Blood banking Flashcards

1
Q

Study of transmission of inherited characteristics

A

Genetics

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2
Q

Genes expressed in equal frequency in males and females

A

Autosomal genes

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3
Q

Genes carried on X chromosomes

A

Sex-linked genes

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4
Q

A segment of DNA arranged along the chromosome at a specific locus

A

Gene

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5
Q

Genes in a locus that differs in their nucleotide sequence

A

Alleles

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6
Q

2 or more possible alleles at a locus

A

Polymorphic

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7
Q

2 or more different genes that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome

A

Allelic

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8
Q

Opposite form of a gene

A

Antithetical

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9
Q

Genes occur in pairs; one gene is passed from parent to the offspring

A

Medelian Genetics

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10
Q

Genes occurs in pairs; one gene is passed from parent to the offspring

A

Mendelian Genetics

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11
Q

Two members of a single gene pair is passed from one generation to the next in separate genes

A

Law of Independent Segregation

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12
Q

Traits inherited from different chromosomes expressed separately and discretely

A

Law of Independent Assortment

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13
Q

The inheritance of a blood group antigens can be predicted using a ___

A

Punnett square

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14
Q

Inherits identical alleles at the same gene locus from both parents

A

Homozygous

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15
Q

Inherits different alleles at the same gene locus from each parent

A

Heterozygous

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16
Q

Concentration of antigens

A

Dosage effect

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17
Q

Genes inherited on the same chromosome

A

Cis

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18
Q

Genes are inherited on separate chromosomes

A

Trans

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19
Q

Genes that are close together on a chromosome and inherited as one unit

A

Linkage genes

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20
Q

Set of genes inherited via one of the two parental gametes

A

Haplotypes

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21
Q

Genes that do not produce a detectable trait

A

Amorphs

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22
Q

ABO ISBT

A

001

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23
Q

MNS ISBT

A

002

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24
Q

P ISBT

A

003

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25
Rh ISBT
004
26
Lutheran ISBT
005
27
Kell ISBT
006
28
Lewis ISBT
007
29
Duffy ISBT
008
30
Kidd ISBT
009
31
Diego ISBT
010
32
Testing of genetic markers that are inherited to determine the presence or absence of a biological relationship
Relationship (Parentage) testing
33
RBC antigens
ABO Rh MNSs Kell Duffy Kidd
34
Used when bands between the child and the alleged father do not match
Mismatch
35
Minimum of ___ mismatches is required before an opinion of nonpaternity
Two
36
Likelihood of paternity or probability of paternity
W value
37
W value must be ____ to suggest paternity
At least 95%
38
Occurs when a marker is detected in the child and is absent in the mother and the alleged father or when the alleged father's phenotype demonstrates two markers and the child has neither of them
Direct or primary exclusion
39
