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Reviewers > Immunology & Serology > Flashcards

Immunology & Serology Flashcards

1
Q

NPW for serum antitoxin/ therapy

A

Emil von Behring (1901)

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2
Q

NPW for cellular immunity in tuberculosis

A

Robert Koch (1905)

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3
Q

NPW for Phagocytosis

A

Elie Metchnikoff (1908)

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4
Q

NPW for immunity and side chain theory

A

Paul Ehrlich (1908)

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5
Q

NPW for anaphylaxis

A

Richet and Portier (1913)

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6
Q

NPW for complement

A

Jules Bordet (1919)

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7
Q

NPW for human blood group antigens
“ABO”
SSR (specificity of serologic reaction)

A

Karl Landsteiner (1930)

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8
Q

NPW for immunologic tolerance

A

Burnet and Medawar (1960)

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9
Q

NPW for structure of antibodies

A

Edelman and Porter (1972)

*Edelman: analytic ultracentrifuge, 7s
*Porter: papain, IgG

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10
Q

NPW for radioimmunoassay

A

Rosalyn Yalow (1977)

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11
Q

NPW for Major Histocompatibility complex

A

Benaceraf, Dausset, and Snell (1980)

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12
Q

NPW for Immunoregulation

A

Niels Jerne (1984)

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13
Q

NPW for Monoclonal antibody
Using hybridoma technique

A

Koehler and Milstein (1984)

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14
Q

NPW for Antibody diversity.
In 1978, he discovered the genetic principle underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities.

A

Susumu Tonegawa (1987)

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15
Q

NPW for transplantation

A

Thomas and Murray (1991)

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16
Q

NPW for cytotoxic T cell recognition of virally infected cells

A

Doherty and Zinkernagel (1996)

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17
Q

NPW for HIV

A

Francoise Baree-Sinoussi and Luc Montagnier (2008)

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18
Q

NPW for antibody structure using pepsin

A

Alfred Nisonoff

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19
Q

Method of scratching the skin and applying pulverized powder from a smallpox scab.

A

Variolation

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20
Q

Cowpox virus

A

Vaccinia

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21
Q

Smallpox virus

A

Variola major

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22
Q

Alastrim

A

Variola minor

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23
Q

AKA Typhoid Mary. A cook and a carrier of Salmonella Typhi

A

Mary Mallon

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24
Q

Christopher Columbus.
Old World to New World

A

Smallpox

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25
Q

Christopher Columbus:
New world to old world

A

Syphilis

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26
Q

Demonstrated that protection from cowpox can be generated by the transfer of postural material from a cowpox lesion preventing formation of smallpox lesion. Vaccination

A

Edward Jenner (1798)

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27
Q

Father of Immunology

A

Edward Jenner

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28
Q

Father of Modern Microbiology

A

Louis Pasteur

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29
Q

Discovered therapeutic vaccination. Uses live “attenuated” vaccines for cholera, anthrax, rabies (CAR)

A

Louis Pasteur (1885)

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30
Q

Discovered that certain blood cells could ingest foreign material, now classified as phagocytes

A

Elie Metchnikoff (1888)

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31
Q

Discovered precipitins

A

Robert Kaus (1897)

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32
Q

Year of the discovery of T cell receptor genes

A

1984

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33
Q

1st recorded blood transfusion

A

Pope Innocent VII (1492)

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34
Q

Use of sodium phosphate / phosphate soda as blood preservative

A

Braxton Hicks (1869)

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35
Q

Use of sodium citrate as blood preservative (1% concentration)

A

Albert Hustin (1914)

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36
Q

Determined the minimum concentration of Citrate as anticoagulant (0.2%)

A

Richard Lewisohn (1915)

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37
Q

Acid Citrate Dextrose as preservative
*21 days

A

Loutit and Mollison (1943)

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38
Q

Citrate phosphate dextrose as blood preservative

A

Gibson (1957)

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39
Q

Carried vein-to-vein transfusion

A

Edward Lindemann

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40
Q

Discovered ABO blood group

A

Karl Landsteiner (1901)

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41
Q

Director of American Red Cross Blood Bank
Father of Modern Blood banking

A

Dr. Charles Drew (1941)

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42
Q

Invented Gel technology (standardization)

A

Yves Lapierre (1985)

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43
Q

AKA innate, inborn, non-adaptive immune system

A

Natural Immune System

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44
Q

Natural immune system has a __ immune response

A

Non specific

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45
Q

No memory cells formed

A

Natural immune system

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46
Q

Cleaves cell wall of certain bacteria (G+)

A

Lysozyme

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47
Q

Digest bacterial surface protein

A

Pepsin

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48
Q

Binds iron which is essential for bacterial growth

A

Lactoferrin

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49
Q

Acidity of the stomach

A

pH 1

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50
Q

pH of the skin

A

5.5 to 5.6

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51
Q

pH of the vagina

A

pH 5

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52
Q

Attacks virally infected cells and tumor cells by secreting perforins and granzymes.

