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2015 to 2019 journals > Infectious disease > Flashcards

Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

What class of antibiotic is Meropenem? what is it effective against?

A 
Meropenem is a β-lactam antibiotic of the carbapenem class with a wide spectrum, active against many aerobic and anaerobic gram-positive (except MRS and  MREnterococcus species) and gram-negative bacteria and it is relatively stable against the hydrolysis of many β-lactamases. Carbapenems are more potent bactericidal and have longer post-antibiotic effect than other β-lactams because they bind to PBP-1 and PBP-2.
PK studies have been done in cats at 10mg/kg
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2
Q

Name a side effect of minocycline in cats? what dose is recommended based on PK studies?

A

Vomiting. Dose 8.8mg/kg q 24hour

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3
Q

Does sucralfate affect the bioavailability of ciprofloxacin or enrofloxacin? Does delayed administration improve?

A

JVIM 2015: Ciprofloxacin is reduced, to 48%. Delaying sucralfate by 2 hours improves bioavailability

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4
Q

What sort of serological testing is used for Bartonella. What is the reported Sn and Sp? Does testing for more strains improve?

A

IFA testing. JVIM 2018: Sn 62, Sp 85%. Lack of agreement with PCR. IFA panels is technically time consuming, increases the cost of diagnostic testing and, based upon the results of our study, does not substantially enhance overall diagnostic sensitivity.

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5
Q

What clinical syndromes have been associated with Bartonella rochalimae?

A

JVIM 2020: Endocarditis, lameness, antibiotic responsive polyarthropathy and seizures

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6
Q

What is the agent that causes Lyme disease? How is it transmitted? Name a test to diagnose. What types of vaccines exist against it?

A

Borrelia bugdorferi sensu lato. Transmitted by Ixodes ticks. Serology; C6 assay. Vaccines include bacterin (lysed spirochetes) or subunit (often OspA and OspC proteins)

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7
Q

What type of pathogen is brucella Canis? what testing is available?

A

Gram negative bacteria. Serology is available (rapid slide agglutination, gel immunodiffusion) but can take up to 12 weeks to seroconvert. PCR good Sn and Sp but expensive. Blood culture and fluid culture options (zoonotic risk)

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8
Q

What is a common bacteria reported in IVC cultures? What factors are associated with IV complications?

A

JVIM 2018: Acinetobacter. Association with junior staff and steroidal anti inflammatories

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9
Q

Do whole blood units have a good sanitary shelf life during commercial storage (42 days)

A

JVIM 2016; Yes. Most organisms detected via PCR were not implicated in reactions. Very low numbers of genome equivalents

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10
Q

What type of organism is Rhodococcus equi? What is the clinical syndrome reported in cats?

A

Aerobic, intracellular, gram positive coccobacillus. Pulmonary disease common; alveolar lung changes, pleural effusion, pneumothorax - pyogranulomarous lesions. Cutaneous lesions, hepatomegaly. Mortality 67%. Azithromycin and fluoroquinolones usually effective

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11
Q

What is the incidence of owner reported adverse events post leptospirosis vaccination?

A

JAVMA 2015: 53/10,000 dogs (compared to 26.3 for other vaccines). Hypersensitivity rare (6.3/10000). Safe vaccine

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12
Q

What coagulation disorders are documented in leptospirosis? what is the prognostic significance?

A

JVIM 2017: Anaemia, thrombocytopenia, hyperfibrinogenaemia. TEM profiles can be hyper or hypo coagulable. Hypocoagulable associated with worse prognosis (Mortality 57% for hypocoagulable vs 21% for hyper coagulable)

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13
Q

What are the two main pathogenic leptospirosis species? What antigen is used for serotyping?

A

L interrogans and L kirschneri. O antigen

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14
Q

What were the findings by JVIM 2018 regarding 3 serological methods (poc and MAT) for leptospirosis testing in experimentally infected dogs?

