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Incorrect Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

Select one:

a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Lengthening reaction
c. Length-tension relationships
d. Synergistic dominance

A

a. Reciprocal inhibition

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2
Q

What is the RDA for protein?

Select one:

a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.2 g/kg of body weight
c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.6 g/kg of body weight

A

c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

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3
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?

Select one:

a. 45 to 65% of total calories
b. 20 to 35% of total calories
c. 10 to 35% of total calories
d. 5 to 20% of total calories

A

b. 20 to 35% of total calories

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4
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Select one:

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rhomboids
c. Middle and lower trapezius
d. Posterior deltoid

A

a. Latissimus dorsi

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5
Q 
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Select one:
a. Knowledge of results
b. Proprioception
c. Knowledge of performance
d. Motivation
A

b. Proprioception

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6
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a closed-chain exercise?
Select one:
a. Squats 
b. Push-ups
c. Pull-ups
d. Lat pulldowns
A

d. Lat pulldowns

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7
Q 
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Select one:
a. Stable floor environment
b. Aqua therapy
c. Weight training 
d. Biomechanical ankle platform system
A

d. Biomechanical ankle platform system

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8
Q 
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
Select one:
a. 0.22
b. 0.62 
c. 0.72
d. 0.92
A

c. 0.72

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9
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

Select one:

a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

A

a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

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10
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.

Select one:

a. Visual
b. Somatosensory
c. Sensorimotor function
d. Vestibular

A

d. Vestibular

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11
Q

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

Select one:

a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
b. The location of where one foot touches the ground
c. The approximate midpoint of the body
d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

A

d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

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12
Q

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

Select one:

a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Glycolysis
c. Beta-oxidation
d. The ATP-PC system

A

a. Oxidative phosphorylation

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13
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?

Select one:

a. Glycolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Gluconeogenesis

A

d. Gluconeogenesis; process that transforms non-carbohydrate substrates (such as lactate, amino acids, and glycerol) into glucose

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14
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

Select one:

a. Arthrokinematics
b. Osteokinematics
c. Biomechanics
d. Kinesiology

A

a. Arthrokinematics

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15
Q

Which of the following best defines cholesterol?

Select one:

a. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons
b. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
c. A narrowing of arteries to the heart
d. A raising of blood pressure

A

b. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells

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16
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

Select one:

a. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
d. Pull the elbows into extension

A

a. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

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17
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?

Select one:

a. An RPE of 7 to 8
b. An RPE of 5 to 6
c. An RPE of 9 to 10
d. An RPE of 3 to 4

A

b. An RPE of 5 to 6

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18
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

Select one:

a. At least 3 times a week
b. At least 2 times a week
c. At least 4 times a week
d. At least 5 times a week

A

a. At least 3 times a week

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19
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?

Select one:

a. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
b. Rapid amortization phase
c. Prolonged amortization phase
d. Absent stretch reflex

A

b. Rapid amortization phase

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20
Q

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?

Select one:

a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
d. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers

A

b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

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21
Q

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?

Select one:

a. Pedal pulse
b. Carotid pulse
c. Radial pulse
d. Femoral pulse

A

c. Radial pulse

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?

Select one:

a. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.
b. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
c. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
d. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

A

c. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

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23
Q

What are nonessential amino acids?

Select one:

a. Amino acids that are not required in the body
b. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins
c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
d. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created by the body

A

c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
`

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24
Q

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:

a. Medicine ball pullover throw
b. Overhead medicine ball throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass

A

a. Medicine ball pullover throw

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25
Q

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Select one:
a. Ability to stretch in small increments
b. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
c. Ability to stretch only one muscle
d. Altered movement patterns

A

d. Altered movement patterns

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26
Q 
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?
Select one:
a. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
b. TRX suspension and ViPR
c. Dumbbell and medicine ball 
d. ViPR and sandbag
A

d. ViPR and sandbag

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27
Q

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client’s current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Select one:

a. Autonomy
b. Motivation
c. Self-efficacy
d. Positive outcome expectation

A

b. Motivation

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28
Q

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:

a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
b. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight
c. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight
d. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight

A

a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

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29
Q

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Select one:

a. Sensorimotor function
b. Somatosensation
c. Perturbation
d. Neuromuscular control