A

NK cells

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53
Q

Inhibitory receptors of NK cells

A

Killer Cell Immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR)

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54
Q

CDs expressed by NK cells

A

CD 16 and CD 56

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55
Q

NK cells are also called ___ when exposed to IL-2 and IFN-y

A

Lymphokine Activated Killer Cells/ LAKs

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56
Q

Engulfment and destruction of microorganisms or damaged cells

A

Phagocytosis

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57
Q

Stages of phagocytosis

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Chemotaxis
  3. Engulfment
  4. Digestion
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58
Q

Chemotaxis is a process by which cells tend to move in a certain direction under the stimulation of a chemical substance known as ___

A

Chemotaxin

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59
Q

3 classic examples of chemotaxins

A

Antibodies, CRP, C5a

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60
Q

Test for chemotaxis

A

Boyden Chamber

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61
Q

Migration toward the site

A

Positive chemotaxis

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62
Q

Migration away from the site

A

Negative chemotaxis

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63
Q

Adhesion-Receptors of the innate immune system recognized by PPR through ___

A

PAMPS (Pathogen Associated Molecular Pattern)

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64
Q

Toll from drosophilia fly or fruit fly

A

Toll like receptor

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65
Q

TLR1

A

For mycobacteria

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66
Q

TLR2

A

For targeting the teichoic acid

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67
Q

TLR4

A

For targeting LPS

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68
Q

Speeds up phagocytosis

A

Opsonins

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69
Q

Respiratory burst – NADPH oxidase enzyme activity leads to the formation of reactive oxygen species

A

Oxygen-dependent pathway

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70
Q

Leads to the production of hypochlorite

A

Myeloperoxidase system

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71
Q

Cleave cell membrane

A

Defensins

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72
Q

Proteases that cleaves proteins in the cell

A

Cathepsin G

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73
Q

Produced by activated macrophage

A

Nitric oxide

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74
Q

Body’s overall reaction to injury or invasion by an infectious agent

A

Inflammation

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75
Q

Redness or erythema

A

Rubor

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76
Q

Heat

A

Calor

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77
Q

Pain

A

Dolor

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78
Q

Swelling or edema

A

Tumor

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79
Q

Loss of function

A

Function Laesa

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80
Q

Originally thought to be an antibody to the C-polysaccharide of the pneumococci.
-Best indicator or most widely used indicator of acute inflammation

A

C-Reactive Protein

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81
Q

Half-life of C-Reactive Protein

A

19 hours

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82
Q

Associated with HDL cholesterol;
-activates monocytes and macrophages
-found to be increased significantly more in bacterial infections than in viral infections

A

Serum Amyloid A

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83
Q

Polypeptide products of activated cells that control or regulate various cellular responses thereby regulated immune response

A

Cytokines

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84
Q

A group of cytokines discovered in virally infected cultured cells that interfere with viral replication, virus nonspecific but host specific

A

Interferons

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85
Q

Other name of TNF-a

A

Cachectin

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86
Q

Other name of TNF-b

A

Lymphotoxin

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87
Q

Cytokines that stimulate transendothelial leukocyte movement from the blood to the tissue and regulate the migration of PMNs and mononuclear leukocytes within tissues

A

Chemokines

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88
Q

AKA acquired, specific immune system

A

Adaptive Immune System

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89
Q

Anamnestic immune response, formation of memory cells

A

Adaptive Immune System

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90
Q

They modulate inflammation and immunity by regulating growth, mobility, and differentiation of lymphoid cells. Interact with leukocytes but do not bind to the antigen

A

Interleukins

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91
Q

Cytokine secreted by monocytes, macrophage, dendritic cells
-inflammation, fever, acute phase response

A

IL-1

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92
Q

Cytokine secreted by T cells
-growth and proliferation of T and B cells

A

IL-2

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93
Q

Cytokine secreted by activated T cells
-hematopoiesis

A

IL-3

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94
Q
A
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95
Q