Occurs when a single marker is detected in the child and a different single marker is detected in the alleged father
Indirect or secondary exclusion
40
Factors affecting agglutination
Temperature Incubation time pH Ionic strength Zeta potential Zone of equivalence Centrifugation
41
Optimum antigen-antibody ratio
40:1 = 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of 5% RCE 133:1 = 4 drops of serum + 1 drop of 3% RCS
42
An agglutination pattern in which numerous small clumps if cells exist amid a sea of free cells
Mixed field (mf)
43
Serologic testing of autoantibodies
Autocontrol DAT
44
Serologic testing for alloantibodies
O cell control Antibody screen Crossmatch DAT
45
2 diseases under alloimmune hemolytic anemia
HTR HDFN
46
3 types of immune hemolytic anemia
Alloimmune HA Autoimmune HA Drug induced immune HA
47
Antibodies that can cause HTR and HDFN
IgG (warm reactive antibody)
48
Blood group with IgM antibody that can cause HTR, HDFN
ABO
49
Discovered the ABO blood group
Karl Landsteiner (1901)
50
Book (discovery of blood groups and their association with transfusion reaction
Specificity of Serologic Reactions (Karl Landsteiner) in 1917
51
Discovered blood type AB
Alfredo Descatello and Adriano Sturlie
52
3 genes that code for A, B, O are located on ___
Chrimosome 9q
53
ABO antigens are developed in utero at ___ of gestation; full expression occurs between ____
5-6 weeks; 2-4 years of age
54
Linkage of type 1
Beta-1,3
55
Linkage of type 2
Beta-1,4
56
Origin of type 1 oligosaccharide chains
Plasma
57
Origin of type 2 oligosaccharide
Seen on erythrocytic precursors
58
Controlling genes of type 1 oligosaccharide
H A B Se Lewis
59
Controlling genes of type 2 oligosaccharide
H A B
60
Composition of precursor substance RBC membrane
Glucose -D-Galactose-N-acteylglucodamine-D-glucose
61
Number of H antigen subtypes
4 H1, H2, H3, H4
62
Amount of H antigen (most to fewest)
O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B Oh! Eto! Bhe! Eto Bhe! Ewan! Ewan Bhe!
63
RBC antigens are only synthesized on ___ precursor chains
Type 2
64
Enzyme in ABH antigens on red cells
a-2-L-fucosyltransferase by H gene
65
Substances secreted by A, B and H soluble substances
Glycoprotein
66
Secreted substances in A,B,H soluble substances are synthesized on ___ precursor chain
Type 1
67
Secretor (SeSe, Sese) is seen in ___ of random population
78%
68
Non secretor (sese) is seen in ___ of random population
22%
69
Naturally occurring antibody; production initiated at birth; predominantly IgM
ABO antibodies
70
Detectable titers of ABO antibodies _____ Peaks at ____
3-6 months 5-10 years
71
Principle of ABO typing technique
Hemagglutination
72
Using known sources of reagent antisera (anti+A, anti-B) to detect antigens on an individual's red cells
Forward grouping
73
Checks the reaction of anti-A and anti-B reagents Detects weak subgroups of A and B
Anti A, B
74
Principle for the test for determination of secretor status
Hemagglutination inhibition
75
Color of Anti-A reagent
Blue
76
Color of anti-B reagent
Yellow
77
Chemical preservatives of reagents
Sodium azide (0.1%)
78
Proteins present in plants that bind specifically to carbohydrate determinants and agglutinate erthrocytes through their cell surface oligosaccharide determinants
Lectins
79
Peanut extract
Arachis hypogaea
80
Soybean extract
Glycine soja
81
Using reagent cells with known A1 and B antigens testing the serum of the patient for ABO group antibodies
Reverse grouping
82
Human source; 4-5% RCS
Reagent A1 cells and B cells
83
hh genotype No H antigens formed Same phenotype as blood group O Anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H present in the serum
Bombay phenotype
84
Discovered by von Dungern/Dungren and Hirszfield in 1911
ABO subgroups
85
population frequency of people with A1 phenotype
80%
86
population frequency of people with A2 phenotype
20%
87
1-8% of A2 and 25% of A2B can form ___
Anti-A1
88
Mixed field agglutination with anti-A and or anti-A,B
A3
89
Weak agglutination with anti-A,B only
