Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of Dermatomyositis?

A

Characteristic rash, plus three of the following:

  • Muscle weakness
  • Muscle enzyme elevation (CK, LDH, AST)
  • EMG changes ((increased insertional activity, fibrillations, sharp waves)
  • Muscle biopsy (focal necrosis and phagocytosis of muscle fibers, fiber regeneration, endomysial proliferation, inflammatory cell infiltrates)
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2
Q

Lab findings in Juvenile Dermatomyositis:

  • ANA positive in 80%
  • Myositis associated antibodies (non-specific) - what are they?
  • Myositis specific antibodies - what are they?
A

Presence of MAAs such as SSA, SSB, Sm, ribonucleoprotein (RNP), and double-stranded (ds) DNA may increase the likelihood of overlap disease or connective tissue myositis.

anti–Jo-1, anti–Mi-2, anti-p155/140, anti-NXP2, and other myositis-specific autoantibodies help define distinct clinical subsets

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3
Q

In Juvenile Dermatomyocarditis and other rheumatological disorders, antibodies to ______ are often associated with complications with pulmonary interstitial fibrosis and cardiac involvement

A

Pm/Scl antibodies

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4
Q

What are three specific common long term complications with dermatomyositis?

A

Vasculitis (including, but uncommonly GI), Lipodystrophy (progressive loss of subcut and visceral fat) and calcinosis

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5
Q

This fever syndrome is associated with a classic rash.

Other clinical findings include scrotal pain caused by inflammation of the tunica vaginalis testis, febrile myalgia, exercise-induced myalgia (particularly common in children), and an association with various forms of vasculitis, including Henoch-Schönlein purpura, in as many as 5% of pediatric patients

A

FMF

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6
Q

_________ is caused by autosomal recessive mutations in MEFV, a gene encoding a 781 amino acid protein denoted pyrin (Greek for “fever”).

What is the inheritance pattern of this syndrome and what age group does it affect?

A

FMF - inheritance pattern is autosomal recessive.

Commonly seen affecting ids under the age of 20

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7
Q

Are FMF mutations gain of function or loss of function?

A

Affect MEFV gene

FMF mutations lead to a gain-of-function activation of caspase-1 and IL-1β–dependent inflammation

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8
Q

What is the incidence of amyloidosis in FMF if left untreated?

A

Amyloidosis

Serum AA, an acute-phase reactant found at extremely high levels in the blood during FMF attacks, is cleaved to produce a 76–amino acid fragment that misfolds and deposits ectopically, usually in the kidneys, GI tract, spleen, lungs, testes, thyroid, and adrenals.

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9
Q

The most common presenting sign of AA amyloidosis is ______.

A

proteinuria

The diagnosis is then usually confirmed by rectal or renal biopsy

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10
Q

HIDS, also known as _______ deficiency

A

HIDS, also known as mevalonate kinase deficiency

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11
Q

HIDS and FMF are both autosomal recessive conditions. What are key differentiating features?

Age?
Symptoms?

A

Age - HIDS presents at <1yo of life; FMF at <20 yr

Symptoms:
- HIDS: Febrile attacks last 3-7 days, with abdominal pain often accompanied by diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. Other differentiating cervical lymphadenopathy, diffuse macular rash, aphthous ulcers, headaches, and occasional splenomegaly

  • FMF: Febrile attacks last 1-3 days, arthralgia, peritonitis, pleuritis and pericarditis dominate. Classic erypselias rash
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12
Q

In what three fever syndromes is Amyloidosis most common?

A

FMF - 60% if untreated
TRAPS - 25% if untreated
MWS - 30% if untreated

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13
Q

How is HIDS commonly diagnosed?

A
  • 2 mutations in MVK (approximately 10% of patients with seemingly typical disease have only a single identifiable mutation) OR
  • Elevated levels of mevalonate in the urine during acute attacks

Mevalonate kinase - MVK

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14
Q

What age group and what are the duration of attacks in TRAPS?

A

First decade of life - longer attacks 1-4 weeks as compared to FMF/HIDS

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15
Q

Which syndrome?

Misfolded TNFR1 aggregates intracellularly and leads to constitutive signaling through mitogen-activated protein kinases or nuclear factor (NF)-κB, resulting in the release of proinflammatory cytokines such as IL-6, IL-1β and TNF-α.

A

TRAPS

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16
Q

Age of onset in Cryopyrin assoc fever syndromes is?

A

<6mo of age

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17
Q

Which Fever syndrome?

Affects kids <1yo, attacks can be hours to days, some arthraligia but present with aspectic meningitis, deafness, conjunctivitis and can have raised ICP/optic disc oedema, progressive SNHL or visual impairment

A

NOMID

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18
Q

Factor H deficiency is associated with:

A

Atypical haemolytic-uremic syndrome

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19
Q

C1 INH deficiency is associated with ______

A

Hereditary angioedema

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20
Q

Name four common SCID genetic abnormalities?

A

1) IL2R gamma deficiency
2) RAG1
3) JAK3
4) ADA

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21
Q

Which allergies are kids most likely to outgrow?

A

Milk, egg, wheat and soya

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22
Q

Aspergillus or fungal infections are more likely to occur in absence of which immune cell?