A

Seroconversion was detected in all dogs by day 10 by Witness. SNAP did not perform well (only detected 3). witnesses identified dogs earlier than the MAT

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15
Q

How can PCR be used to identify leptospirosis serovar? JAVMA 2016, which was the most common serovar in USA dogs?

A

Variable number tandem repeat analysis can be used on the DNA confirmed through PCR. L. grippotyphosa was most common (80%)

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16
Q

What type of bacteria is Listeria? Name a clinical syndrome described in cats

A

Facultative anaerobe, gram positive bacillus. Saprophytic. Rare cause of mesenteric lymphadenitis in cats. Possible association with raw meat.

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17
Q

A JAVMA meta analysis in 2017 found mycoplasma was associated with a. URT or b. LRT disease in cats? What was this dependent on?

A

URT disease, providing non shelter cat (asymptomatic carriage in shelter cats)

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18
Q

Which mycoplasma was found to be associated with LRT disease in dogs? Name a commensal.

A

JVIM 2019. M cynos considered a pathogen. M canis considered commensal.

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones? Are they bacteriostatic/cidal?

A

Blocks DNA replication via blocking DNA topoisomerase IV or gyrase (3rd generation do both). Bacteriocidal

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Blocks tRNA access to the 30s ribosomes. Bacteriostatic

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21
Q

What are some differences between dogs presenting for anaphylaxis and sepsis?

A

JAVMA 2017: Anaphylaxis: higher Eo, higher ALT, lower pH. Sepsis: higher bands, higher ALP, higher globulins, lower glucose

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22
Q

What is MALDI-TOF used for?

A

Bacterial identification via protein patterns and mass spectrometry. Can provide rapid identification

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23
Q

What is cfDNA and nucleosomes? what may be evaluated in and what significance do they have?

A

Cell free DNA (released from dying cells or NETs) and nucleosomes (DNA + histone proteins - also a cellular content). Markers of cell death and NETs and so can be used in sepsis/SIRS. JVECC 2019: cfDNA higher in dogs with sepsis/SIRS than healthy controls. Nucleosomes higher in sepsis compared to controls. Ratio of cfDNA to neutrophil count higher in non survivors.

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24
Q

What glucose difference between plasma and peritoneal fluid supports a septic abdomen?

A

JAVMA 2015: 38g/dl (2.1 mmo/L) between plasma and peritoneal fluid. Whole blood was less sensitive (41%) but 100% specific

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25
Q

What factors are associated with recurrence of septic peritonitis in dogs post surgery?

A

JVECC 2018: low albumin, higher HCT, foreign body and GI source in general

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26
Q

What disease is REM sleep behaviour disorder associated with? What is the prevalence reported and prognosis?

A

Tetanus. Developed in 46% of surviving dogs in one study. Spontaneously resolved in 43% of affected dogs within 6 months

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27
Q

Name the agent most commonly implicated in:

  • SNA Aspergillosis in dogs
  • SNA Aspergillosis in cats
  • SOA Aspergillosis in cats
  • Disseminated Aspergillosis in dogs
  • Disseminated Aspergillosis in cats
A
  • SNA: A fumigatus in both dogs and cats
  • SOA Cat: A felis
  • Disseminated dog: A terreus, but can be others
  • Disseminated cat: A fumigatus
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28
Q

What serological test is superior for SNA Aspergilosis in cats, IgA or IgG? What is the reported Sn/Sp?

A

JVIM 2016: IgG Sn 100% and Sp 91.4%. IgA detected in most cats with SNA, but didn’t add any benefit to doing IgG alone (ELISA)

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29
Q

What was the median number of treatments required for canine SNA via minimally invasive approach, JVIM 2018

A

2

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30
Q

What serology testing is available for Blastomycosis and what is its limitations?

A

JAVMA 2015: A antigen immunoassay assay has low Sn 65%. recombinant BAD-1 antibody EIA is more sensitive; 95%, though Sp 88% in histoplasmosis dogs, 95% in healthy dogs.