Ax
90
< or = red cells show very weak mf agglutination
Aend
91
No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B; secretors demonstrate quantities of A substance in saliva
Am
92
No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B; secretors contain small amount of A substance in saliva
Ay
93
No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B; secretors contain only H substance and no A substance in saliva
Ael
94
Mixed field agglutination with anti-B and or anti-A,B
B3
95
agglutination with anti-A,B (wk/0 with anti-B)
Bx
96
no agglutination with with anti-B and anti-A,B; secretors demonstrate quantities of B substance in saliva
Bm
97
No agglutination with anti-B and anti-A,B; secretors contain only H substance and no B substance in saliva
Bel
98
weakly reacting or missing antibodies
Group I discrepancies
99
weakly reacting or missing antigens
Group II discrepancies
100
Occurs when bacterial enzymes modify immunodominant blood sugar A sugar (N-acetyl-D-galactosamine) into D-galactosamine which cross reacts with anti-B antisera
Acquired B phenomenon
101
resolution of acquired B phenomenon
Use monoclonal anti-B clone; Treat RBCs using acetic anhydride
102
Resolution of Group I and II discrepancies
Use 2-5% RBCs; Incubate sample and reagent at room temperature (20-24 deg C) for 15 - 30 mins --> if negative --> incubate at refrigerator temperature (4 deg C)
103
protein or plasma abnormalities resulting to rouleaux formation
Group III discrepancies
104
Resolution of Group III discrepancies
Wash RBCs with saline several times (6-8 washings)
105
refers to agglutination of altered RBCs by a large proportion of ABO-compatible adult human sera
Polyagglutination
106
passive adsorption of bacterial products: T, Th, Tk, Tx, Acquired B, VA
Microbially associated
107
mutation of hematopoietic tissue: Tn
Non-microbially associated
108
Confirmation of polyagglutination: if RBCs show 1) agglutination with ___ and 2) No agglutination with ___
most adult sera; cord sera
109
patient's RBCs are agglutinated by ALL including OWN serum
Panagglutination
110
refers to inheritance of both AB genes form one parent carried on one chromosome and an O gene inherited from the other parent
Cis-AB
111
Resolution of group IV discrepancies due to cold antibodies
RBC: wash with saline at 37 deg C or use 0.01 M Dithiothreitol (DTT) Serum: Warm at 37 deg C then read results at 37 deg C
112
Discovered the Rh blood group
Karl Landsteiner ans Alex Wiener
113
Primary cause of hemolytic disease of the fetus and the newborn (HDFN) and significant cause of HTR
Rh Blood group system
114
Based on the theory that 3 closely linked sets of alleles produced antigens in the system, each gene was responsible for producing a product or antigen on the red cell surface
Fisher Race
115
Postulated that the gene responsible for defining Rh actually produced an agglutinogen that contained a series of blood factors, in which each factor is an antigen recognized by an antibody
Wiener
116
number is assigned to each antigen of the Rh system in order of its discovery
Rosenfield
117
Codes for the presence or absence of D
RHD gene
118
Codes for the expression of the CcEE genes
RHCE gene
119
codes for Rh-associated glycoprotein
RHAG gene
120
Most common phenotype in Whites
R1r (31%)
121
Most common phenotype in Blacks
R0r (23%)
122
Rh phenotypes in Whites
R1 > r > R2 > R0
123
Rh phenotypes in Blacks
R0 > r > R1 > R2
124
Rh phenotypes in Asians
R1 > R2 > r > R0
125
Rh phenotypes with the MOST to LEAST amount of D antigen
D-- > R2R2 > R1R1 > R1r or Ror > R1r' or Ror'
126
Immunogenicity of Common Rh antigens
D > c > E > C > e
127
Amino acid differences on Cc
103rd position C= Serine; c=proline
128
Amino acid differences on Ee
226th position E=proline; e=alanine
129
most immunogenic of the Rh antigens
D antigen
130
occurs when D is weakly expressed; more common in Blacks
Weak D (Du)
131
