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Internal Medicine > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Translation of viral genome in dengue fever happens in the?

A

Cytoplasm

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2
Q

Process of releasing new dengue viruses into the circulation ?

A

Exocytosis

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3
Q

Genetic variation in dengue viruses?

A

Generally endemic in multiple regions , with establishment into additional territories.

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4
Q

Dengue warning signs? (10)

A

LALAMOVE PH
1. Lethargy
2. Abdominal pain
3. Liver enlargement >2cm
4. Anuria
5. Mucosal bleeding
6. Oliguria
7. Vomiting, persistent
8. Edema/ clinical fluid accumulation
9. Platelet decrease
10. Hematocrit increase

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5
Q

Supportive treatment of acute dengue?

A
  1. Maintaining hydration with oral or parenteral fluids.
  2. Paracetamol as antipyretic or analgesic
  3. Platelet transfusion in more severe cases of thrombocytopenia

NSAIDs are contraindicated for management of pain and fever because of potential increase in bleeding risk.

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6
Q

Dengue vaccine indications?

A

9 to 16 yo with laboratory confirmed previous dengue infection and living in endemic areas.

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7
Q

Most common presenting symptom of meningitis in adults?

A

Headache

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8
Q

Petechial rash in meningococcal meningitis ?

A
  1. Rapidly spreading
  2. Non-blanching
  3. Purple or red spots
  4. Small and irregular
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9
Q

Complications of meningoencephalitis?

A
  1. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
  2. Myocarditis
  3. Sepsis
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10
Q

Most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis next to Neisseria meningitidis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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11
Q

Most likely cause of meningitis in patients with HIV -AIDS negative for meningococcemia.

A

Fungal

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12
Q

Genus of the etiologic agent causing Rabies.

A

Lyssavirus

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13
Q

Transmission of rabies?

A

Bite of an infective animal with the Lyssavirus

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14
Q

Treatment after exposure (dog bite) that can prevent rabies.

A

10 days

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15
Q

Pneumonia expected CBC result?

A
  1. Increased WBC ( NV: 4500-11000)
  2. Increased Neutrophils ( NV 2,500-8,000)
  3. Decreased Lymphocytes (NV 1000-4800)
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16
Q

Morphology of Steptococcus pneumoniae ?

A

Gram +, lancet shaped

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17
Q

Antibiotic of choice for pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

No co-morbid Illness:
- Amoxicillin (DOC)
- Extended Macrolides ( Azithromycin, Clarithromycin)

Stable with co-morbidities:
- B lactam / BLIC combination
- 2nd gen Cephalosporins
- (+/-) Extended Macrolides

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18
Q

40/M with CC: DOB , (+) fever, dry cough for 5 days.
PE: crackles at both bases & right mid lung fields, Expected PE findings?

A
  • RR of 32 / min
  • HR of 120 / min
  • Apical S3 or 3rd heart sound
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19
Q

40/M with CC: DOB , (+) fever, dry cough for 5 days.
PE: crackles at both bases & right mid lung fields, Expected ABG findings?

A
  1. Oxygen saturation of 80%
  2. pH of 7.45
  3. Partial pressure of O2 of 55mmHg
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20
Q

Most common cause of UTI?

A

E. Coli

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21
Q

Primary antibiotics for UTI?

A
  1. Nitrofurantoin
  2. Fosfomycin
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22
Q

Specific treatment for dysuria caused by UTI ?

A

Phenazopyridine

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23
Q

Salmon-colored maculopapular rash on the trunk and chest of patients with typhoid fever?

A

Rose spots

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24
Q

Relative bradycardia at the peak of high fever seen in diseases such as typhoid fever and yellow fever?

A

Faget sign

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25
Q

This states that an increase of temperature corresponds to an increase of heart rate?

A

Liebermeister’s Rule

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26
Q

Risk factors for chronic carriage with salmonella?

A
  1. Biliary abnormalities
  2. Bladder infection with Schistosoma haematobium
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27
Q

Treatment for chronic carriage with Salmonella?

A

Oral Ciprofloxacin for 4 weeks

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28
Q

Neuropsychiatric complications of typhoid fever?

A

Coma vigil or Muttering delirium

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29
Q

Triad in Weil’s Syndrome?

A
  1. Hemorrhage ( usually pulmonary)
  2. Jaundice
  3. Acute kidney Injury
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30
Q

Treatment for Mild leptospirosis?

A

Doxycycline ( or amoxicillin or azithromycin)

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31
Q

Treatment for severe leptospirosis?