A

c. Perturbation

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30
Q

The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following?
Select one:

a. Aspiration
b. Initiative
c. Ambition
d. Motivation

A

d. Motivation

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31
Q 
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Select one:
a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Maximal Strength Training 
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Power Training
A

c. Muscular Development Training

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32
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Select one:
a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
b. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
c. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis
d. Involves training multiple styles each week

A

a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

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33
Q 
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
Select one:
a. 30 to 50% of total calories 
b. 10 to 35% of total calories
c. 20 to 35% of total calories
d. 45 to 65% of total calories
A

d. 45 to 65% of total calories

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34
Q 
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?
Select one:
a. Movement assessments
b. Biometric data 
c. Performance assessments
d. Body composition
A

c. Performance assessments

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35
Q 
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Select one:
a. Performance supplement
b. Trace mineral
c. Macromineral 
d. Vitamin
A

b. Trace mineral

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36
Q 
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Select one:
a. Dynamic posture assessment
b. Overhead squat assessment 
c. Performance assessment
d. Static posture assessment
A

a. Dynamic posture assessment

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37
Q

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Select one:
a. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb
b. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
c. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
d. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

A

d. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

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38
Q 
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
Select one:
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35 
d. 18
A

b. 30

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39
Q 
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
Select one:
a. Thyroxin
b. Cortisol
c. Growth hormone
d. Testosterone
A

b. Cortisol

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40
Q 
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Select one:
a. Carotid artery
b. Femoral artery
c. Radial artery 
d. Brachial artery
A

d. Brachial artery

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41
Q

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Select one:
a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

A

a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

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42
Q 
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?
Select one:
a. Digestive
b. Somatosensory
c. Vision
d. Vestibular
A

b. Somatosensory

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43
Q 
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. SAID principle
b. Theory of general relativity 
c. Law of thermodynamics
d. Archimedes' principle
A

a. SAID principle

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44
Q 
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Select one:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased end-systolic volume 
c. Decreased stroke volume
d. Decreased heart rate
A

a. Increased heart rate

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45
Q

What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Select one:
a. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption
b. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training
c. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity
d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

A

d. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

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46
Q 
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. Hypotension
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperglycemia 
d. Hypertension
A

b. Hypoglycemia

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47
Q 
Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?
Select one:
a. Mitochondria
b. Organelles 
c. Effector sites
d. Electrolytes
A

a. Mitochondria

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48
Q

Kettlebells were first used in which setting?
Select one:
a. The Russian military
b. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators
c. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales
d. Eastern European gymnastic programs

A

c. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

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49
Q 
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Free hydrogen ions
b. Depletion of phosphocreatine
c. Lack of pyruvate 
d. Lack of fatty acids
A

a. Free hydrogen ions

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50
Q 
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
Select one:
a. The talk test
b. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula
c. The Tanaka formula
d. Metabolic Equivalent (MET)
A

a. The talk test

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51
Q 
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
Select one:
a. 1 or 2 reps
b. 3 to 5 reps
c. 6 to 8 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps
A

b. 3 to 5 reps

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52
Q

What is end-systolic volume?
Select one:
a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

A

c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

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53
Q 
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
Select one:
a. 0 to 15 seconds
b. 60 to 90 seconds 
c. 15 to 60 seconds
d. 90 to 120 seconds
A

c. 15 to 60 seconds

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54
Q 
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Select one:
a. Companionship support
b. Instrumental support
c. Emotional support
d. Informational support
A

b. Instrumental support

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55
Q

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
Select one:
a. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
d. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake

A

b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

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56
Q 
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Intensity 
c. Volume
d. Frequency
A

c. Volume

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57
Q

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Select one:
a. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern
b. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern
c. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression
d. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

A

d. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

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58
Q 
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Variables and pattern
b. Velocity and pattern
c. Variables and progression 
d. Volume and progression
A

d. Volume and progression

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59
Q 
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
Select one:
a. Thermic effect of food
b. Exercise
c. Resting metabolism
d. Thermic effect of activity
A

c. Resting metabolism

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60
Q 
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Select one:
a. Pelvic floor musculature
b. Diaphragm
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Transverse abdominis
A

d. Transverse abdominis

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61
Q 
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Select one:
a. Cleaning
b. Getting in and out of the car
c. Moving a grocery cart
d. Raking leaves
A

a. Cleaning

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62
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Long (broad) jump
c. Pro shuttle
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

A

c. Pro shuttle

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63
Q 
What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?
Select one:
a. Intensity 
b. Volume
c. Recovery
d. Training frequency
A

d. Training frequency

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64
Q 
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis 
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Acidosis
d. Ketosis
A

b. Beta-oxidation

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65
Q 
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Select one:
a. Box jump-up with stabilization
b. Tuck jump with stabilization
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
d. Squat jump with stabilization
A

c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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66
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
b. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.
c. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
d. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.