Inheritance of genes that code for D antigens that are expressed and appear to be complete but few in number; weak expression of the cDe haplotype
Genetic cause
132
The Rh antigen on the red cell is normal, but the steric arrangement of the C antigen in relationship to the D antigen appears to interfere with the expression of the D antigen
Position effect or C in Trans
133
D antigen expression is weakened when one or more parts of the D antigen are missing
Partial D or D mosaic
134
Phenotype occcurring in individuals whose red blood cells possess an extremely low number of D antigen sites that most reagent anti-D are unable to detect
Del
135
Weak D must be detected by ____
IAT
136
Rh phenotype with the greatest number of D antigen sites on teh cells
D-- or D--/D--
137
D-- forms ____ if exposed to normal cells
Anti-Rh17 (anti-Hro)
138
No Rh antigens
Rh null phenotype
139
GOLDEN BLOOD
Rh null phenotype
140
mutation of RHAG gene (RHD and RHCE normal)
Regulator
141
Mutation in each of the RHCE genes and deletion of the RHD gene (RHAG gene is normal)
Amorphic
142
Rh null phenotype forms ___
anti-Rh 29 (total Rh)
143
Most Rh antibodies are IgG, produced through pregnancy and incompatible transfusions
Rh antibody
144
optimal reaction temperature of Rh antibody
37 deg C
145
Reagent used in Rh slide typing
anti-D antiserum
146
temperature of Rh view box
45 - 50 deg C
147
Used for differentiating Rh(D)-negative (absence of D antigen) from weak D
Rh tube test
148
Method used in Rh tube test
Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)
149
Parts of D mosaic
Rh:13, Rh:14, Rh:15, Rh:16
150
Present in most D+ cells and all C+ cells
G
151
Codes for the production of fucosyltransferase enzyme
Lewis gene
152
RBC acquire the Lewis phenotype by ___ Lewis substances from the plasma, rather than being membrane-bound antigens
adsorbing
153
Not a true blood group antigen
Lewis antigen
154
differ from all other blood groups in that it is soluble and found in plasma and saliva
Lewis antigens
155
Lewis antigen found in secretions are ___
glycoproteins
156
Lewis antigen found in plasma are ___
Glycolipids
157
Leb antigen is the receptor for __
Helicobacter pylori
158
Determines the secretor status
Se gene
159
Converts the precursor material to Lea substance
Lewis positive gene (Le)
160
Cannot convert the precursor material to Lea substance
Lewis negative gene (le)
161
lele individual will not produce any antigen: ____
Le (a-b-)
162
A person with atleast one Le gene and sese genes will be ___
LeLe/Lele and sese Le(a+b-)
163
A person who inherits at least one Le gene and at least one Se gene will be ____
Leb positive
164
Lewis antibodies are __ in nature
IgM
165
Useful in helping to confirm the presence of a Lewis antibody or eliminate the reactions to identify other antibodies mixed in the serum
Neutralization
166
MN antigens are found on
glycophorin A
167
MN antigens differ in their amino acid residues at positions___
1 and 5
168
M has serine at position 1 and ___ at position 5
glycine
169
N has leucine at position 1 and ____ at position 5
glutamate
170
Ss antigens are located on ___
glycophorin B
171
amino acid at position ___ is critical to Ss antigen expression
29
172
S antigen has ___ amino acid
methionine
173
s antigen has ___ amino acid
threonine
174
located near the membrane and is always present when S or s is inherited
U antigen
175
naturally occurring cold reactive saline agglutinins
Anti-M
176
Anti-M reacts best at pH ___
6.5
177
Seen in renal patients, who are dialyzed on equipment sterilized with formaldehyde
Anti-N
178
Implicated in severe hemolytic transfusion reaction with hemoglobinuria and HDFN
Anti-S and anti-s
179
serve as receptors for complement, bacteria, and viruses.
MNS antigens
180
may serve as the receptor by which certain pyelonephritogenic strains of E. coli gain entry to the urinary tract
GPA^M
181
appear s to use alternative receptors, including GPA and GPB for cell invasion
Plasmodium falciparum
182
antigens comprising the P blood group system
