Infectious Disease Flashcards
Ertapenem does not cover?
P. Aeroginusa
Carbepenems have good
Gram Negative, Gram Positive, and anerobes (do not cover atypicals)
Cephalosporins do not have what coverage?
Anaerobic Coverage
Complicated UTI requires how many days of abxs?
7 days
Uncomplicated UTI requires how many days of abxs?
3 days
Ciprofloxacin, does this have Pseudomonas coverage? What does CIprofloxacin normally not treat?
Yes
Strept PNA infection, cannot treat
Levofloxacin is usually used to treat what?
Can treat gram positive infections, usually can treat respiratory pathogens
Moxifloxacin is usually used for what?
Can treat respiratory pathogens, poor pseudomonas coverage, only quinolone that has good anerobic coverage
Delafloxacin has what unusal characteristics?
Only MRSA coverage from -quinolone family, anaerobic activity
Imipenem, can have CNS toxicity, why is this drug good?
Broad range activity
Can Imipenem be given for meningitis?
No, but Meropenem can be used for meningitis
Ertapenem cannot cover what?
Big advantage is what?
Gram +, Acinterobacteria, and P. Aergonosa
One injection a day and long half life
Diplopia, dysarthria, dysphonia, and dysphagia with descending motor weakness is what, usually?
Botulism
Blood Sputum, sick contact with pneumonia 3-4 days ago, sometimes this is seen with a rat exposure?
Yersinia pestis
Smallpox treatment for a patient with a fever, 2 weeks ago?
Tecovirimat, monitor for additional signs of rash, and provide supportive treatment
Pulmonary anthrax, what is the treatment?
Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin
Y. Pestis exposure, what should be given?
Administer doxycycline for prophylaxis against plague for 7 days
Anthrax infection, unlikely if the patient has rhinorrhea or sneezing, true or false?
True
Ebola infection risk is minimal after how many days?
21 days
Smallpox has what signs?
Small dots on the face, oropharynx on the face
What infectious pathology is this:
Hilar fullness on chest Xray, mediastinal fullness/widening, what is this most likely?
Anthranx
Pneumonic Plague may result from exposure to aerosols from an infected person, as well as what?
Bubonic Plague
Pulmonary Anthrax is what treatment?
Ciprofloxacin and Clindamycin
Pneumonic Plague is what treatment?
Streptomycin or gentamicin
Ebola prophylactic treatment is what?
Single room, private bathroom, healthcare workers
When is smallpox most contagious?
At the time the rash develops, following 7-10 days
Patient has dysphagia and odynophagia. Patient has HIV, what should be done?
Start Fluconzole, if patient is unresponsive to antifungals, patient will need an endoscopy and biopsy for anti-virals.
Patient has a Herpes Zoster vaccine desire, what is the proper vaccine schedule?
After age 50, the patient should have a recombinant vaccine once, and repeat vaccine 2-6 months after the first dose.
What complement molecule is deficient with N. Gonorrhea?
5b
Yeast/Fungi with broad, non-septae hyphae, what is this?
Mucormycosis
Yeast/Fungi with narrow based budding is what?
Cryptococcus
Yeast/Fungi with broad based budding is what?
Blastomycosis
Hyphae and yeast cells that have a spaghetti and meatballs pattern, is what?
Pityriasis Versicolor KOH
Dermatocyte infections can be treated with topical creams except which infection locations?
Tinea Capitis and Onchomycosis
Early Latent Syphilis, what is the definition?
What is the treatment?
Syphilis that does not have any signs or symptoms (no primary or secondary symptoms), disease timeframe/sexual encounter history is less than 1 years
IM penicillin x 1 time
Late latent Syphilis, what is the definition?
What is the treatment?
Syphilis that does not have any signs or symptoms (no primary or secondary symptoms), disease timeframe/sexual encounter history that is greater than 1 year or is unknown
IM penicillin once a week for 3 weeks, 3 total IM injections
A recent TB exposure, initial TB skin testing is negative, when should a repeat TB test be done?
8-12 weeks after exposure (look for window period)
Malaria treatment, what is the first line?
Artemether-lumefantrine
Atovaquone-proguanil
Quinine Sulfate + doxy
Mefloquine
These are treatments for what disease?
Malaria
HIV patient, the CD4 count is less than 50.
1) What should be given for treatment prophylaxis?
2) What should not be given for treatment prophylaxis?
1) Should give Bactrim
2) Should not give Azithromycin for MAC prophylaxis treatment
HIV patient has a CD4 count less than 200. What should be given for opportunistic infection prophylaxis and what are concerned about?
Bactrim and Pneumocystitis Jirovecii (CD4 count less than 200)
HIV patient has a CD4 count less than 100. What should be given for opportunistic infection prophylaxis and what are concerned about?
Bactrim and Toxoplasmosis
If a patient has a negative HIV viral load, CD4 count above 200 for at least 3 months, what can be done?
Bactrim Prophylaxis can be stopped
Can women breast feed with an HIV infection?
No, they cannot
What disease has conjunctival suffusion is the redness or erythema of the conjunctiva. There is no pus or exudate that is typically seen with conjunctival. What rare tropical infection can cause this disease?
Leptospirosis
Patient with HIV (CD4 count less than 150) and an area with elevated Histoplasmosis cases (10 or more a year), is prophylaxis recommended?
Yes, should receive itraconazole
HIV and Latent TB concern (TST > 5mm) or positive IGRA result, what should be given?
3 months of Isoniazid plus rifapentine or rifampin
Patients with HIV and CD4 count less than 50, do we routinely start azithromycin or clarithyomycin?
Not anymore, a 2022 guideline recommends against starting abx prophylaxis, if that test positive, can give abx
When a patient has Candida albican in their blood stream, what screening test should be done?
What is the treatment?
Do an eye exam (concern for endophthalmitis)
Echincocandin
