Infectious Disease

Question 1

Ertapenem does not cover?

Answer 1

P. Aeroginusa

Question 2

Carbepenems have good

Answer 2

Gram Negative, Gram Positive, and anerobes (do not cover atypicals)

Question 3

Cephalosporins do not have what coverage?

Answer 3

Anaerobic Coverage

Question 4

Complicated UTI requires how many days of abxs?

Answer 4

7 days

Question 5

Uncomplicated UTI requires how many days of abxs?

Answer 5

3 days

Question 6

Ciprofloxacin, does this have Pseudomonas coverage? What does Ciprofloxacin normally not treat?

Answer 6

Yes

Strept PNA infection, cannot treat

Question 7

Levofloxacin is usually used to treat what?

Answer 7

Can treat gram positive infections, usually can treat respiratory pathogens

Question 8

Moxifloxacin is usually used for what?

Answer 8

Can treat respiratory pathogens, poor pseudomonas coverage, only quinolone that has good anerobic coverage

Question 9

Delafloxacin has what unusal characteristics?

Answer 9

Only MRSA coverage from -quinolone family, anaerobic activity

Question 10

Imipenem, can have CNS toxicity, why is this drug good?

Answer 10

Broad range activity

Question 11

Can Imipenem be given for meningitis?

Answer 11

No, but Meropenem can be used for meningitis

Question 12

Ertapenem cannot cover what?

Big advantage is what?

Answer 12

Gram +, Acinterobacteria, and P. Aergonosa

One injection a day and long half life

Question 13

Diplopia, dysarthria, dysphonia, and dysphagia with descending motor weakness is what, usually?

Answer 13

Botulism

Question 14

Blood Sputum, sick contact with pneumonia 3-4 days ago, sometimes this is seen with a rat exposure?

Answer 14

Yersinia pestis

Question 15

Smallpox treatment for a patient with a fever, 2 weeks ago?

Answer 15

Tecovirimat, monitor for additional signs of rash, and provide supportive treatment

Question 16

Pulmonary anthrax, what is the treatment?

Answer 16

Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin

Question 17

Y. Pestis exposure, what should be given?

Answer 17

Administer doxycycline for prophylaxis against plague for 7 days

Question 18

Anthrax infection, unlikely if the patient has rhinorrhea or sneezing, true or false?

Answer 18

True

Question 19

Ebola infection risk is minimal after how many days?

Answer 19

21 days

Question 20

Smallpox has what signs?

Answer 20

Small dots on the face, oropharynx on the face

Question 21

What infectious pathology is this:

Hilar fullness on chest Xray, mediastinal fullness/widening, what is this most likely?

Answer 21

Anthranx

Question 22

Pneumonic Plague may result from exposure to aerosols from an infected person, as well as what?

Answer 22

Bubonic Plague

Question 23

Pulmonary Anthrax is what treatment?

Answer 23

Ciprofloxacin and Clindamycin

Question 24

Pneumonic Plague is what treatment?

Answer 24

Streptomycin or gentamicin

Question 25

Ebola prophylactic treatment is what?

Answer 25

Single room, private bathroom, healthcare workers

Question 26

When is smallpox most contagious?

Answer 26

At the time the rash develops, following 7-10 days

Question 27

Patient has dysphagia and odynophagia. Patient has HIV, what should be done?

Answer 27

Start Fluconzole, if patient is unresponsive to antifungals, patient will need an endoscopy and biopsy for anti-virals.

Question 28

Patient has a Herpes Zoster vaccine desire, what is the proper vaccine schedule?

Answer 28

After age 50, the patient should have a recombinant vaccine once, and repeat vaccine 2-6 months after the first dose.

Question 29

What complement molecule is deficient with N. Gonorrhea?

Answer 29

5b

Question 30

Yeast/Fungi with broad, non-septae hyphae, what is this?

Answer 30

Mucormycosis

Question 31

Yeast/Fungi with narrow based budding is what?

Answer 31

Cryptococcus

Question 32

Yeast/Fungi with broad based budding is what?

Answer 32

Blastomycosis

Question 33

Hyphae and yeast cells that have a spaghetti and meatballs pattern, is what?

Answer 33

Pityriasis Versicolor KOH

Question 34

Dermatocyte infections can be treated with topical creams except which infection locations?

Answer 34

Tinea Capitis and Onchomycosis

Question 35

Early Latent Syphilis, what is the definition? What is the treatment?

Answer 35

Syphilis that does not have any signs or symptoms (no primary or secondary symptoms), disease timeframe/sexual encounter history is less than 1 years IM penicillin x 1 time

Question 36

Late latent Syphilis, what is the definition? What is the treatment?

Answer 36

Syphilis that does not have any signs or symptoms (no primary or secondary symptoms), disease timeframe/sexual encounter history that is greater than 1 year or is unknown IM penicillin once a week for 3 weeks, 3 total IM injections

Question 37

A recent TB exposure, initial TB skin testing is negative, when should a repeat TB test be done?

Answer 37

8-12 weeks after exposure (look for window period)

Question 38

Malaria treatment, what is the first line?

Answer 38

Artemether-lumefantrine

Question 39

Atovaquone-proguanil Quinine Sulfate + doxy Mefloquine These are treatments for what disease?

Answer 39

Malaria

Question 40

HIV patient, the CD4 count is less than 50. 1) What should be given for treatment prophylaxis? 2) What should not be given for treatment prophylaxis?

Answer 40

1) Should give Bactrim 2) Should not give Azithromycin for MAC prophylaxis treatment

Question 41

HIV patient has a CD4 count less than 200. What should be given for opportunistic infection prophylaxis and what are concerned about?

Answer 41

Bactrim and Pneumocystitis Jirovecii (CD4 count less than 200)

Question 42

HIV patient has a CD4 count less than 100. What should be given for opportunistic infection prophylaxis and what are concerned about?

Answer 42

Bactrim and Toxoplasmosis

Question 43

If a patient has a negative HIV viral load, CD4 count above 200 for at least 3 months, what can be done?

Answer 43

Bactrim Prophylaxis can be stopped

Question 44

Can women breast feed with an HIV infection?

Answer 44

No, they cannot

Question 45

What disease has conjunctival suffusion is the redness or erythema of the conjunctiva. There is no pus or exudate that is typically seen with conjunctival. What rare tropical infection can cause this disease?

Answer 45

Leptospirosis

Question 46

Patient with HIV (CD4 count less than 150) and an area with elevated Histoplasmosis cases (10 or more a year), is prophylaxis recommended?

Answer 46

Yes, should receive itraconazole

Question 47

HIV and Latent TB concern (TST > 5mm) or positive IGRA result, what should be given?

Answer 47

3 months of Isoniazid plus rifapentine or rifampin

Question 48

Patients with HIV and CD4 count less than 50, do we routinely start azithromycin or clarithyomycin?

Answer 48

Not anymore, a 2022 guideline recommends against starting abx prophylaxis, if that test positive, can give abx

Question 49

When a patient has Candida albican in their blood stream, what screening test should be done? What is the treatment?

Answer 49

Do an eye exam (concern for endophthalmitis) Echincocandin