P P1 Pk Luke PX2 NOR
183
___ has also been associated with metastasis in renal cell carcinoma
Luke
184
Individuals who lack P1 are termed
P2
185
individuals who lack P1, Pk and P antigens are termed
p or Pnull
186
receptor of human parvovirus B19
P
187
receptos for P-fimbriated uropathogenic E. coli
P system antigens
188
receptor for Shiga toxins, which cause Shigella dysentery and E. coli-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
Pk antigen
189
provides some protection against HIV infection or peripheral blood mononuclear cells
Pk
190
antigen found in fetall red cells as early as 12 weeks, but it weakens with gestational age
P1 antigen
191
antigen that deteriorates rapidly on storage
P1 antigen
192
antigen found in plasma and droppings of pigeons and turtledoves, as well as in the egg white of turtledoves
P1-lke antigen
193
has been identified in hydatid cyst fluid, extracts of Lumbricoides terestris (common earthworm) and Ascaris suum
P1 substance
194
common, naturally occurring IgM antibody in the sera of P2 individuals
Anti-P1
195
Strong anti-P1 was observed in individuals infected with ___
Echinococcus granulosus (hydatid cyst)
196
associated with fascioliasis, Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini infections
Anti-P1
197
Originally called Anti-Tja
Anti-PP1Pk
198
Associated with spontaneous abortions in early pregnancy
Anti-PP1Pk
199
antibody rarely seen in the blood bank, but is very significant in transfusion because it is hemolytic with a wide thermal range of reactivity
Alloanti-P
200
specificity is found as an IgG autoantibody in patients with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria
Autoanti-P
201
rare autoimmune disorder characterized by hemolysis and hematuria associated with exposure to cold
PCH
202
Binds RBCs at cold temperature --> hemolyzes RBCs at warm temperature (IgG autoab)
Biphasic
203
Biphasic antibody
Anti-P
204
Anti-P is demonstrated by the ___
Donath-Landsteiner Test
205
reported in the serum of P1 individuals with biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Anti-Pk
206
a public antigen
"I"
207
found in cord red blood cells
i
208
individuals who do not change their i status after birth
Rare i Adult or I negative phenotype
209
High titers of this antibody is seen during and following infections with M. pneumoniae, in elderly with autoimmune hemolytic anemia and patients with cancer of the reticuloendothelial system (RES)
Anti-I
210
L. monocytogenes organism from a patient with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia has been reported to absorb anti-I and stimulate its production in rabbits
Autoanti-I
211
potent examples associated with anti-i
Disease of the RES Alcoholic cirrhosis Myelogenous leukemia
212
2nd most immunogenic blood group
Kell blood group system
213
expression very weak on McLeod phenotype cells
Kell antigens
214
antigen easily destroyed by sulfhydryl reagents
K antigen
215
very common antigen. has a frequency of 99.9%
k antigen
216
precursor substance of Kell antigens and present on the WBC and RBC of most individuals
Kx substance
217
If Kx is lacking from red cells, the cells have an abnormal shape (___)
acanthocyte
218
Individuals who lack the Kx substance in their RBCs
McLeod phenotype
219
Clinical manifestations of McLeod phenotype
abnormal RBC morphology compensated hemolytic anemia neurological and muscular abnormalities
220
absence of Kx from WBC has been described in individuals with ___
Chronic granulomatous disease
221
implicated in severe HTR and associated with severe HDFN
anti-K
222
first human gene to be assigned to a specific chromosome
Duffy gene
223
member of the superfamily of chemokine receptors and is known as the atypical chemokine receptor 1 (ACKR1)
Duffy glycoprotein
224
the amino acid at position __ on the Duffy glycoprotein defines the Fya and Fyb polymorphism, wherein Fya has glycine whereas Fyb has aspartic acid
42
225