Antigen testing is the most sensitive, in urine and blood, but cross reacts with histoplasmosis

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31
Q

What markers of hypercoagulability have been demonstrated in blastomycosis cases?

A

JVIM 2015: Hyperfibrinogenaemia, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes, hypercoagulable on thromboelastography, increased thrombin generation on thrombography

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32
Q

What endocrine derangement can dogs with blastomycosis have? Does this have prognostic significance?

A

Reduced 25(OH)D and PTH and higher concentrations of ionized calcium than did control dogs. No impact on survival, though neutrophil counts were higher in dogs with lower vitamin D concentrations

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33
Q

What % of Coccidiodomycosis infected dogs had proteinuria in 2016 JVIM study?

A

63%. 54% who had renal biopsies had immune complex deposition

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34
Q

Which is superior for the treatment of histoplasmosis? fluconazole or itraconazole? Name a positive prognostic indicator

A

JAVMA 2018: either itraconazole or fluconazole can be used to achieve clinical remission, and a remission rate of approximately 67% may be possible. Diarrhoea was a positive prognostic indicator

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35
Q

Can histoplasmosis antigen be used to predict remission in cats?

A

It can be used and is sensitive (90%) but not specific for remission (64% urine, 52% blood). Generally reduce before clinical remission. Urine also more sensitive for diagnosis. Become concerned for relapse if concentrations increase again

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36
Q

How does the histoplasmosis IMMY in cats compare to the traditional antigen EIA?

A

POC IMMY (antibody based urine histoplasmosis antigen immunoassay) Had a Sn of 89%, Sp of 80% and diagnostic accuracy of 83% with a cutoff of 0.25ng/ml in JVIM 2018. The traditional immunoassay for antigen was more Sn/Sp (94/97%) and the two had moderate aggreement

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37
Q

What is the difference in PK between compounded itraconazole and reference itraconazole in healthy cats?

A

JAVMA 2018: Poor and inconsistent absorption. Relative absorption was only 2-8% of reference formulations

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38
Q

What is the bioavailability of posaconazole in cats?

A

15.9%. Dosing options include 30mg/kg loading followed by 15mg/kg q 48 hours, or 15mg/kg loading followed by 7.5mg/kg q 24hours

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39
Q

What has higher bioavailability in dogs, the liquid or tablet itraconazole?

A

Liquid. However, overall concentrations similar, elimination half lives identical and no recommendation to alter dose based on formulation

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40
Q

In which of the systemic fungal mycosis is antigen testing not recommended?

A

Coccidiodomycosis; Sn is 20%. Antibody testing (EIA) is sensitive and specific, so preferred

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41
Q

What are the performance of POC crypto tests IMMY and Biosynex, compared to LCAT as reference? Are these antigen or antibody tests?

A

In dogs and cats: IMMY 92% S and Sp 93%, Biosynex 80% Sn and Sp 94.9%. Both are antigen tests

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42
Q

How long should dogs with H3N2 be isolated for?

A

JAVMA 2016: Shedding was documented up to 20 days after the first positive PCR and onset of clinical signs. Dogs should be isolated for 21d+

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43
Q

What H-N- is canine influenza?

A

H3N8 and H3N2. neither reported to infect humans

44
Q

Do intranasal vaccines with CAD2, parainfluenza and BB lead to positive PCR?

A

Yes, up to 28 days post vaccination, higher numbers positive from day 3 to 10

45
Q

In a study involving dogs hospitalised in an ICU for 12+ hours, what % were seropositive for distemper and parvo? How many negative dogs were vaccinated in the last 3 years?

A

50% positive for distemper and 81% positive for parvo. 27/40 -ve distemper dogs were vaccinated, 3/15 -ve parvo dogs were vaccinated

46
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with outpatient treatment for parvovirus enteritis?