A

a. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

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67
Q 
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Select one:
a. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
b. Valsalva maneuver
c. Peripheral resistance
d. Venous pooling
A

a. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

68
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
b. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
c. Increased lipogenesis
d. Increased lipolysis

A

d. Increased lipolysis

69
Q 
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
Select one:
a. Open-chain movements
b. Loaded movements
c. Suspended bodyweight movements 
d. Closed-chain movements
A

d. Closed-chain movements

70
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?
Select one:
a. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
c. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
d. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets

A

b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

71
Q 
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
Select one:
a. The community 
b. Exercise group
c. Exercise leader
d. Family
A

d. Family

72
Q 
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
Select one:
a. First class
b. Fourth class
c. Third class
d. Second class
A

c. Third class

73
Q 
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left atrium
d. Right ventricle
A

a. Left ventricle

74
Q 
Which vitamin is the most transient?
Select one:
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin A 
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
A

c. Vitamin C

75
Q 
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills
b. 6 to 8 drills
c. 2 to 4 drills
d. 4 to 5 drills
A

b. 6 to 8 drills

76
Q 
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Select one:
a. Pulmonary veins
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium 
d. Left atrium
A

d. Left atrium

77
Q 
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg hops
b. Depth jumps
c. Ice skaters
d. Box jumps
A

b. Depth jumps

78
Q 
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Sandbags
b. TRX Rip Trainer 
c. Battle ropes
d. Strength machines
A

a. Sandbags

79
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
c. Davies test
d. Pushing test

A

d. Pushing test

80
Q 
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
Select one:
a. Low-impact activity
b. High-impact activity 
c. Loaded movement training
d. Proprioceptive training
A

a. Low-impact activity

81
Q

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:
a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle
b. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
d. Having more fat stored on their body

A

c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

82
Q 
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis 
b. Erector spinae
c. Multifidus
d. Pelvic floor muscles
A

b. Erector spinae

83
Q 
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?
Select one:
a. 45 cm
b. 55 cm
c. 75 cm
d. 65 cm
A

a. 45 cm

84
Q 
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Select one:
a. Kidney function 
b. Liver function
c. Thyroid function
d. Heart function
A

c. Thyroid function

85
Q 
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Validity
b. Relevance 
c. Reliability
d. Appropriateness
A

a. Validity

86
Q 
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Select one:
a. ViPR
b. Medicine ball
c. Sandbag
d. Kettlebell
A

b. Medicine ball

87
Q

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?
Select one:
a. Rate of force production
b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
c. Speed
d. Explosiveness

A

b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

88
Q 
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Select one:
a. Osteopenia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

c. Osteoarthritis

89
Q 
Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?
Select one:
a. Glycogen
b. Fat 
c. Carbohydrate
d. Protein
A

d. Protein

90
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

A

d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

91
Q 
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Select one:
a. Lateral
b. Appendicular
c. Peripheral
d. Axial
A

b. Appendicular

92
Q

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver
b. Ball bridge
c. Floor bridge
d. Standing cable hip extension

A

d. Standing cable hip extension

93
Q 
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Coping planning
c. Goal setting
d. Action planning
A

a. Self-monitoring

94
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?
Select one:
a. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise
b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

A

b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

95
Q

Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function?
Select one:
a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
b. Asthma
c. Hypertension
d. Lung cancer

A

a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

96
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

A

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

97
Q 
Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?
Select one:
a. In-season training
b. Off-season training 
c. Cardio training
d. Preseason training
A

c. Cardio training

98
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
Select one:
a. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
b. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.
c. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
d. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.

