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ECVIM - Ca > Infectiology > Flashcards

Infectiology Flashcards

1
Q

Why do neurological and ocular FIP need higher doses of GS441524 ?

A

Because of poor drug access across the blood ocular and blood brain barriers

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2
Q

What babesia species can be transmitted directly dog to dog ?

A

Babesia gibsoni

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3
Q

Of Nocardia spp. Actinomyces spp. and Mycobacterium spp., which one is acid-fast (Ziehl Nielsen) negative?

A

Actinomyces

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4
Q

What rickettsial can be found in neutrophils?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Erhlichia ewingii

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5
Q

What rickettsial can be found in mononuclear cells?

A

Erhlicha canis, ehrlichia chaffeensis and Neorickettsia risticii

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6
Q

What rickettsial can be found in platelets?

A

Anaplasma platys

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7
Q

What is usually the first type of antibody to be produced in case of infection?

A

IgM then after days/weeks IgG (IgA usually follows IgG levels)

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8
Q

True or false: toxocara can result in human visceral larva migrans and ancylostoma, strongyloides and uncinaria in human cutaneous larva migrans

A

True

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9
Q

What cryptosporidium are considered zoonotic?

A

Parvum and homonis which are really rare in dogs and cats

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10
Q

What are the zoonotic assemblages of Giardia?

A

A and B (not the most frequently encountered in dogs and cats)

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11
Q

Is Bordetella bronchiseptica a zoonosis?

A

Yes but only for immunocompromised people

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12
Q

What zoonosis can be transmitted by lagomorphs, cats, ticks (and dogs)?

A

Francisella tularensis

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13
Q

What is the agent of the zoonotic bubonic, septicemic or pneumonic plague transmitted by lagomorphs and cats?

A

Yersinia pestis

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14
Q

What is the agent of the zoonotic Q fever of cattle, sheep, goat, cat (and dog)?

A

Coxiella burnetti

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15
Q

What diseases can be transmitted by Ixodes?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Bartonella

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16
Q

How does borrelia burgdorferi escape the immune system?

A

By DNA recombination (antigenic variation)

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17
Q

What does the snap4DX measure for borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Antibodies against the C6 peptide antigen (only expressed in natural infection)

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18
Q

True or false: OspA antibodies are more frequently observed in dogs vaccines for Borrelia burgdorferi and OspC in non vaccinated but both can be seen with natural or vaccin induced infection

A

True

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19
Q

Which mycobacterium has the human as a reservoir host?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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20
Q

True or false: Mycobacterium microti is more frequent in older cats in contrast to mycobacterium bovis. Hunting rodents is a risk factor and immunosuppression may reactivate the disease

A

True

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21
Q

Which type of saprophytic mycobacterias are more likely in young/immunosuppressed animals?

A

Slow growing saprophytic Mycobacterium (mycobacterium avium complex…)

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22
Q

True or false: rapid growing saprophytic Mycobacterium often affect obese apparently immunocompetent animals

A

True

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23
Q

True or false: a biphasic age distribution is reported in cats with leproid mycobacterium

A

True: young immunocompetent (rapid progression on the limbs) and old cats suspected to be immunosuppressed (diffuse slowly progressive lesions)

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24
Q

To what antibiotic are usually sensitive Actinomyces spp.?

A

Penicillins

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25
Q

Where can we found Actinomyces spp. and Nocardia spp.?

A

Nocardia is ubiquitous and Actinomyces is a commensal of oral cavity and mucous membranes

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26
Q

What is the usual antibiotic that Nocardia spp are sensitive to?

A

Sulfonamides

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27
Q

True or false: Brucella bacteremia may persist for 6 months

A

True

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28
Q

Why the highly sensitive rapid slide agglutination test for Brucella is poorly specific?

A

Cross reaction with other gram negative bacterias

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29
Q

How much time does take seroconversion for Brucella infection ?

A

4 to 12 weeks

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30
Q

What test is more specific than rapid slide agglutination test for Brucella infection?

A

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)

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31
Q

What are two toxins secreted by Clostridium tetani and their action?

A

Tetanolysin (local tissue damage)
Tetanospasmin (the light chain impedes the release of presynaptical neurotransmitter in inhibitory neurons –> spasms)

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32
Q

What are the four clinical classes of tetanus?

A

Class I: only facial signs
Class II: general rigidity or dysphagia
Class III: dogs are recumbent or have seizures
Class IV: dogs have abnormal FC, FR or PA

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33
Q

What is the main infection route of clostridium tetani? And clostridium botulinum?

A

Clostridium tetani: wound inoculation
Clostridium botulinum: spoiled food ingestion

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34
Q

What is the main toxin of Clostridium botulinum infection?

A

Type C
(1 case report for toxin D and toxin B)

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35
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the toxin C of Clostridium botulinum?

A

Inhibition of release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular synapse (flaccid paralysis)

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36
Q

Name vectors of Bartonella spp.

