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Reviewers > Blood Banking part 2 > Flashcards

Blood Banking part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Age of a qualified potential donor

A

18 - 65 yo

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2
Q

Body weight of a qualified donor

A

> /= 110 lbs or >/= 50 grams

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3
Q

maximum amount of blood to be drawn

A

10.5 mL/kg

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4
Q

formula for volume of blood to collect (in mL)

A

(Donor’s weight / ideal weight) x 450 mL

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5
Q

Formula for the volume of anticoagulant needed (in ml)

A

(answer in volume of blood to collect / 100) x 14

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6
Q

formula for the volume of anticoagulant to be removed in ml

A

63 ml - answer in volume of anticoagulant needed

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7
Q

temperature of a qualified blood donor

A

not exceed 37.5 deg C and 99.5 deg F

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8
Q

pulse of a qualified blood donor

A

50 - 100 beats/ min

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9
Q

Blood pressure of a qualified blood donor (Henry)

A

Systolic: not exceed 180 mmHg
Diastolic: not exceed 100 mmHg

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10
Q

Blood pressure of a qualified blood donor (DOH)

A

Systolic: 90-160 mmHg
Diastolic: 60 - 100 mmHg

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11
Q

age criteria of whole blood donors (allogeneic)

A

> /= 16 or as allowed by state law

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12
Q

age criteria of whole blood donors (autologous)

A

As determined by medical director

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13
Q

hemoglobin criteria of whole blood donors (allogeneic)

A

> /= 12.5 g/dl

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14
Q

hemoglobin criteria of whole blood donors (autologous)

A

> /= 11 g/dl

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15
Q

hematocrit criteria of whole blood donors (allogeneic)

A

> /= 38%

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16
Q

hematocrit criteria of whole blood donors (autologous)

A

> /= 33%

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17
Q

temperature criteria of whole blood donors (allogeneic)

A

37.5 deg C (99.5 deg F)

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18
Q

temperature criteria of whole blood donors (autologous)

A

as determined by medical director.
Bacteremia is cause of deferral

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19
Q

venipuncture site criteria of whole blood donors (allogeneic)

A

No infectious skin disease or scars indicative of drug use

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20
Q

venipuncture site criteria of whole blood donors (autologous)

A

As determined by medical director

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21
Q

For autologous transfusion, blood may be drawn from patient every __ days but not within ___ hours of surgery

