazidime are ______ generation cephalosporin
Cefepime is a _____ generation cephalosporin
3rd generation
4th Generation
Which cephalosporins will have some pseudomonas cover?
Ceftaroline and Cefepime
How do beta lactams work?
PBP (penicillin binding protein) normally connect and help form the bacterial cell wall - Beta lactams help bind onto PBP’s
What are the narrowest penicillin?
Pen V and Pen G
What bacteria are 1st generation cephalosporin effective against?
Stretococci
Staphylococci
Proteus
Escheria Coli
Klebsiella