A

Most commonly neutrophils

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23
Q

Test for CGD?

A

Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) test

Stimulate a respiratory burst

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24
Q

Child presents with firmly attached umbilical cord and high neutrophil count?

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect; often poor healing (leukocytes not allowed outside the circulation)

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25
Q

What is the most common X-linked SCID? (genetic defect

Also has T-, NK-, B+

A

IL-2 Gamma chain defect

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26
Q

Which SCID has an autosomal pattern of inheritance and presents with absence of T cells and NK cells?

A

JAK3

27
Q

Anti-Ro and/or Anti-La are usually positive in?

A

Sjogrens syndrome

Rh factor is also positive

28
Q

What triad does Sarcoidosis present with?

A

Granulomatous rash + eye involvement + joint involvement

29
Q

c-ANCA positive + PR3 positive =

A

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

PR3 positive makes the ANCA sensitivity more significant

30
Q

Long after IVIG for Kawasaki disease can a child have live immunisation?

A

11 months

31
Q

When does measles IgM peak in relation to rash onset?

A

5 days after

32
Q

Which immune complications can chylothorax present with?

A

Immunedeficiencies due to leaking of T and B cells and immunoglobulin

33
Q

Which of the following lymphocyte cell markers is responsible for the increased immunogenicity with the conjugate pneumococcal vaccine?

A

CD4 T cells

Conjugation allows a CD4 positive T cell to present the protein

34
Q

What is the target of Omalizumab?

What is it indicated for?

A

IgE

Asthma and chronic urticaria

35
Q

What drug targets IL4 and -IL13?

What is it indicated for?

A

Dupilumab

Targets Th2 response for asthma and eczema

36
Q

What drug targets IL5?

A

Mepolizumab (targets eosinophilia)

37
Q

Tocilizumab targets ?

A

IL-6

38
Q

During which phase in B cell development are somatic hypermutations least likely to occur?

A

Antigen independent phase

Somatic hypermutation - some B cell make IgM and then some undergo a somatic hypermutation to make IgG and other antibodies.

Somatic hypermutation leads to affinity maturation. Affinity maturation increases with time

39
Q

Which immunoglobulin reaches adult level by 12mo?

A

IgM (IgA and IgG by 7yo)

40
Q

Which cytokine is responsible for eosinophil activation?

A

IL-5

41
Q

What is the role of IL-17 and what condition is it involved in?

A

Psoriasis

42
Q

Which HLA type is most commonly associated with Coeliac disease?

A

HLA DQ2

Presents the Gliadin peptide

43
Q

HLA B27 is associated with which 5 arthritis?

A
Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriatic arthritis
IBD- related arthritis
Reactive arthritis
Enthesitis related
44
Q

MHC Class II is most commonly found on which of the following cells?

A

B cells?

45
Q

Which cytokine is associated with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?

A

IL-17 blockage

46
Q

Which cytokine predisposes to COVID-19?

A

Autoantibodies to Type I interferon (interferon A, B, and omega)

(APS I - similar pathophysiology + other antibodies to cytokines)

47
Q

STAT3, the hyper IgE molecule, also is relevant as the master regulator of Th_ cells

A

Th17 cells

also get mucocutaneous candidiasis

48
Q

Defective protein in complement system leads to susceptibility to which bug?

A

Complement pathway

Neisseria associated with Alternate complement pathway defect

49
Q

Properidin defect seen in…

boys or girls?

A

Boys!

50
Q

In CGD, the mechanism of abnormal phagocytic cell function is…

A

Failure to produce reactive oxidation species

51
Q

Which cytokine plays a role in promoting the Th2 immune response?

A

IL-4 (and IL-13)

52
Q

Which cytokine plays a role in promoting the Th1 immune response?

A

Interferon gamma

important for intracellular bacteria (Mycobacteria)

53
Q

Which cytokines play the important role in primary immune response to viruses?

A

Interferon type I (interferon alpha, beta and gamma)

54
Q

Which is the principal cell responsible for immune response to viruses?

A

NK cells

55
Q

Most appropriate and gold standard test fo X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia?

A

Most appropriate - lymphocyte subsets - you would see absence of B cells

Gold standard - BTK genetic testing

56
Q

Which auto-inflammatory condition associated with PYRIN?

A

Familial Mediterranean fever

57
Q

Wiskott aldrich can have various low Immunoglobulins…typically Ig_ low

A

Typically IgA low

58
Q

2YO girl presents with second episode of meningicoccaemia. What would be the best initial test?

A

AH50 (Complement activity, alternate pathway)

59
Q

How is SCID detected on NBST?

A

TREC screening program (fewer TRECS -> SCID)

60
Q

Immunodeficiency + delayed secondary dentition =

A

HyperIgE syndrome

61
Q

How do you treat PIMMS-TS?

A

Steroids, then IVIG

62
Q

On hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining, what colour do each of the three granulocytes present?

Neutrophil?
Eosinophil?
Basophil?

A

Neutrophil - pink
Eosinophil - red
Basophil - dark blue

63
Q

Which complement factor is responsible for attracting neutrophils/polymorphs?

A

C5a