A

3 days; 72 hours

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22
Q

Specific gravity of copper sulfate

A

1.053

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23
Q

acceptable drop of blood will sink in copper sulfate solution within ___

A

15 seconds

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24
Q

deferral for donors who have severe clinical conditions and have infection

A

permanent

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25
Q

GH that entails permanent deferral

A

Human-derived GH

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26
Q

GH that entails no deferral

A

Recombinant GH

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27
Q

deferral of active diseases under treatment

A

temporary

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28
Q

deferral of curable disease of the heart, lung, kidney, liver and GIT

A

temporary

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29
Q

deferral of px under treatment with antibiotics

A

temporary

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30
Q

deferral for Acetretin (Soriatane) for psoriasis

A

3 days

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31
Q

deferral for incarceration in a jail more than 72 hours

A

1 year

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32
Q

deferral of people who travel to areas endemic for malaria

A

1 year

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33
Q

deferral of people with history of syphilis or gonorrhea

A

1 year

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34
Q

deferral of recent whole blood donation

A

12 weeks or 3 months

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35
Q

deferral: following delivery of a baby

A

6 weeks

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36
Q

deferral of German measles (rubella) vaccination

A

1 month

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37
Q

deferral of contact with rubella but no previous infection

A

4 weeks

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38
Q

deferral of contact with rubella with previous infection

A

accept anytime

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39
Q

deferral after cessation of the drug Isotretinoin for severe acne treatment

A

1 month

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40
Q

deferral after cessation of the drug Finasteride

A

1 month

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41
Q

deferral of rubeola infection from recovery

A

6 weeks

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42
Q

whole blood donation deferral after hemapheresis

A

48 hours

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43
Q

frequency of donation for plateletpheresis

A

48 hours between donations, up to 24 times/year

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44
Q

frequency of donation for leukopheresis

A

not more than 2x a week, 24 times/year

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45
Q

frequency of donation for plasmapheresis

A

every 4 weeks

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46
Q

frequency of donation for red cell apheresis

A

every 16 weeks

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47
Q

deferment of acute febrile illness

A

2-3 weeks after episode or until fully recovered

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48
Q

deferment of fever with unknown origin

A

4 months

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49
Q

deferment of common cold

A

1 week after recovery

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50
Q

deferment of dengue fever

A

1 month after recovery if wo blood transfusion

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51
Q

deferment of influenza

A

1 month after complete recovery

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52
Q

deferment of major operation including dental surgery and blood transfuson

A

12 months after operation or transfusion

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53
Q

deferment for malaria infection

A

3 years after treatment

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54
Q

deferment of past exposure to a close household with hepatitis

A

1 year after exposure

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55
Q

deferment of past exposure to unhygienic skin piercing, tattooing, needle puncture

A

1 year from procedure

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56
Q

deferment of pregnant women

A

9 months after childbirth or 3 months after weaning

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57
Q

deferment of recent alcohol intake

A

12 - 24 hours after intake

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58
Q

deferment of skin lesion at veni site

A

after healing

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59
Q

deferment of typhoid or salmonella

A

infection: 3 months from recovery
household contact: 4 weeks from last exposure

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60
Q

deferment of URTI

A

1 week from recovery

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61
Q

deferment of live attenuated vaccines

A

2 weeks after vaccination

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62
Q

deferment of rubella vaccine

A

1 month after vac

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63
Q

deferment of rabies vac

A

1 yr

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64
Q

deferment of other vaccines

A

1 month

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65
Q

deferment of killed vaccines and toxoids

A

may donate anytime (wo fever)

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66
Q

deferment of HPV vac

A

4 wks

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67
Q

deferment of MMR vac

A

8 wks

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68
Q

deferment of Japanese encephalitis vac

A

3 weeks

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69
Q

deferment of COVID-19 vac

A

accept if asymop

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70
Q

Deferment of anti acne drugs

A

2 months

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71
Q

Deferment of anti fungal drugs

A

5 days

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72
Q

Deferment of anti-TB drugs

A

Until cured

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73
Q

Deferment of antibiotics other than anti-TB drugs

A

1 month

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74
Q

Deferment of aspirin

A

Single dose: 3 days
Chronic intake: 3 weeks

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75
Q

Deferment of Clopidogrel, ticlopidine

A

14 days for platelet donors

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76
Q

Deferment for dutasteride

A

6 months

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77
Q

Deferment for glutathione

A

For liver disorder permanent
For cosmetic use 1 year

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78
Q

Deferment of insulin

A

Permanent

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79
Q

Deferment for MDA for filariasis and schistosomiasis

A

2 weeks

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80
Q

Deferment of oral corticosteroids

A

While on treatment

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81
Q

Deferment of penicillin

A

3 weeks

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82
Q

Deferment of Piroxicam

A

Chronic: 1 weeks
2 days (AABB)

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83
Q

Deferment of warfarin

A

1 week

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84
Q

Volume of blood routinely collected

A

450 ml +/- 10% or 500 ml +/- 10%, depending on collection bag

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85
Q

Maximum volume of collection of whole blood

A

10.5 ml of blood per kg of donor’s weight

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86
Q

Volumes of anticoagulant

A

63 ml for 450 ml collection
70 ml for 500 ml collection

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87
Q

Time of collection

A

Usually <10 minutes

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88
Q

If collected > 15-20 mins, unit may not be suitable for preparation of

A

Platelets
FFP
Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

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89
Q

Storage temp of unit

A

20 -24 deg C for plts
1-6 deg C for other comp

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90
Q

Chelates calcium to prevent coagulation

A

Citrate (sodium citrate)