Cytokine produced by Th2 , mast cells
-AKA B cell growth factor I
-promotion of Th2 differentiation
-stimulation of B cells to switch to IgE production (isotype switching)

A

IL-4

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96
Q

Cytokine produced by Th2
-AKA B cell growth factor II
-eosinophil generation and activation
-T cell and B cell growth and differentiation

A

IL-5

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97
Q

Secreted by monocyte, macrophage
-initiation of acute phase response

A

IL-6

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98
Q

Cytokine secreted by stromal cells
-stimulates proliferation of lymphoid progenitors

A

IL-7

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99
Q

Cytokine secreted by macrophage and endothelial cells
-potent stimulator of neutrophils
-activates respiratory burst and release specific and azurophilic granule contents

A

IL-8

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100
Q

Cytokine secreted by Th cells
-proliferation of T cells, thymocytes, and mast cells

A

IL-9

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101
Q

Cytokine secreted by Th2, macrophage
-suppression of Th2 cells, inhibition of antigen presentation, inhibition of interferon-gamma

A

IL-10

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102
Q

Cytokine secreted by T cells, macrophages, other cells
-inhibition of both T and B cell proliferation
-induction of IgA
-inhibition of macrophages

A

TGF-B

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103
Q

Proinflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1
IL-6
IL-8
IL-15
IL-18
TNF-a
IFN-y

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104
Q

Anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-10
TGF-B
IL-35

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105
Q

Traps antigen entering from subcutaneous

A

Lymph nodes

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106
Q

Traps antigen entering from blood (blood borne pathogens)

A

Spleen

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107
Q

Pan marker

A

CD 19

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108
Q

Ion channel

A

CD 20

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109
Q

C3D receptor, EBV receptor

A

CD 21

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110
Q

Activated cell marker, IL-2 receptor

A

CD 25

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111
Q

Isotype switching, memory cell formation

A

CD 40

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112
Q

Classical marker

A

CD 2

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113
Q

Complexed with T cell receptor

A

CD 3

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114
Q

MHC II receptor, HIV receptor

A

CD 4

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115
Q

MHC I receptor, cytotoxic T cell

A

CD 8

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116
Q

Mitogens in B cells

A

LPS, SPA, Pokeweed mitogen

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117
Q

Mitogens in T cells

A

Pokeweed mitogen, PHA, concanavalin A

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118
Q

Gold standard in laboratory identification of Adaptive immune response.
- An automated system for identifying cells based on scattering of light as cells flow in single file through a laser beam

A

Flow cytometry

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119
Q

Use of labeled monoclonal antibodies against specific surface Ag

A

Fluorescence microscopy

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120
Q

Use of sheep RBCs to detect T cells by binding to the CD2 marker
(+) if there are at least 3 sRBCs that attaches to a T cell

A

Rosette test

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121
Q

Lymphocyte separation
-has a SG of 1.077 – 1.114
-Sample: defibrinated or heparinized/ACD

A

Ficoll Hypaque

122
Q

Layers of Ficoll Hypaque from top to bottom

A

Plasma > Mononuclear cells > granulocytes and RBCs

123
Q

Normal CD4 : CD8 ratio

A

2:1

124
Q

Normal CD4 count is:

A

500 to 1200/uL

125
Q

Ratio during HIV

A

0.5:1 or 1: 2

126
Q

CD4 during AIDS

A

< 200/uL

127
Q

Destroy virally infected cells, tumor cells, and allografts through secretion of perforin and granzymes. Also activate macrophage through secretion of cytokines (IFN-y)

A

CD8
Tc (20-25%)

128
Q

Activate macrophage, enhance cytotoxic T cell response by secretion of cytokines (IL-2) , activate B cells into plasma cells

A

CD 4
Th (50-60%)

129
Q

Limit immune response

A

CD8 (Ts)
CD3, 4, 25 (Treg)

130
Q

Circulating immunosurveillance and anamnestic response

A

CD 4 & CD8 ™

131
Q

CD markers in Pro B-cell

A

CD 19 and CD45R

132
Q

CD markers in Naïve or immature B cell

A

CD 19, 20 , 21, 35

133
Q

CD markers in activated B cells

A

CD 25

134
Q

Virally infected cell is recognized by ___ through ___

A

T cytotoxic CD8 +; MHC Class I

135
Q

Tc is activated by __ produced by Th cell

A

IL-2

136
Q

Activated Tc kills virally infected cell by secreting: (2)

A

Perforins
Granzymes

137
Q

APC presents antigenic fragments through ___ to ____

A

MHC II; T helper CD4 + cell

138
Q

Stimulates activated Th cell to become Th1

A

IL-12

139
Q

Stimulates activated Th cell to Th2

A

IL-4

140
Q

Th1 cells produce __ which activates phagocytes to kill ingested microbes.