A

JAVMA 2017: 25% mortality. Dogs prescribed a caloric supplement every 2-4 hours had a mortality rate of 19%

47
Q

What is the benefit to providing hyperimmune plasma to parvo puppies?

A

JVECC 2019; Lower shock index and lower lactate concentrations, no difference in hospitalisation and mortality but study underpowered

48
Q

What is the impact of a FMT on parvovirus puppies?

A

JVIM 2018: Faster resolution of diarrhoea and shorter hospitalisation (3d vs 6d). Mortality was not statistically different (36% vs 21.2%)

49
Q

What is the primary origin of D lactate? in what viral disease is it raised in and what is the impact?

A

JVIM 2019: Product of bacterial metabolism. Higher in parvo pups compared to controls (469 vs 306). Dogs hospitalised for <4d had lower baseline concentrations (400 vs 520) but no other impact on outcome

50
Q

What is the preferred swabbing location to detect FHV, FCV and chlamydia?

A

JFMS 2015: Oropharynnx, namely for FCV but there was no difference for FHV or chlamydia. In this paper sampling in a location with lesions did not improve likelihood of detecting infectious agents.

51
Q

What are liposome toll like receptor ligand complexes potentially used for? What is their effect on kittens challenged with FHV?

A

JVIM 2019. To activate innate immune responses, as virus activate TLR3 and bacterial TLR9. In this experiment, ligand complexes reduced incidence of conjunctivitis, but increased respiratory scores. They did decrease FHV DNA on swabs

52
Q

What % of cats were described to have a marked improvement of their FHV symptoms after famciclovir? what was the impact of dose? How many cats had adverse effects?

A

JAVMA 2016; 51% had marked improvement. Median time to improvement and degree of improvement was greater in the high dose group. Adverse events in 10 cats

53
Q

What is the prognosis for shelter cats with panleukopenia? What factors were associated with non survival?

A

MST 3 days. 20.3% survived to discharge. Lethargy, hypothermia, low body weight and leukocyte count at day 3,4 and 7 were associated with non survival.

54
Q

What is the impact of vaccination on panleukopenia titres in cats?

A

JFMS 2018: In this study, pre-vaccination titres >1:40 were present in 64% of cats. only 47% had increases of 4X. No cats >1:160 had a 4 fold increase, and lack of previous vaccination / low antibody levels prior were associated with a better response. Recommendation to check titres.

55
Q

JFMS 2017 reported a Sn and Sp for ICC for diagnosis of FIP on body cavity effusion, what were the results?

A

Sn 85% and Sp 72%, they did not recommend this test based on the low specificity
** previous studies had reported higher specificity

56
Q

JFMS 2017 reported Sn and Sp for PCR on blood macrophages, serum and effusion. What were they? which was most sensitive?

A

Sn was highest in effusions (88%) with a Sp of 89-100%. Sn was low in blood (28% for cells, 15% for serum) but specificity was reported up to 100%

56
Q

JFMS 2017 reported Sn and Sp for PCR for FCoV on blood macrophages, serum and effusion. What were they? which was most sensitive?

A

Sn was highest in effusions (88%) with a Sp of 89-100%. Sn was low in blood (28% for cells, 15% for serum) but specificity was reported up to 100%

57
Q

What is the best acute phase protein in effusion to differentiate FIP?

A

JFMS 2017: a-acid glycoprotein

58
Q

What is the Sn and Sp for PCR in mesenteric LN aspirates for FIP?

A

Sn 90% and Sp 96.1%

59
Q

What amino acid substitution in the spike protein is associated with FIP?

A

JFMS 2019: M1058 was 100% specific as a substitution for predicting FIV, Sn was 70%

60
Q

What is the prevalence of a reduced A/G ratio in FIP?

A

JFMS 2016: 85% <0.8, 67% <0.6. Hyperglobulinaemia in 89%

61
Q

What is the reported prevalence of feline coronavirus viraemia in shelter cats and association with FIP?