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91
Q

Buffer to prevent decreased pH

A

Phosphate buffer (sodium biphosphate)

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92
Q

Sugar to support RBC life

A

Dextrose

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93
Q

Used in ATP synthesis

A

Adenine

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94
Q

Storage time or ACD, CPD, CP2D

A

21 days

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95
Q

Storage time of CDPA-1, CPDA-2

A

35 days

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96
Q

AS are added to rBC after the plasma has been removed from whole blood collected using ___

A

CPD or CP2D

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97
Q

Final hematocrit of RBC after adding AS

A

55-65%

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98
Q

storage time of red blood cells with additive solutions

A

42 days

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99
Q

use in some blood centers to regenerate ATP and 2,3 DPG

A

Rejuvenation Solutions

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100
Q

The only FDA-approved rejuvenation solutions in US

A

Rejuvesol

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101
Q

wash rejuvenated RBCs to remove ___

A

inosine

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102
Q

shelf life of (frozen) rejuvenated RBCs if using CPD and CPDA-1

A

3- 10 years

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103
Q

shelf life of (frozen) rejuvenated RBCs using AS-1

A

1-3 years

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104
Q

collected units stored at 1-6 deg C should be submitted in the BB/BC within ___

A

24 hours

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105
Q

collected units stored at 20 - 24 deg C should be submitted in the BB/BC within ___

A

6-8 hours

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106
Q

whole blood should be submitted within ___ hours after collection can be used for platelet preparation

A

6-8 hours

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107
Q

tests done on the donor blood unit

A

ABO grouping
Rh typing (and Du testing)
Antibody screen (required only on those with previous pregnancy and or transfusion)
Screening tests for TTIs

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108
Q

Blood components prepared using heavy spin (5,000 x g for 5 minutes)

A

Packed RBC, Platelet concentrate

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109
Q

Blood components prepared using heavy spin (5,000 x g for 7 minutes)

A

Cryoprecipitate, Cell-free plasma

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110
Q

Blood components prepared using light spin (2,000 x g for 3 minutes)

A

Platelet-rich plasma (PRP)

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111
Q

pore size of standard filter

A

170 - 200 um

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112
Q

pore size of microaggregate filter

A

20 - 40 um

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113
Q

used to remove 99.9% if WBC from RBC and platelet products

A

leukoreduction filters

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114
Q

Leukoreduced RBC

A

< 5 x 10^6 WBC

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115
Q

Leukoreduced Random Donor Platelet (RDP)

A

< 8.3 x 10^5 WBC

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116
Q

Leukoreduced Single Donor Platelet (SDP)

A

< 5 x 10^6 WBC

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117
Q

washed RBCs are used within

A

6 hours

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118
Q

washed platelets are used within

A

4 hours

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119
Q

Plateletpheresis, platelet count of the donor must NOT be less than

A

150,000/uL

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120
Q

Plasmapheresis total protein must not be less than

A

6.0 g/dL

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121
Q

used in irradiation

A

Cesium-137 or Cobalt-60

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122
Q

Irradiate up to ____ days of collection and stored for another __ days

A

14 days
14 days

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123
Q

Minimum dose of irradiation at the center of the unit

A

25 Gy

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124
Q

Minimum dose of irradiation in other parts of the unit

A

15 Gy

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125
Q

Process of recombining 2 DNA fragments from different species and inserting such recombinant molecule into a host organism in order to produce new genetic combinations that are of value in medicine, science, and industry

A

Recombinant DNA technologt

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126
Q

Components of an open system stored at 1-6 deg C must be used within ___ after system opened

A

24 hours

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127
Q

Components of an open system stored at 20 - 24 deg C must be used within ___ after system opened