A

a. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

99
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
Select one:
a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise
b. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
d. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise

A

b. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

100
Q 
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
Select one:
a. 5 or 6 sets 
b. 7 to 9 sets
c. 0 sets
d. 1 to 4 sets
A

d. 1 to 4 sets

101
Q 
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch reflex 
d. Isometric contraction
A

a. Autogenic inhibition

102
Q 
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Action
c. Precontemplation 
d. Maintenance
A

a. Contemplation

103
Q 
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? 
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Isometric contraction 
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Stretch reflex
A

c. Autogenic inhibition

104
Q 
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
Select one:
a. 5.0 mL/kg/min
b. 7.0 mL/kg/min
c. 3.5 mL/kg/min 
d. 2.5 mL/kg/min
A

c. 3.5 mL/kg/min

105
Q 
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?
Select one:
a. Vigorous exercise
b. Excess weight
c. 1,500 mg of sodium per day
d. A low-fat diet
A

b. Excess weight

106
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
Select one:
a. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
b. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.
c. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

A

d. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

107
Q

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Select one:
a. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

A

d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

108
Q 
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
Select one:
a. 120 minutes per week
b. 90 minutes per week 
c. 60 minutes per week
d. 75 minutes per week
A

d. 75 minutes per week

109
Q 
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Static balance
d. Stable balance
A

b. Semi-dynamic balance

110
Q 
For what is vitamin D most important?
Select one:
a. Hair growth
b. Bone health
c. Skin pigmentation 
d. Eyesight
A

b. Bone health

111
Q 
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a. Core power
b. Core endurance
c. Core stability 
d. Core strength
A

d. Core strength

112
Q 
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
Select one:
a. Heart valve problem
b. Ischemic heart disease
c. Arrhythmia
d. Hypertension
A

b. Ischemic heart disease

113
Q 
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
Select one:
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Diaphragm
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis
A

c. Transverse abdominis

114
Q 
Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Lipids
A

c. Protein

115
Q 
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
Select one:
a. 0.2
b. 1 
c. 0.1
d. 0.5
A

c. 0.1

116
Q

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
Select one:
a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.

A

c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

117
Q 
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Somatosensory system
b. Vestibular system 
c. Visual system
d. Auditory system
A

c. Visual system

118
Q 
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Select one:
a. Small jumps
b. Explosive jumps
c. Dynamic motion 
d. Fast, powerful movements
A

a. Small jumps

119
Q

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
Select one:
a. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
b. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.

A

a. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

120
Q 
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Select one:
a. Technique imagery
b. Appearance imagery
c. Positive self-talk 
d. Energy imagery
A

b. Appearance imagery

121
Q 
At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified?
Select one:
a. Overweight
b. Healthy weight 
c. Underweight
d. Obese
A

a. Overweight

BMI scores of 20 to 24.9 are considered normal
scores of 25 to 29.9 are overweight
scores of 30 to 34.9 are obese
scores above 35 are extremely obese
Scores under 20 are considered underweight.

122
Q 
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Peer pressure
b. Societal influence 
c. Group influence
d. Health influence
A

c. Group influence

123
Q 
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
Select one:
a. 125/75 mm Hg 
b. 120/60 mm Hg
c. 120/80 mm Hg
d. 80/120 mm Hg
A

c. 120/80 mm Hg

124
Q 
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Select one:
a. The electron transport chain
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
A

c. Glycolysis

Glycolysis is a cytoplasmic pathway which breaks down glucose into two three-carbon compounds and generates energy. … Glycolysis is used by all cells in the body for energy generation.

The final product of glycolysis is pyruvate in aerobic settings and lactate in anaerobic conditions.

125
Q 
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Quickness
c. Agility 
d. Speed
A

b. Quickness

126
Q 
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Select one:
a. Archimedes’ principle
b. Wolff's law 
c. Davis's law
d. Overload principle
A

c. Davis’s law

Davis’ Law describes how soft tissue (ligaments, tendons, and fascia) adapt via imposed demands similar to how Wolff’s Law describes the same phenomenon for bone.

127
Q 
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Select one:
a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
d. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
A

c. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

128
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
Select one:
a. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.
b. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.
c. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms.
d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

A

d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

129
Q 
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rotatores
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Iliopsoas
A

b. Rotatores

130
Q 
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered length-tension relationship
A

b. Synergistic dominance

Synergistic dominance - an increase in synergistic muscle activity relative to a weak or inhibited prime mover. Example: Inhibition of the gluteus maximus may lead to synergistic dominance of the biceps femoris during hip extension.