A

Ctenocephalides felis
Ixodes spp., Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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37
Q

True or false: Bartonella are passed through the skin in arthropod feces, and infect dendritic and endothelial cells (also microglial, macrophages and progenitors in the bone marrow)

A

True

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38
Q

What are the main two type of virulence factors of Bartonella?

A

Adhésions to adhere to cells and Type IV secretion system to translocate effector proteins into the cell (inhibition of apoptosis, bacterial persistence…)

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39
Q

True or false: Bartonella bacteremia never occurs in the absence of antibodies

A

False 50% occur in the absence of antibodies

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40
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction in Bartonella infected dogs?

A

Signs of SIRS secondary to the rapid death of the bacterias with consequent release of endotoxins

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41
Q

True or false: prevalence of Bartonella infection in cats is higher in warm temperature, high humidity, infestation by fleas and feral cats

A

True

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42
Q

True or false: it is recommended to adopt cats older than 1 year, avoid rough play and maintain flea control to avoid Bartonella zoonosis

A

True

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43
Q

Why unlike other gram negative bacterias, leptospira bacteremia do not result in fulminant septic disease?

A

Because of low endotoxic potential of leptospira’s LPS

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44
Q

What are the 4 serovars included in the leptospira’s vaccine in Europe?

A

Icterohemorrhagiae, Canicola, Grippotyphosa and Bratislava

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45
Q

What is the agent and the vector of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Erhlicha canis transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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46
Q

True or false: immune suppression may be secondary to ehrlichia canis infection in dogs with secondary opportunistic infections such as papillomatosis

47
Q

What are the agents of canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis and their vectors?

A

Ehrlichia ewiingii with Amblyomma americanum
Anaplasma phagocytophilum with Ixodes

48
Q

What is the agent of canine thrombocytic anaplasmosis and its presumed vector?

A

Anaplasma platys and Rhipicephalus sanguineus

49
Q

What is the vector of Neorickettsia helminthoeca the agent of salmon poisoning disease?

A

Nanophyetus salmincola

50
Q

True or false: fecal analysis is frequently positive for Nanophyetus salmincola ova in case of salmon poisoning disease

51
Q

What’s the agent of Rocky mountain spotted fever and its vector?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii with Dermacentor and Rhipicephalus sanguineus

52
Q

Which hemotropic Mycoplasma is the most prevalent in cats?

A

Candidates M. Haemominutum

53
Q

Is FIV infection associated with hemotropic Mycoplasma infection in cats?

A

Yes, not FelV (male outdoor cats overrepresented)

54
Q

What 2 genes expression of Clostridium perfringens may be associated with diarrhea (and AHDS)?

A

CPE: Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin
Netf for AHDS

55
Q

What enteric bacteria is encountered frequently (30%) in dogs eating raw chicken diet?

A

Salmonella spp.

56
Q

True or false: Toxoplasma, Neospora and Cystoisospora oocysts must sporulate outside the host to be infectious

57
Q

True or false: Hepatozoon americanum can also be transmitted to dogs by predation

58
Q

What is the main source of Neospora caninum infection in dogs?

A

Infected bovine placenta and infected deer

59
Q

Between Neospora and Toxoplasma tissue cyst, which one has a greater wall thickness?

A

Neospora > Toxoplasma

60
Q

True or false: dogs and humans can also complete the coccidian life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii, not just the cat

A

False, only the cat can complete its life cycle

61
Q

True or false: Leishmania transmission appears to be primarily dog to dog in Foxhound in the USA

62
Q

Which type of Babesia can be transmitted by bitting?

A

Babesia gibsoni

63
Q

To what predisposes FIV infection?

A

Immunosuppression, chronic gingivostomatitis and lymphoma

64
Q

True or false: FelV vaccines protect against progressive infection AND regressive infection

A

False, it mainly protects against progressive infection

65
Q

Is it feline parvovirus or canine parvovirus that is capable of also infecting the dog or cat?

A

Canine parvovirus (CPV-2a and CPV-2b) are able to infect cats

66
Q

In the USA which ones are more commonly seen for rabies infection: dogs or cats?

A

Cats with rabies are seen 3 times more commonly than dogs

67
Q

True or false: rabies is uncommon in vaccinated cats and dogs but can occur

68
Q

Is exposure to rabies by aerosols possible?

A

Yes, especially in bat caves

69
Q

What are the two most prevalent virus of canine infectious respiratory disease?

A

Canine Parainfluenza virus and canine respiratory coronavirus

70
Q

What two pathogens may produce more severe forms of canine infectious respiratory disease?

A

Canine influenza virus and streptococcus equi subsp zooepidemicus

71
Q

What happens to dogs infected with distemper virus according to the level of immune response ?