A

4 hours

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128
Q

Use of blood components to treat a disease in a patient

A

Hemotherapy

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129
Q

transfusion of specific components rather than whole blood to treat a patient

A

Component therapy

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130
Q

Main indication for use of RBC
patient hemoglobin is: ___ and or hematocrit is: ___

A

< 6 g/dL
<18 g/dL

131
Q

1 unit of Whole blood or 1 unit of Packed RBC can increase hemoglobin by __ and hematocrit by ___

A

1-1.5 g/dl
3-5%

132
Q
  • Provide blood volume expansion and RBC mass in acute blood loss;
  • for actively bleeding px who have lost at least 25% of their blood volume
  • px requiring exchange transfusions
A

Whole blood

133
Q

storage of whole blood

A

1-6 deg C (2-6 deg C)

134
Q

transport of whole blood

A

1-10 deg C (2-10 deg C)

135
Q

Shelf life od WB
ACD and CPD
CPDA-1

A

ACD and CPD = 21 days
CPDA-1 = 35 days

136
Q
  • Indication of RBC mass of symptomatic, normovolemic patients
  • For trauma patients, dialysis patients, premature infants, patients with sickle cell anemia, and oncology patients undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy
A

Packed RBCs

137
Q

storage of PRBC

A

1-6 deg C (2-6 deg C)

138
Q

Transport of PRBC

A

1-10 deg C (2-10 deg C)

139
Q

shelf life of PRBC
Open system
Close system

A

Open system: 24 hours
Close system: ACD and CPD = 21 days; CPDA-1 = 35 days

140
Q

Leukoreduced RBCs are obtained from filtration within __ from time of collection

A

48 hours

141
Q

Leukoreduced RBCs must retain ___ % of original RBCs

A

85%

142
Q

1 unit of leukoreduced RBC contains ___ WBCs

A

<5 x 10^6 WBCs

143
Q

Increase RBC mass in patients with severed and or current febrile transfusion reactions due to leukocyte antibodies

A

Leukoreduced RBCs

144
Q

Indication: Increase RBC mass in patients at risk for HLA alloimmunization or susceptible to CMV

A

Leukoreduced RBCs

145
Q

Storage of Leukoreduced RBCs

A

1 -6 deg C (2-6 deg C)
1- 10 deg C during transport

146
Q

Indication: increase RBC mass of symptomatic anemic patients with transfusion history of allergic, urticartial reaction, anaphylactic reaction, febrile nonhemolytic reaction

A

Washed RBCs

147
Q

storage of Washed RBCs

A

1-6 deg C

148
Q

Shelf life of washed RBCs

A

24 hours

149
Q

used in immunodeficiency, malignancy, bone marrow transplant, transfusion with blood from blood relative, intrauterine and neonatal transfusion

A

Irradiated RBCs

150
Q

use for the prevention of graft-vs-host disease

A

irradiated RBCs

151
Q

Frozen RBCs are frozen in glycerol within ___ of collection

A

6 days

152
Q

For the storage of rare blood and autologous units

A

Frozen RBCs

153
Q

Storage and shelf life of frozen RBCs

A

10 years
after deglycerization: 24 hours

154
Q

osmolality to monitor glycerol removal
safe for IgA deficient patient
All plasma, anticoagulant, WBCs and platelets removed

A

Frozen RBCs

155
Q

for transfusion-dependent individuals (thalassemia, chronic anemia, sickle cell anemia

A

Neocyte-enriched blood

156
Q

Neocyte-enriched blood for hemochromatosis
1 RBC unit: ___ iron

A

200 - 250 mg

157
Q

main indications for use of platelets
Platelet count is ___
Pre-operation platelet count is ___

A

<20,000/ul
<50,000/uL

158
Q

Indication
For bleeding due to thrombocytopenia or thrombocytopathy;
for patients with chemotherapy, post-bone marrow transplant patients, post-operative bleeding

A

Platelet Concentrate or Random Donor Platelet

159
Q

NOT indicated with idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITP)