receptors for P. vivax and P. knowlesi
Fya and Fyb antigens
226
antibody that can bind complement
Anti-Fya
227
Duffy phenotype common in Asians
Fy (a + b - )
228
Duffy phenotype most common in Whites
Fy (a + b +)
229
Duffy phenotype most common in American Blacks
Fy (a - b -)
230
Duffy phenotype most common in Chinese
Fy (a + b - )
231
blood group system used to distinguished different races)
Duffy
232
Kidd antigens are located on
RBC urea transporter
233
common allele in Polynesians filipinos, and Chinese
Jk (a - b- )
234
common cause of hemolytic transfusions, especially of the delayed-type, although intravascular hemolysis has been noted in severe reactions coated red cells more often are removed extravascularly in the liver
Kidd antibodies
235
has a characteristic mixed-field pattern of agglutination
Anti-Lua
236
only individuals with the recessive type Lu(a-b-) can make ___
anti-Lu3
237
has served as a useful tool in anthropologic studies of Mongolian ancestry
Dia antigen
238
Dia and Dib antigens are located on the ___ ,
anion exchange molecule (AE-1) (protein band 3)
239
3 defects of AE-1
1. Hereditary spherocytosis 2. Congenital acanthocytosis 3. Southeast Asian ovalocytosis
240
___ antigens were first classified as an independent blood group system and later on as a collection
Wright
241
2 types of anti-Wra
Naturally occurring IgM Immune-stimulated IgG
242
location of Yt antigens
RBC acetylcholinesterase
243
Gene that codes for the Xg allele is locate on the ___
short arm of X chromosome
244
Xga antigen is carried by a protein with cell adhesion properties that have been demonstrated to have homology with the ___ molecule
CD99
245
Scianna antigens are located on ___
erythroid membrane-associated protein (ERMAP)
246
Scianna antigen: IgG (red cell stimulated; react in IAT; has been linked to causing mild transfusion reactions
Anti-Sc3
247
The rare null phenotype, Sc-1, -2, -3 has been observed in the __
Marshall islands and New Guinea
248
Dombrock antigens are carried on ____
Mono-ADP-Ribosyltransferase 4
249
Colton antigens are carried on an integral membrane protein, ____
Aquaporin 1 (AQP1)
250
CO antigens have been located on the transport protein known as ____, which forms the primary erythrocyte water channel and is responsible for water permeability
Channel-forming integral protein (CHIP)
251
expressed in the tissues of the proximal and descending tubules and the collecting ducts of the kidney and are believed to account for 80% of the reabsorption of water
CHIP and CO antigens
252
Landsteiner-Wiener antigens are carried by ____
intracellular adhesion molecule 4 (ICAM4)
253
Anti-LW agglutinates Rh(+) and Rh (-) except ___
Rh null
254
antibody that has no reaction with DTT-treated RBCs; anti-D reacts with DTT-treated RBCs
Anti-LW
255
___ antigens were associated with the HLA system
Chido/Rogers
256
alleles for Rg and Ch have been located on two closely linked genes known as ___
C4A and C4B on chromosome 6
257
Formerly, the anti-Ch/Rg antibodies were collectively grouped as ____, along with other antibodies sharing common serologic properties
High-titer, low avidity (HTLA)
258
The clinically insignificant anti-Ch and anti-Rg react weakly, often to moderate or high-titer endpoints in the antiglobulin test, and may be tentatively identified by ___
plasma inhibition methods
259
GE antigens are inherited on chromosome 2 and are expressed on ___
Glycophorins C (GPC) and / or GPD (band 4.1)
260
Gerbich phenotype (Ge:-2, -3, 4) are found in
Papua New Guinea Europeans Africans Native Americans Japanese Polynesians
261
Yus phenotype (Ge:-2, 3, 4) are found in __-
Mexicans, Israelis
262
Leach phenotype (Ge:-2, -3, -4) are found in:
Gerbich null within Papua New Guinea
263
phenotype present with a change in electrolyte morphology in the form of elliptocytosis
Leach phenotype
264
Cromer antigens are carried by __
Decay accelerating factor (DAF)
265
__ antigens are distributed in body fluids and on RBCs, WBCs, platelets, and placental tissue
Cromer