A

IFN-y

141
Q

Th2 cells produce IL-4 which stimulates the production of ___ (isotype switching)

A

IgE and IgG4

142
Q

Th2 cell produce __ which activates eosinophil

A

IL-5

143
Q

AKA Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system in human

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

144
Q

Genes coding for MHC are found ____

A

Chromosome 6 short arm

145
Q

HLA association of Myasthenia gravis, Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease

A

HLA B8

146
Q

HLA association of ankylosing spondylitis / bamboo spine disease

A

HLA B27

147
Q

HLA association of Celiac disease, DM I

A

HLA DQ2

148
Q

HLA association of DMI, Celiac disease

A

HLA DQ8

149
Q

HLA association of SLE, DM I, Grave’s disease

A

HLA DR3

150
Q

HLA association of RA, DM I

A

HLA DR4

151
Q

HLA class found in all nucleated cells

A

Class I

152
Q

HLA class I presents antigens that attack the inside of a cell (endogenous cytosolic pathway) to ___ triggering cytotoxic response

A

CD8+ T cell

153
Q

HLA Class I is important against ___

A

Viral infection, tumor and graft rejection

154
Q

HLA Class found in APCs and composed of A chains and B chain

A

Class II

155
Q

HLA Class II present antigens found outside the cell (exogenous/ endocytic pathway) to ___ cells triggering antibody production

A

CD4+

156
Q

HLA Class where C2, C4, Factor B, TNF are found

A

Class III

157
Q

In vitro test that mimics the in vivo condition of transplantation

A

Mixed lymphocyte reaction

158
Q

AKA Complement Dependent Cytotoxicity (CDC)

A

Complement Mediated Microlymphocytotoxicity (Antigen-Level Typing/Phenotyping)

159
Q

In CDC, the accepted sample is

A

ACD or heparinized blood (1-2 ml)

160
Q

Dye used to visualize the cells in CDC

A

Eosin Red and Trypan Blue

161
Q

Positive result in CDC

A

Flattened, large, dark, non refractile

162
Q

Substances that react with antibodies sensitized T cells but may not evoke immune response

A

Antigens

163
Q

Substances that provoke an immune response

A

Immunogen

164
Q

Antigen but non-immunogenic. AKA incomplete antigen.

A

Hapten

165
Q

Immunogenic, carrier molecule. When coupled to a hapten will confer new antigenic specificities

A

Schlepper Molecule

166
Q

Antigenic determinant or antigen binding site

A

Epitope

167
Q

The greater the difference between the substance and the host, the more potent it is as an antigen

A

Foreignness

168
Q

Size of a strong immunogen

A

> 6kD

169
Q

At least ___ daltons is needed to be immunogenic

A

10,000

170
Q

Have the highest molecular weight and are the best immunogens

A

Protein

171
Q

Substances that can be mixed with antigens to enhance and accelerate immune response by protecting immunogen from degradation allowing longer response

A

Adjuvants

172
Q

Enhances phagocytosis by increasing the size and prevents rapid escape from the tissue

A

Alum precipitate

173
Q

AKA MSDA, derived from shark’s oil. Used for HIV vaccines that are being developed.

A

Squalene

174
Q

Water in oil emulsion of killed Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Bordetella pertussis

A

Freund’s complete adjuvant

175
Q

Antigen from the host

A

Autoantigen

176
Q

Antigen from other individuals but the same genome. Identical twins

A

Syngeneic antigens

177
Q

Antigen from other individuals but within the same species.
-Other name: homologous/allogeneic antigen/ isoantigen

A

Alloantigen

178
Q

Antigen from different species
-Other name: xenogeneic/heterologous / heterogeneic antigens

A

Heteroantigens

179
Q

Antigen that exists in unrelated plants or animals nut either identical or closely related, so that antibody to one will cross react with antibody to the other.
-Ex: Weil-Felix

A

Heterophile antigens

180
Q

Autologous antigen that does not come in contact with antibody producing cells
Eg. Lens of eye, spermatozoa