A

4.4%. No correlation with FIP in the next 6 months in this population

62
Q

What is the most common infectious CNS disease in the cat? What are the 3 clinical syndromes of this disease and MRI/CSF changes?

A

JVIM 2017: FIP. T3-L3 myelopathy, central vestibular and multifocal. MRI: meningeal contrast enhancement, ventriculomegaly, syringomyelia and herniation - changes in all cases. CSF marked increased in TP and TNCC

63
Q

What is the Sn/SP of PCR on CSF for FIP?

A

Sn 42% and Sp 100%. NPV 57% and PPV 100% in ALL cases. If showing neural or ocular signs, Sn was 85%

64
Q

What is the Sn/Sp of ICC on CSF for the diagnosis of FIP?

A

Sn 85% and Sp 83%. Specificity considered too low

65
Q

What is GC376 and what is its potential use? how efficiacious?

A

MOA: Protease inhibitor, targets 3C like protease. Potential treatment for FIP. 19/20 cats in a study showed clinical response, but relapses occurred in 13/19. Side effects were retarded development and abnormal eruption of permanent teeth <16-18wo

66
Q

What is GS-441524 and its reported efficacy?

A

Nucleoside analog. Treatment for FIP. JFMS 2019 reported after a 12 week course, 18/26 cats healthy after 1 round of treatment. 5 of the cats who relapsed had success after a second treatment at a higher dosage. Optimum dose reported was 4mg/kg q 24 hour for 12 weeks

67
Q

What drug class are Zidovudine (Azidothymidine) and tenofir and how do they work?

A

Anti viral. Nucleoside inhibitors of RNA reverse transcriptase. Potential therapy for FIV FeLV

68
Q

How do antibody responses to rabies vaccination compare between dogs/cats with out of date vaccinations vs up to date

A

JAVMA 2015; Out of date dogs were not inferior. Dogs with out of date had higher median increase in tiers and higher median tier following booster. Most cats had timers >12 regardless of previous status

69
Q

What is the case definition of a rabies positive animal?

A

IFA positive (preferably on CNS tissue) or isolation of rabies in cell culture or a laboratory animal

70
Q

What is the effect of cyclosporine on vaccine response in cats?

A

JFMS 2015 No response to novel FIV vaccine. Response seen to booster vaccine, no difference for calici and panleuk but reduced for FHV and rabies, though still protective

71
Q

What is the SnSp of iiPCR for Babesia gibsoni and Babesia species in high risk dogs?

A

Sn 90%, and Sp 99% for gibsoni, 87%/98% for others. Reasonable screening test

72
Q

What changes occur biochemically as part of the acute phase response to Babesia?

A

Increased SAA, lower cholesterol, lower phospholipid, lower alpha-lipoproteins, higher ApoA, Altered cholesterol transport occurred

73
Q

What are the negative prognostic indicators of Babesia infection?

A

High lactate, high triglycerides, high phosphate, lower HCT, lower total protein and lower platelet counts

74
Q

What is the recommended treatment and follow up for Babesia gibsoni infection?

A

IVIM 2017: Azithromycin and atovaquone for 10 days. Follow up PCR to check for clearance traditionally at 60 and 90 days. This study showed that 30 day test was usually predictive of 60 day test

75
Q

What is the most prevalent Ehrlichia species in the south central and eastern USA and what is its vector? How long has this pathogen been detected in a host dog for?

A

E. ewingii, transmitted by Amblyomma americanum. JVIM 2015; documented rickettsemia for as long as 733 days, showing potential to be a reservoir host

76
Q

What are the documented coagulation changes during E canis infection?

A

Thrombocytopenia, platelet activation, hypofibrinolysis (TEG). May explain lack of bleeding seen in some dogs

77
Q

Is minocycline an alternative to doxy for E canis infection?

