Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of Dermatomyositis?

A

Characteristic rash, plus three of the following:

  • Muscle weakness
  • Muscle enzyme elevation (CK, LDH, AST)
  • EMG changes ((increased insertional activity, fibrillations, sharp waves)
  • Muscle biopsy (focal necrosis and phagocytosis of muscle fibers, fiber regeneration, endomysial proliferation, inflammatory cell infiltrates)
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2
Q

Lab findings in Juvenile Dermatomyositis:

  • ANA positive in 80%
  • Myositis associated antibodies (non-specific) - what are they?
  • Myositis specific antibodies - what are they?
A

Presence of MAAs such as SSA, SSB, Sm, ribonucleoprotein (RNP), and double-stranded (ds) DNA may increase the likelihood of overlap disease or connective tissue myositis.

anti–Jo-1, anti–Mi-2, anti-p155/140, anti-NXP2, and other myositis-specific autoantibodies help define distinct clinical subsets

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3
Q

In Juvenile Dermatomyocarditis and other rheumatological disorders, antibodies to ______ are often associated with complications with pulmonary interstitial fibrosis and cardiac involvement

A

Pm/Scl antibodies

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4
Q

What are three specific common long term complications with dermatomyositis?

A

Vasculitis (including, but uncommonly GI), Lipodystrophy (progressive loss of subcut and visceral fat) and calcinosis

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5
Q

This fever syndrome is associated with a classic rash.

Other clinical findings include scrotal pain caused by inflammation of the tunica vaginalis testis, febrile myalgia, exercise-induced myalgia (particularly common in children), and an association with various forms of vasculitis, including Henoch-Schönlein purpura, in as many as 5% of pediatric patients

A

FMF

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6
Q

_________ is caused by autosomal recessive mutations in MEFV, a gene encoding a 781 amino acid protein denoted pyrin (Greek for “fever”).

What is the inheritance pattern of this syndrome and what age group does it affect?

A

FMF - inheritance pattern is autosomal recessive.

Commonly seen affecting ids under the age of 20

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7
Q

Are FMF mutations gain of function or loss of function?

A

Affect MEFV gene

FMF mutations lead to a gain-of-function activation of caspase-1 and IL-1β–dependent inflammation

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8
Q

What is the incidence of amyloidosis in FMF if left untreated?

A

Amyloidosis

Serum AA, an acute-phase reactant found at extremely high levels in the blood during FMF attacks, is cleaved to produce a 76–amino acid fragment that misfolds and deposits ectopically, usually in the kidneys, GI tract, spleen, lungs, testes, thyroid, and adrenals.

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9
Q

The most common presenting sign of AA amyloidosis is ______.

A

proteinuria

The diagnosis is then usually confirmed by rectal or renal biopsy

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10
Q

HIDS, also known as _______ deficiency

A

HIDS, also known as mevalonate kinase deficiency

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11
Q

HIDS and FMF are both autosomal recessive conditions. What are key differentiating features?

Age?
Symptoms?

A

Age - HIDS presents at <1yo of life; FMF at <20 yr

Symptoms:
- HIDS: Febrile attacks last 3-7 days, with abdominal pain often accompanied by diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. Other differentiating cervical lymphadenopathy, diffuse macular rash, aphthous ulcers, headaches, and occasional splenomegaly

  • FMF: Febrile attacks last 1-3 days, arthralgia, peritonitis, pleuritis and pericarditis dominate. Classic erypselias rash
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12
Q

In what three fever syndromes is Amyloidosis most common?

A

FMF - 60% if untreated
TRAPS - 25% if untreated
MWS - 30% if untreated

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13
Q

How is HIDS commonly diagnosed?

A
  • 2 mutations in MVK (approximately 10% of patients with seemingly typical disease have only a single identifiable mutation) OR
  • Elevated levels of mevalonate in the urine during acute attacks

Mevalonate kinase - MVK

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14
Q

What age group and what are the duration of attacks in TRAPS?

A

First decade of life - longer attacks 1-4 weeks as compared to FMF/HIDS

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15
Q

Which syndrome?

Misfolded TNFR1 aggregates intracellularly and leads to constitutive signaling through mitogen-activated protein kinases or nuclear factor (NF)-κB, resulting in the release of proinflammatory cytokines such as IL-6, IL-1β and TNF-α.

A

TRAPS

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16
Q

Age of onset in Cryopyrin assoc fever syndromes is?

A

<6mo of age

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17
Q

Which Fever syndrome?

Affects kids <1yo, attacks can be hours to days, some arthraligia but present with aspectic meningitis, deafness, conjunctivitis and can have raised ICP/optic disc oedema, progressive SNHL or visual impairment

A

NOMID

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18
Q

Factor H deficiency is associated with:

A

Atypical haemolytic-uremic syndrome

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19
Q

C1 INH deficiency is associated with ______

A

Hereditary angioedema

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20
Q

Name four common SCID genetic abnormalities?