A

Sequestered antigen

181
Q

Antigen unique to a specific organ.
Eg. MBP in nerves, PSA

A

Tissue Specific Antigen

182
Q

Transfer of tissue within the same individual

A

Autograft

183
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues to a genetically identical individual

A

Isograft/ Syngraft

184
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues to a genetically non-identical member of the same species

A

Allograft

185
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues to a member of a different species
E.g. transplant of a pig valve

A

Heterograft or Xenograft

186
Q

Specific glycoproteins produced in response to an antigen stimulation referred to as immoglobulins

A

Antibody

187
Q

Theory of antibody diversity wherein cells have surface receptors that were present before contact with antigen. Antigen selects the cell with receptors specific for it then would break off and enter the circulation as antibody molecules. New receptors would form on the surface of the cell

A

Ehrlich’s Side Chain Theory

188
Q

Theory of antibody diversity wherein lymphocytes are genetically preprogrammed to produce one type of antibody, and that a specific antigen finds or selects those particular cells capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate.

A

Clonal selection

189
Q

Determines the Ig class. Either alpha, delta, epsilon, gamma, or mu. Encoded by chromosome 14

A

Heavy chain

190
Q

Either kappa or lambda but can never be present both in a single antibody
-Kappa encoded by chromosome 2, lambda encoded by chromosome 22

A

Light Chain

191
Q

Links H-H chain and H-L chain but not L-L chain.

A

Disulfide bonds

192
Q

L-L chain is only found on ___

A

Bence Jones Protein

193
Q

Provide flexibility of the antibody due to the presence of amino acid ___

A

Proline

194
Q

Contains the Fab region (antigen binding site) / Paratope where the antigen binds

A

Variable region

195
Q

Determines the specificity of the antibody

A

Hypervariable region

196
Q

Contains the Fc region or fragment crystallizable

A

Constant region

197
Q

Composed of 1 variable and 1 constant domain

A

Light chain

198
Q

Composed of 1 variable and either 3 or 4 constant domain depending on class

A

Heavy chain

199
Q

Used by Rodney Porter to describe Ab structure
-Yields 2 Fab portion and 1 Fc portion

A

Papain

200
Q

Used by Alfred and Nisonoff
-Yield 1 F(ab’)2 and 1 Fc’ portion

A

Pepsin

201
Q

AKA incomplete immunoglobulin

A

IgG

202
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin in serum
-Longest half-life.
-Main antibody for secondary immune response

A

IgG

203
Q

Best IgG crossing placenta

A

IgG1

204
Q

Short hinge, cannot cross placenta

A

IgG2

205
Q

Largest number of disulfide bonds. Most efficient IgG in complement fixation

A

IgG3

206
Q

IgG type that cannot fix complement

A

IgG4

207
Q

Provide immunity in newborn, fix complement, enhance phagocytosis, and neutralized toxins and viruses through (ADCC)
-Precipitates in agglutination but best in precipitation
-Respond best against protein antigens

A

IgG

208
Q

AKA macroglobulin/ complete immunoglobulin
-main antibody in primary / early immune response and usually indicates acute infection
-Effective in agglutination and cytolytic reaction
-Most primitive and last to leave in senescence
-most often formed in response to gram-negative, endotoxin neutralization
-best respond to carbohydrate antigens
-complement fixation, opsonization, toxic neutralization and agglutination

A

IgM

209
Q

-monomer on serum, dimer on secretions
-predominant antibody in secretions
-protect surface mucosa, by inhibiting of microorganism
-binds to a secretory component produced by epithelial cells which prevents enzymatic degradation

A

IgA

210
Q

-present in the mature B cell surface
-plays as role in B cell maturation, differentitation and immunoregulation

A

IgD

211
Q

-AKA Reagin
-Binds to mast cells and triggers immediate hypersensitivity, allergic, and anaphylactic response
-also plays a role in defense mechanisms to parasites
-heat labile antibody

A

IgE

212
Q

Determines the immunoglobulin class

A

Heavy chain

213
Q

Variation of allotype is seen in ___

A

Constant region

214
Q

Difference of idiotype is seen in __

A

Variable region

215
Q

Purified antibodies which are capable of reacting to a specific antigen and are derived from a single parent antibody-producing cell