A

-Poor immune response: severe clinical signs and death or recovery and likely to develop CNS signs (weeks-months later)
-Intermediate level: mild/silent disease with possibility to finally develop CNS signs
-Strong immune response: clinical signs unlikely

72
Q

True or false: dogs infected by CDV that developed pustular skin lesions are less likely to develop CNS disease but hyperkeratosis of footpads and nasal planum is associated with CNS disease development

73
Q

True or false: the canarypox recombinant CDV vaccine may be prefered over modified live vaccine

A

True (more efficient and no interference with RT-PCR results)

74
Q

True or false: unlike CDV, CAV-1 is not airborne

75
Q

True or false: most CAV-1 vaccines use CAV-2 isolates

76
Q

True or false: canine papillomas (interdigital, footpads) associated with Canis familiaris papillomavirus type 2 have been associated with the development of squamous celle carcinoma in immunosuppressed dogs

77
Q

True or false: West Nile virus induces severe clinical signs in dogs

A

False, most dogs are resistant, some cases of meningoencephalitis/multisystemic disease have been reported

78
Q

True or false: Cryptococcus neoformans is more important in immunosuppressed animals and C. gatti often causes disease in patient with normal immune function

79
Q

What is the main vector for Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Birds especially pigeon habitats

80
Q

What are the three main sites of dissemination of Cryptococcus?

A

Skin, eyes and CNS

81
Q

True or false: in dogs infected by Cryptococcus, CNS signs are most frequent

82
Q

True or false: bodies of animals that died of coccidioides should be immediately incinerated

A

True due to the risk of mycelial form formation and exposure

83
Q

True or false: sporotrichosis mainly infects cats and can be disseminated whereas dogs rarely present the disease and mainly as a cutaneous disease

84
Q

What is the main infectious source of sporotrichosis in humans?

A

Infected cats

85
Q

True or false: dogs infected by pythiosis frequently have exposure to warm freshwater habitat

86
Q

True or false: pythiosis do not respond well to medical therapy because ergosterol in its membrane is generally lacking

87
Q

Name two fungal disease that are similar to the cutaneous form or pythiosis

A

Lagenidiosis and Paralagenidiosis

88
Q

What is the main vector of Bartonella ?

A

Ctenocephalides felis

89
Q

What is associated with Bartonella endocarditis in dogs ?

A

Aortic involvement, absence of fever, increased odds of death

90
Q

What is recommended for immunosuppressed people regarding cats and Bartonella ?

A

Avoid having stray cats, cats younger than 1 year old, cats infested with fleas and avoid rough plays

91
Q

What are the 4 serovars included in the quadrivalent vaccine for leptospirosis in dogs, in Europe ?

A

Icterrohaemorrhagiae, Canicola, Grippotyphosa, Bratislava

92
Q

True or false : Canine Hemoplasmas might be transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus and fights

93
Q

What are the small babesia species ?

A

Gibsoni, conradae and vulpes

94
Q

What are the big babesia species ?

A

Rossi, canis and vogeli

95
Q

Which babesia is more likely transmitted by fights in the usa ? Especially in Pit Bull

A

Babesia gibsoni

96
Q

What kind of immune response is seen in wet FIP and in dry FIP ?

A

Wet: Th-2
Dry: mixed Th-1/Th-2

97
Q

To what genotype has been primarily associated pantropic CCoV ?

98
Q

What are the two most common Canine Influenza Virus ?

A

H3N8 and H3N2

99
Q

What kind of signs are frequently associated with cutaneous signs in Canine Distemper disease ?

A

Neurological signs

100
Q

Which kind of vaccine is safer for fetuses in an immunologically naive pregnant dog ?

A

Recombinant canarypox CDV vaccine

101
Q

What virus has been linked to chronic hepatitis and hepatocellular carcinoma in cats ?

A

Domestic Cat Hepadnavirus

102
Q

What are the risk factors of Domestica Cat Hepadnavirus infection in cats ?

A

Retroviral infection and increased ALT

103
Q

What are risk factors for Felis catus Gammaherpesvirus 1 viremia ?

A

Adult, male, entire, FIV+, FeLV+, Hemoplasmas+

104
Q

What is the suspected etiologic agent of the staggering disease in cats ?

A

Rustrela Virus

105
Q

True or false: Cats are more likely to exhibit disseminated forms of cryptococcosis than dogs.

A

False, dogs are

106
Q

True or false: 1/3 of cats with histoplasmosis are kept strictly indoor

107
Q

Why leptospirosis may lead to hypokalemia in non oliguric state?

A

Inhibition of Na/K ATPase

108
Q

How does cats get infected by Sporothrix schenckii ?

A

Traumatic cutaneous inoculation (cat fight…)

109
Q

What is the main lesion secondary to encephalitozoon cuniculi infection in cats ?

110
Q

Against which fungi fluconazole is poorly effective ?

A

Histoplasma and Blastomyces

111
Q

What are the mechanisms of action of amphotericin B and azoles ?

A

Amphotericin B binds to sterol of the fungal membranes and induces lysis
Azoles inhibit fungal membrane synthesis

112
Q

Which azole is note recommended in cats and why?

A

Voriconazole due to neurologic and ocular toxicity

113
Q

Which animals are predisposed to disseminated form of Nocardia infection?

A

Immunosuppressed and young animals and dogs>cats

ECVIM - Ca (10 decks)

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