A

IV Penicillin

32
Q

Dramatic although self limited reaction with fever , chills, myalgia, tachycardia, and mild hypotension following initiation of antibiotic treatment for spirochete infection?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction

33
Q

Diagnostic test for Malaria?

A

Thick and thin smears

34
Q

Screens for the presence of Malarial organisms?

A

Tick smears

35
Q

For species identification of malaria?

A

Thin smears

36
Q

Highest yield of thick and thin smears ?

A

Blood sample taken during fever 2-3hrs after peak

37
Q

Punctuate granulation present in RBCs invaded by P. ovale and P. vivax

A

Schuffner dots

(Shuffner dots = P. Ovale and P vivax : SOVrang madaming dots)

38
Q

Coarse granulations present in RBCs invaded by P. falciparum?

A

Maurer dots

39
Q

Fine dots present in RBCs invaded by P. malariae?

A

Ziemann dots

40
Q

Malarial or Druck granulomas are seen in?

A

Cerebral Malaria

41
Q

Fundoscopy finding in a patient diagnosed with Cerebral Malaria with encephalopathy?

A

Retinal whitening

42
Q

Acute renal failure in Malaria?

A

Black water fever

43
Q

Septic shock in Malaria

A

Algid Malaria

44
Q

Areas of high endemicity in malaria?

A

Palawan
Kalinga Apayao
Ifugao
Agusan del Sur KAPAI

45
Q

Areas of chloroquine resistance malaria?

A

Palawan
Davao del Norte
Compostela valley

46
Q

Malaria disease that can cause Mild disease?

A

Vivax & Ovale & Malariae

47
Q

Plasmodium species that can cause severe Malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

48
Q

First-line treatment for most malarial infections?

A

Artemisinin-based therapy

49
Q

Drug of choice for severe malaria?

A

Artesunate

50
Q

Hemorrhagic macules on the toes , foot, or palm in patients with infective endocarditis?

A

Janeway lesions

51
Q

Major criteria in Duke’s Criteria for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Positive blood culture ( persistently positive or typical microorganisms for IE)
  2. Evidence of endocardial involvement
52
Q

Characteristic Rash in Meningococcemia?

A

Non-blanching petechial rash

53
Q

Sepsis associated bilateral adrenal hemorrhage usually caused by N. meningitidis?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

54
Q

Median length of the asymptomatic period for HIV/ AIDS?

A

Prolonged asymptomatic stage after initial infection.
Median Time: 10 years

55
Q

Leading cause of meningitis in patients with HIV-AIDS?

A

Cryptococcus

56
Q

Leading cause of pneumonia in patients with HIV-AIDS?

A

Pneumocytis

57
Q

Leading cause of esophagitis in patients with HIV-AIDS?

A

Candida

58
Q

Incubation period of STDs like Gonorrhea and Chlamydia.

A

2-5 days

59
Q

Diagnostic of choice for gonococcal and chlamydial genital tract infections?

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test

60
Q

Broad pink and gray-white , highly infectious lesions usually seen in interiginous areas in patients with secondary Syphilis?

A

Condylomata lata

61
Q

Drug stages for all stages of Syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

62
Q

Drug of choice for all stages of Syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

63
Q

Alternative antibiotic for penicillin-allergic patients with syphilis?

A

Doxycycline or Tetracycline

64
Q

Despite penicillin allergy , syphilis should still be treated with penicillin G ( with desensitization) in these populations? (3)

A
  1. Neurosyphilis
  2. Pregnant women
  3. HIV infected with late stage Syphilis
65
Q

Reliable specimen for confirmatory test if suspecting Gonorrhea or Chlamydia?

A
  1. Urine for both male and female
  2. Vaginal swab
  3. Rectal swab
66
Q

Inhibits helminthic microtubules, ovicidal?

A

Mebendazole

67
Q

Inhibits microtubules, ovicidal and larvicidal. Drug of choice for hydati disease / echinococcosis.

A

Albendazole

68
Q

DOC for filarial disease and loa loa

A

Diethylcarbamazine

69
Q

Side effect filarial fever

A

Diethycarbamazine

70
Q

DOC for Strongyloides and Onchocerca?

A

Ivermectin

71
Q

SE Mazzoti reaction?

A

Ivermectin

72
Q

DOC for Entorobius infection ?

A

Pyrantel pamoate

73
Q

DOC for Trichinosis?

A

Thiabendazole

74
Q

DOC for trematodes and cestodes except echinococcosis?

A

Praziquantel

75
Q

Back up drug to Praziquantel?

A

Niclosamide

Internal Medicine (12 decks)

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