A

Monoclonal antibody

216
Q

Fused B cells and myeloma cells capable of secreting antibodies indefinitely

A

Hybridoma

217
Q

Cancerous plasma cell

A

Myeloma cell

218
Q

Surfactant and fusing agent

A

PEG

219
Q

Used for DNA production

A

Thymidine and Hypoxanthine

220
Q

Blocks production of new nucleotides

A

Aminopterin

221
Q

Use of monoclonal antibodies

A

For diagnosis and treatment of diseases

222
Q

Series of more than 30 proteins that play a role in amplifying inflammatory response to destroy and clear foreign antigens
-cascade phenomenon were the product of one reaction is the enzymatic catalyst of the next

A

Complement system

223
Q

The classical pathway is triggered by ___

A

Immune complex

224
Q

Immunoglobulins triggering the classical pathway

A

IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2

225
Q

In C1- trimolecular composed of C1q, r, s stabilized by ___

A

Calcium

226
Q

In Classical pathway, IgG binds to ___ region

A

CH2

227
Q

In classical pathway, IgM binds to ___ region

A

CH4

228
Q

Cleaves C1s

A

C1r

229
Q

Cleaves C4 and C2

A

C1s

230
Q

AKA Properdin pathway

A

Alternative pathway

231
Q

Alternative pathway is triggered by ___

A

IgA aggregates, bacterial cell wall (LPS), fungal cell walls (zymosan), virus, parasite and cobra venom

232
Q

Stabilizes C3 convertase

A

Properdin

233
Q

Latest and newest discovered pathway but classified as the most ancient pathway

A

MBL pathway

234
Q

Where all of the pathways converge; most pivotal/ important

A

C3

235
Q

Dissociates C1r and C1s from C1q. Inactivates MASP-2

A

C1 inhibitor

236
Q

Cleaves C3b and C4b

A

Factor I

237
Q

Cofactor with factor I to inactivate C4b, binds C3b and prevents binding of Factor B

A

Factor H

238
Q

Acts as cofactor to factor I to inactivate C4b

A

C4 binding protein

239
Q

Prevents attachment of the C5b67 complex to call membranes

A

S protein (vitronectin)

240
Q

AKA Membrane Inhibitor of Reactive Lysis, Blocks assembly of MAC by binding C8 and C9

A

CD59/ MIRL

241
Q

AKA Homologous Restriction Factor. Binds to C8 therefore prevents formation of MAC

A

HRF

242
Q

AKA Decay Accelerating Factor. Prevents assembly of C3 convertase by dissociating C2a and Bb in the membrane

A

CD55/ DAF

243
Q

Deficiency of complement. Lupus-like syndrome

A

C1 (q, r, s)

244
Q

Lupus-like syndrome, recurrent infection, atherosclerosis (deficiency of complement)

A

C2 (most common)

245
Q

Severe recurrent infection, glomerulonephritis (deficiency of complement)

A

C3 (most severe)

246
Q

Lupus-like syndrome (deficiency of complement)

A

C4

247
Q

Recurrent infection with Neisseria sp (deficiency of complement)

A

C5, 6, 7, 8
Properdin

248
Q

No known disease association

A

C9

249
Q

Recurrent pyogenic infection

A

Factor H and I

250
Q

Pneumococcal infection, sepsis, and Neisseria infection

A

MBL

251
Q

Pneumococcal infections

A

MASP-2

252
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

A

DAF, MIRL/CD 59, HRF

253
Q

Hereditary Angioneurotic edema (HANE), edema is due to accumulation of C2b

A

C1 INH

254
Q

Uses agarose gel with incorporated specific antibodies then measures the radius of the circle that will be formed. Requires 24 hours before the result is available

A

Radial immunodiffusion (RID)

255
Q

Measures concentration according to the amount of light scattered by a solution containing a reagent antibody and measured patient sample

A

Nephelometry

256
Q

Measures the amount of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standardized concentration of antibody sensitized sheep erythrocytes.

A

Hemolytic Titration (CH50) Assay

257
Q

Based on the lysis of liposomes that release an enzyme when lyzed. More accurate than traditional CH50 testing.

A

Liposome lysis

258
Q

Sensitized rabbit RBCs are implanted in an agarose gel. Patient serum is then added in the punched wells. Clear zones indicate lysis and the diameter of the circle is related to the concentration

A

Radial hemolysis

259
Q

Solid phase IgM is attached in a microtiter plate and is used to initiate complement activation.