A

1) IL2R gamma deficiency
2) RAG1
3) JAK3
4) ADA

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21
Q

Which allergies are kids most likely to outgrow?

A

Milk, egg, wheat and soya

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22
Q

Aspergillus or fungal infections are more likely to occur in absence of which immune cell?

A

Most commonly neutrophils

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23
Q

Test for CGD?

A

Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) test

Stimulate a respiratory burst

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24
Q

Child presents with firmly attached umbilical cord and high neutrophil count?

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect; often poor healing (leukocytes not allowed outside the circulation)

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25
What is the most common X-linked SCID? (genetic defect | Also has T-, NK-, B+
IL-2 Gamma chain defect
26
Which SCID has an autosomal pattern of inheritance and presents with absence of T cells and NK cells?
JAK3
27
Anti-Ro and/or Anti-La are usually positive in?
Sjogrens syndrome | Rh factor is also positive
28
What triad does Sarcoidosis present with?
Granulomatous rash + eye involvement + joint involvement
29
c-ANCA positive + PR3 positive =
Granulomatosis with polyangitis PR3 positive makes the ANCA sensitivity more significant
30
Long after IVIG for Kawasaki disease can a child have live immunisation?
11 months
31
When does measles IgM peak in relation to rash onset?
5 days after
32
Which immune complications can chylothorax present with?
Immunedeficiencies due to leaking of T and B cells and immunoglobulin
33
Which of the following lymphocyte cell markers is responsible for the increased immunogenicity with the conjugate pneumococcal vaccine?
CD4 T cells | Conjugation allows a CD4 positive T cell to present the protein
34
What is the target of Omalizumab? What is it indicated for?
IgE Asthma and chronic urticaria
35
What drug targets IL4 and -IL13? What is it indicated for?
Dupilumab Targets Th2 response for asthma and eczema
36
What drug targets IL5?
Mepolizumab (targets eosinophilia)
37
Tocilizumab targets ?
IL-6
38
During which phase in B cell development are somatic hypermutations least likely to occur?
Antigen independent phase Somatic hypermutation - some B cell make IgM and then some undergo a somatic hypermutation to make IgG and other antibodies. Somatic hypermutation leads to affinity maturation. Affinity maturation increases with time
39
Which immunoglobulin reaches adult level by 12mo?
IgM (IgA and IgG by 7yo)
40
Which cytokine is responsible for eosinophil activation?
IL-5
41
What is the role of IL-17 and what condition is it involved in?
Psoriasis
42
Which HLA type is most commonly associated with Coeliac disease?
HLA DQ2 Presents the Gliadin peptide
43
HLA B27 is associated with which 5 arthritis?
``` Ankylosing spondylitis Psoriatic arthritis IBD- related arthritis Reactive arthritis Enthesitis related ```
44
MHC Class II is most commonly found on which of the following cells?
B cells?
45
Which cytokine is associated with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?
IL-17 blockage
46
Which cytokine predisposes to COVID-19?
Autoantibodies to Type I interferon (interferon A, B, and omega) (APS I - similar pathophysiology + other antibodies to cytokines)
47
STAT3, the hyper IgE molecule, also is relevant as the master regulator of Th_ cells
Th17 cells | also get mucocutaneous candidiasis
48
Defective protein in complement system leads to susceptibility to which bug?
Complement pathway Neisseria associated with Alternate complement pathway defect
49
Properidin defect seen in... boys or girls?
Boys!
50
In CGD, the mechanism of abnormal phagocytic cell function is...
Failure to produce reactive oxidation species
51
Which cytokine plays a role in promoting the Th2 immune response?
IL-4 (and IL-13)
52
Which cytokine plays a role in promoting the Th1 immune response?
Interferon gamma important for intracellular bacteria (Mycobacteria)
53
Which cytokines play the important role in primary immune response to viruses?
Interferon type I (interferon alpha, beta and gamma)
54
Which is the principal cell responsible for immune response to viruses?
NK cells
55
Most appropriate and gold standard test fo X linked hypogammaglobulinaemia?
Most appropriate - lymphocyte subsets - you would see absence of B cells Gold standard - BTK genetic testing
56
Which auto-inflammatory condition associated with PYRIN?
Familial Mediterranean fever
57
Wiskott aldrich can have various low Immunoglobulins...typically Ig_ low
Typically IgA low
58
2YO girl presents with second episode of meningicoccaemia. What would be the best initial test?
AH50 (Complement activity, alternate pathway)
59
How is SCID detected on NBST?
TREC screening program (fewer TRECS -> SCID)
60
Immunodeficiency + delayed secondary dentition =
HyperIgE syndrome
61
How do you treat PIMMS-TS?
Steroids, then IVIG
62
On hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining, what colour do each of the three granulocytes present? Neutrophil? Eosinophil? Basophil?
Neutrophil - pink Eosinophil - red Basophil - dark blue
63
Which complement factor is responsible for attracting neutrophils/polymorphs?
C5a