A

JVIM 2018 assessed in subacute infections in dogs. Demonstrated negative PCR after 28 days of therapy (doxy in this study cleared by 3 weeks). Long term follow up not performed so cannot confirm if suppression or true clearance (negative at 7 days)

78
Q

what are the clinical signs reported in E ewingii infection in dogs? What % had comorbidities?

A

JVIM 2019: Diagnosis of other disease in 68%. Renal disease 17%, IMHA 14%. Joint pain 34%, neutrophilic 56%, increased ALP 57%, increased ALT 40%, increased SDMA 32%, proteinuria 74%. IFA positive in 43%, ELISA 82%. Coinfections included bartonella, Rickettsia and Borrelia.

79
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of point of care Giardia tests, in comparison to IFA? What additional test can be added to increase their Sn/Sp to be comparable?

A

Sn 82%+ and Sp 90%+ (Bayesian result 83/95 respectively). Adding ZnSo4 centrifugation increased results to comparable to IFA

80
Q

What was the seroprevalence of heart worm in cats in the USA in 2017? what factors were associated with increased prevalence?

A

0.4%. Risk factors were outdoor access, being unhealthy and being retroviral positive.

81
Q

What is the life stage of Leishmania in the sandfly and which is the Lifestage in the host? What is the vector?

A

Promastigote in the sandfly. Amastigote in the host

82
Q

What is the treatment for Leishmaniasis?

A

Meglumine antimoniate and allopurinol. Remission in 65-100%, can take months

83
Q

What are the ROTEM characteristics of dogs with Angiostrongylus vasorum and why are they important? What treatment is available?

A

ROTEM = rotational thromboelastography.
A vasorum dogs can develop a bleeding diathesis. Hyperfibrinolysis was seen in 67% of bleeding dogs (11% of non bleeding dogs) in this study. 60% of dogs with hyperfibrinogenolysis had hypofibrinogenaemia. Tranexamic acid resolved hyperfibrinolysis. FFP normalised 6/8 dogs with fibrinogen deficiency

84
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic methodology for Angiostrongylus vasorum infection based on JVIM 2018?

A

ELISA for antibody detection and PCR on BAL material were more sensitive compared to angiodetect ELISA for antigen and Baerrmann analysis

85
Q

A case report in JVIM 2019 described a medical management approach to pythiosis in 3 dogs, which was successful, what was it? What type of organism is Pythiosis?

A

Itraconazole, terbinafine and prednisolone. Pythium insudiosum is an aquatic oomycete (water mould)

86
Q

What was the outcome of dogs with trypanosomiasis treated with amiodarone and itraconazole?

A

JAVMA 2019; Compared amiodarone and itraconazole to a control group without therapy. MST longer in those treated (23 months vs 15 months). Treated dogs became negative 6-24 months after stating the study and clinical improvement occurred in 53/54 treated dogs but in none of the untreated dogs.

87
Q

What was the prevalence of Trypanosoma Cruzi in Texas shelter dogs? Which other pathogen was this comparable to?

A

JVIM 2019: 18% of dogs were seropositive (only 1% PCR positive). Comparable to Dirofilaria - 16% positive

88
Q

What were the clinical characteristics reported about dogs infected with T cruzi?

A

JVIM 2019: Younger than negative dogs. No breed or sex differences. Risk factors were infected housemate or litter mate. Dogs were more likely to have VPCs, combinations of ECG abnormalities, and increased cTnI (0.129 + )

89
Q

What are the risk factors for candida urinary tract infections in dogs and cats?

A

Antibiotics in the last 30 days in dogs and cats, recent immunosuppressives (only compared to dogs with malessezia, not dogs with bacterial cystitis), other LUT diseases in cats. DM and history of hospitalisation were not associated

90
Q

What is the incidence and risk factors for subclinical bacteriuria in older, non azotaemic cats? what is the impact on survival?

A

JVIM 2016: Prevalence 10-13% in cats 7yo +, being female was a risk factor (OR 21.2). No association with survival

91
Q

what is the impact on processing delay and transport on quantitative bacterial culture?