A

ELISA

260
Q

Performed in the same manner as CH50, however magnesium chloride and ethylene glycol (EGTA) is added to the buffer which chelates calcium. Rabbit RBCs is used as indicator

A

AH50 Assay

261
Q

Test can detect C3bBbP or C3bP. Microtiter wells are coated with bacterial polysaccharide to trigger activation of alternative pathway

A

ELISA

262
Q

Antigen associated with thyroid cancer

A

Thyroglobulin

263
Q

Antigen associated with multiple myeloma

A

Bence Jones Proteins

264
Q

Antigen associated with lymphoma

A

Beta-2-microglobulin

265
Q

Antigen associated with neuroendocrine tumors, melanoma, neuroblastoma

A

S-100

266
Q

Antigen associated with sarcomata, hemotopoietic origin

A

Cytokeratins

267
Q

Antigen associated with urinary bladder cancer

A

Bard’s BTA and Nuclear Matrix Protein (NMP-22)

268
Q

Antigen associated with lung and breast cancer

A

CYFRA 21-1

269
Q

Oncofetal antigen associated with colorectal, breast, and lung cancer

A

CEA

270
Q

Oncofetal antigen associated with nonseminomatous testicular cancer, primary hepatoma

A

AFP

271
Q

Carbohydrate antigen associated with ovarian adenocarcinoma

A

CA 125

272
Q

Carbohydrate antigen associated with breast cancer, pancreatic, colorectal, lung, ovarian, liver cancer

A

CA 15-3

273
Q

Tumor marker associated with pancreatic cancer

A

CA 19-9

274
Q

Tumor marker associated with prostate cancer

A

PSA

275
Q

Tumor marker associated with small cell cancers of the lung, endocrine tumors

A

Neuron-specific enolase

276
Q

Tumor marker (enzyme) associated with lymphoma

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

277
Q

Hormone associated with hydatidiform mole, chrociocarcinoma, germ cell trophoblastic cancer (nonseminomatous testicular cancer)

A

HCG

278
Q

Hormone associated with familial medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

Calcitonin

279
Q

Hormone associated with parathyroid carcinoma

A

Parathyroid hormone

280
Q

Cell markers for T cell leukemia

A

IL-2 receptor (CD25)

281
Q

Cell marker for hematopoietic malignancies

A

CD45

282
Q

Cell marker for lymphoma

A

CD20

283
Q

Cell marker for breast adenocarcinoma

A

Her2/neu

284
Q

To identify in asymptomatic individuals in a population detection of cancer at an early stage

A

Screening

285
Q

To identify cancer in a particular patient. Help distinguish between diseases with clinical manifestation

A

Diagnosis

286
Q

TO predict the clinical outcome of cancer patients and aid in therapeutic decision making. Used to identify the level and type of therapy that is best for a particular patient

A

Prognosis

287
Q

To observe the response of a cancer patient to treatment, and to monitor effectiveness of treatment. Elevations can indicate tumor recurrence before other signs become evident

A

Monitoring

288
Q

Immune response against self-antigen due to loss of self-tolerance. Ability to recognize self from nonself-antigen

A

Autoimmunity

289
Q

All autoimmune diseases involve antigen-antibody complexes (immune complexes). Associated most commonly with MHC Class ___

A

II

290
Q

Autoantibodies associated with SLE

A

ANA
Anti-dsDNA, Anti-DNP
Anti-ENA, Anti-Sm
Antiphospholipid antibodies

291
Q

Systemic and multi-organ. Immune complex is formed in the serum and deposits to organs

A

SLE

292
Q

HLA associated with SLE

A

HLA DR2 and HLA DR3

293
Q

Autoantibodies associated with Scleroderma

A

Anti-centromere Ab
ANA

294
Q

Target are connective tissues leading CREST form:
C- calcinosis
R – Raynaud’s phenomenon
E – esophageal dysmotility
S – sclerodactyly
T – telangiectasias

A

Scleroderma

295
Q

HLA associated with scleroderma

A

HLA DR3

296
Q

Autoantibodies associated with Sjogren’s syndromes

A

Anti salivary duct Ab
Anti lacrimal gland Ab
Antinuclear Ab
RA factor

297
Q

Mainly affects the exocrine glands (lacrimal and salivary glands)

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

298
Q

HLA associated with Sjogren’s syndrome

A

HLA DR3

299
Q
A
300
Q

Chronic systemic inflammatory disorder in which joint cartilage, ligaments and tendons are destroyed

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

301
Q
A

Reviewers (14 decks)

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