131
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:
a. Being more explosive
b. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Increasing speed

A

c. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

132
Q

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
Select one:
a.
This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

A

c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

133
Q 
Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Somatosensory system 
b. Visual system
c. Vestibular system
d. Auditory system
A

c. Vestibular system

vestibular system, apparatus of the inner ear involved in balance. The vestibular system consists of two structures of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear, the vestibule and the semicircular canals, and the structures of the membranous labyrinth contained within them.

134
Q

What is the definition of anthropometry?
Select one:
a. The measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
b. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
c. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
d. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface

A

c. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

135
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercising because it is fun
b. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
c. Exercising because they feel guilty
d. Exercising because they value the health benefits

A

a. Exercising because it is fun

136
Q 
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 1
c. Zone 3 
d. Zone 4
A

a. Zone 2

137
Q 
Which of the following is a ketone body?
Select one:
a. Glycogen
b. Acetoacetic acid
c. Pyruvate 
d. Lactic acid
A

b. Acetoacetic acid

138
Q 
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 3
A

b. Phase 2

139
Q

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
Select one:
a. 140 beats per minute
b. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise
c. 120 beats per minute
d. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate

A

a. 140 beats per minute

140
Q 
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Multifidus
c. Quadratus lumborum 
d. Erector spinae
A

d. Erector spinae

141
Q 
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Erector spinae
A

a. Transverse abdominis

142
Q

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Select one:
a. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
b. It converts ADP back to ATP.
c. It helps transmit the motor signal.
d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

A

d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

143
Q 
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular function
b. Vestibular function
c. Afferent nerve function
d. Sensory function
A

a. Neuromuscular function

144
Q 
In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?
Select one:
a. Class II obesity
b. Overweight
c. Obese 
d. Healthy weight
A

b. Overweight

145
Q 
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Select one:
a. Relevance
b. Validity 
c. Reliability
d. Appropriateness
A

c. Reliability

146
Q

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
Select one:
a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

A

c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

147
Q

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Select one:
a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
c. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
d. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening

A

b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

148
Q

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?
Select one:
a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source.
c. A steady-state intensity would be used.
d. Fat would be the main energy source.

A

a. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

149
Q 
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills per workout
b. 4 to 8 drills per workout
c. 1 or 2 drills per workout
d. 2 or 3 drills per workout
A

b. 4 to 8 drills per workout

150
Q 
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Select one:
a. Multifidus
b. Internal oblique
c. Transversus abdominis 
d. Erector spinae
A

d. Erector spinae

151
Q 
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Isometric
b. Isokinetic
c. Eccentric 
d. Concentric
A

a. Isometric

152
Q 
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Select one:
a. Nonsynovial
b. Nonaxial
c. Condyloid
d. Synovial
A

b. Nonaxial

153
Q 
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Middle and lower trapezius
b. Latissimus dorsi 
c. Pectoralis major
d. Teres major
A

a. Middle and lower trapezius

154
Q 
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Select one:
a. Neck pain
b. Shoulder pain
c. Low-back pain 
d. Leg pain
A

d. Leg pain`

155
Q 
Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Adductor complex 
c. Upper trapezius
d. Anterior and posterior tibialis
A

d. Anterior and posterior tibialis

156
Q 
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
Select one:
a. More efficiently
b. Not at all
c. Equally
d. Less efficiently
A

a. More efficiently

157
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
b. Body fat loss
c. Muscle mass atrophy
d. Decreased volume and intensity

A

b. Body fat loss

158
Q 
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Frontal plane box jump-up 
b. Sagittal plane box jump-down
c. Transverse plane box jump-down
d. Sagittal plane box jump-up
A

c. Transverse plane box jump-down

159
Q 
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Select one:
a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Muscular Development Training
A

a. Power Training

160
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Select one:
a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

A

b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

161
Q 
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
Select one:
a. ATP and water
b. ADP and hydrogen ions
c. ADP and water
d. ATP and oxygen
A

a. ATP and water

162
Q

Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Select one:
a. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs.
b. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
c. One can live without cholesterol.
d. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.

A

b. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

163
Q 
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Select one:
a. Palms facing down
b. Thumbs pointing down
c. Palms facing each other 
d. Thumbs pointing up
A

d. Thumbs pointing up

164
Q

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?
Select one:
a. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
d. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

A

c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

165
Q 
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Select one:
a. A collecting summary
b. Sustain talk
c. An affirmation
d. Change talk
A

b. Sustain talk

CPT (19 decks)

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