A

JAVMA 2016; When stored at 4 degrees for 24 hours, silicon coated tubes had higher yield. When stored at room temp, urine transport tubes were superior. Silicon coated tubes at room temp for 24 hours reduced to less than the cutoff for significant infection. . When prolonged storage is anticipated, urine transport tubes should be used

92
Q

What assay can be used to detect biofilm in E coli UTI? What % of isolates were capable of forming biofilms? What is the difference between biofilm and non biofilm formers?

A

Crystal violet assay. 52.6% capable of forming biofilms. Biofilm formers had a lower likelihood of MDR.

93
Q

What urine conditions favour E coli growth?

A

JVIM 2018: Higher in neutral to acidic and dilute urine. Lowest growth in concentrated, alkaline urine

94
Q

What is the challenge in diagnosing Corynebacterium UTI?

A

Aerobic, gram positive bacillus that is very slow growing and does not grow well after overnight incubation. Enriched culture for 72 hours or more is recommended, or may be false negative

95
Q

What are the clinical features of Corynebacterium urealyticum UTI?

A

Alkaline urine, urease so struvite forming. Animals with previous urinary disorders or catheterisation are prone. Can be associated with encrusted cystitis

96
Q

What were the characteristics of dogs with pyelonephritis in Canada reported in JVIM 2018?

A

0.4-1.3% prevalence at necropsy. CSx inappetence (57%), lethargy (51%), vomiting (36%), dehydration (25%). Could be acute-chronic. Mild (15%) to severe (61%). Fever was associated with subacute pyelonephritis. 38% had no signs of any sort of UTI

97
Q

What are common urinary isolates? What factors are associated with drug resistance? what was the incidence of multi drug resistance?

A

E coli, Staphylococcus sp, Enterococcus. Amoxicillin, Doxy and Enro admin in the last 30 days was associated with resistance to that antimicrobial, but this was not the case for amoxyclav. MDR was 21% in uncomplicated UTI and 36% with complicated

98
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of action for cranberry extract for E coli UTI?

A

Contains PACs (proanthocyanidins) which inhibit adhesion of type I and P fimbriated uropathogenic bacteria, in particular E coli

99
Q

What is the benefit of cranberry extract for reducing the risk of bacteriuria in dogs with IVDD?

A

JVIM 2017; no benefit of oral cranberry in preventing bacteriuria. Did not impact urine adhesion activity BUT adhesion activity was associated with lower risk of E coli

100
Q

What number of colony forming units is associated with a significant UTI?

A

> 10^5 CFU/ml

101
Q

what is ASB E coli 2-12?

A

Asymptomatic bacteriuria E coli. JVIM 2018 evaluated and was found not to cause LUT signs in research dogs. In dogs with recurrent UTI, 4/9 had complete clinical cures, 3/4 had microbiological cure

102
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity for RapidBac in detecting a UTI?

A

Dogs; Sn 97% and Sp 99%. Cats Sn 79% and Sp 98%

103
Q

What is the incidence of tick borne disease in dogs of Southern California with compatible clinical signs?

A

33%, with detection increased by 30% with repeated testing

104
Q

What is the standard of care treatment for feline Cytauxzoonosis? How is it diagnosed?

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin (superior to imidocarb). Dx with finding schizont infected macrophages (rare in blood film), positive PCR or seeing merozoites in RBC (note - can be present in clinically silent carrier infections)

105
Q

What is the incidence of vector borne disease in proteinuric dogs?

A

JVIM 2019: 34% of dogs had documented exposure on testing. Rickettsia, Ehrlichia and Borrelia most common

105
Q

What is the incidence of vector borne disease in proteinuric dogs?

A

JVIM 2019: 34% of dogs had documented exposure on testing. Rickettsia, Ehrlichia and Borrelia most common

2015 to 2019 journals (13 decks)

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