266
Alleles for the KN blood group have been located on chromosome 1, with the antigens residing on ___
complement receptor one (CR1)
267
antigen present on RBCs of 4% Indians, 11% of Iranians, 12% of Arabs
Ina
268
antigen present in 96% of Indians and Whites
Inb
269
__ antigens are carried on the hematopoietic isoform of the __ marker, which is known for its immune adhesion properties
CD44
270
The OK antigens are carried on ____, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily that mainly functions as receptors and adhesion molecules
CD 147 (basigin)
271
The only antigen in Raph blood group system
MER2
272
MER2 is located on ____, a tetraspanin, which appears to be essential for the assembly of basement membrane in the kidney and skin
CD151
273
JMH protein is glycophosphatidylinositol (GPI)-linked glycoprotein ___
CD108
274
GIL antigen is found on the ___, a member of the major intrinsic protein family of water channels
glycerol transporter aquaporin 3 (AQP3)
275
2 antigens under RHAG
Duclos and Ola
276
Bga corresponds with
HLA-B7
277
Bgb corresponds with
HLA-B17
278
Bgc corresponds with
HLA-A28
279
Blood group HLA marker
Benneth Goodspeed
280
When serum is tested, ___ is characteristically causes __-
in vitro hemolysis
281
antibody found only in Blacks
Anti-Ata
282
antibody found more commonly in Japanese
Anti-Jra
283
___ antigen is a high prevalence carbohydrate antigen; its soluble form is Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein in urine
Sda antigen
284
___ has characteristic shiny and mf refractile agglutinates under the microscope and is inhibited with urine
Anti-Sda
285
Antigens occurring in 99.9% of population
High-Incidence Antigen Unrelated to Principal Blood Group Systems
286
High incidence antigens predominantly found in Blacks
At (a-), Cr(a-), Jo (a-)
287
antigens with an incidence of less than 1%
Low-incidence antigens
288
Blood group collection includes ____
Cost, Ii, Er, Globoside, Unnames, MN CHO
289
901 series
Emm, AnWj, Sda, PEL, ABTI, MAM
290
receptor for Haemophilus influenzae
AnWj
291
antibodies to high-frequency antigens that are generally clinically benign
High-TIter, Low-Avidity (HTLA) antibodies
292
method for detection of HTLA
Titration inhibition
293
Clinically significant antibodies
ABO Rh Kell Kidd Duffy SsU Lub
294
Antibodies that are usually clinically insignificant
I Lewis M N P1 Lua
295
Naturally occurring antibodies
ABO Lewis P1 MN Lua
296
Warm antibodies
Rh Kell Duffy Kidd
297
Cold antibodies
M N P1
298
antibodies that usually only react in AHG
Kell Duffy Kidd
299
antibody that can react in any phase of testing
Lewis
300
Detection of these antibodies are enhanced by enzyme treatment of test cells
Rh Lewis Kidd P1 I ABO
301
Antibodies not detected with enzyme treatment of test cells
M N Duffy Xg
302
Antibodies enhanced by acidification
M
303
Antibodies that show dosage
Rh (other than D) MNSs Duffy Kidd Lutheran
304
antibodies that bind complement
Kidd I Lewis anti-Fya
305
antibodies that cause in vitro hemolysis
ABO Lewis Kidd Vel Some P1
306
antibodies that are labile in vivo and in vitro
Kidd
307
antibodies that are common cause of anamnestic response (Delayed HTR)
Kidd
308
antibody associated with PCH
Anti-P
309
antibody associated with CAD and PAP
Anti-I
310
antibody associated with Infectious mononucleosis
Anti-i
311
HLA antibodies are produced through
Multiple pregnancies Multiple transfusions
312
2 granulocyte antigens
Human Neutrophil Antigen (HNA) and Human Granulocyte Antigens (HGA-3a to 3e)
313
3 clinical significance of granulocyte antigens
Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia Autoimmune neutropenia Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
314
Clinical significance of platelet antigens
Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia Post transfusion purpura
315
Human Platelet Antigen
HPA-1 and HPA-4 = GpIIIa HPA-2 = GpIb HPA-3 = GpII HPA-5 = GpIa
316