A

Platelet Concentrate or Random Donor Platelet

160
Q

storage of platelet concentrate and random donor platelet

A

20-24 deg C

161
Q

shelf life of PC and RDP

A

5 days from collection with constant agitation
after pooling:: 4 hours

162
Q

1 Unit of PC or RDP contains

A

> or = 5.5 x 10^10 platelets

163
Q

A pool of ___ units will contain roughly 3 x 10 ^11 platelets and should give a plate count increase similar to one SDP unit

A

4 - 6 units

164
Q

1 unit of PC or SDP will increase platelets by ___ in 75 kg recipient

A

5,000 - 10,000/uL

165
Q

Good increment of PC or RDP

A

> 10,000/uL

166
Q

Platelet Refractoriness

A

< 5,000/uL

167
Q

Percent recovery of platelets after 1 hour post transfusion and at 24 hours

A

60% at 1 hr
40% at 24 hrs

168
Q

Preparation of SDP

A

Plateletpheresis

169
Q

indication for thrombocytopenic patients alloimmunized to HLA or platelet antigen (donor should be HLA matched)

A

Plateletpheresis Unit or SDP

170
Q

1 unit of SDP contains __

A

> or = 3.0 x 10^11 platelets

171
Q

1 Unit of SDP should increase platelets by ___

A

30, 000 - 60,000/ul

172
Q

WBCs removed by filtration or during apheresis processing
Filters can reduce a number of WBCs in a bag while being transfused

A

Leukocyte-reduced platelets

173
Q

same with SDP or platelet pheresis unit

A

Leukocyte-reduced platelets

174
Q

__ ABO identical platelet pooled using closed system

A

4-6

175
Q

Indication for severe thrombocytopenia or abnormal platelet function

A

Pre-storage pooled platelet

176
Q

in granulocyte apheresis, it is used as a sedimenting agent

A

Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

177
Q

preparation of donor before granulopheresis
administer __ to donor 12-24 hours before donation

A

corticosteroid or GCSF

178
Q

indication
patients with granulocyte dysfunction or myeloid hypoplasia who are unresponsive to antibiotics;
severe neutropenia with infection non-responsive to antibiotic therapy

A

Apheresis Granulocytes or granulocyte pheresis unit

179
Q

main indication for use of plasma derivatives
PT is

A

> 16 seconds (INR = 1.5)

180
Q

main indication for use of plasma derivatives
apPT is

A

> 60 seconds

181
Q

main indication for use of plasma derivatives
fibrinogen is

A

< 100 mg/dl

182
Q

FFP is prepared from the separation of WB to obtain plasma and frozen within __ hours of collection

A

8 hours

183
Q

FFP is stored at 1-6 deg C for up to ___ hours

A

6 hours

184
Q

FFP is stored at 4 dec F for up to __ hours if factor VIII is not needed

A

24 hours

185
Q

indication
bleeding patients who require factors II, V, VII, IX, X
* replaced isolated factor deficiencies
*reverse effects of warfarin
*treat TTP and HUS
*patient with liver disease to prevent or correct bleeding
* antithrombin III deficiencies; DIC when fibrinogen is <100 mg/dL

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma

186
Q

Shelf life of FFP if Frozen (-18 deg C)

A

1 yr

187
Q

Shelf life of FFP after thawing: 1-6 deg C)

A

24 hours

188
Q

Shelf life of FFP in -65 deg C

A

7 yrs

189
Q

amount of fibrinogen in cryoprecipitate

A

150 - 250 mg

190
Q

amount of AHF in cryoprecipitate

A

80 - 120 IU

191
Q

amount of vwF in cryoprecipitate

A

40 -70%

192
Q

amount of factor XIII in cryoprecipitate

A

20 - 30%

193
Q

thawed cryoprecipitate is transfused within

A

6 hours

194
Q

pooled cryoprecipitate is transfused within

A

4 hours

195
Q

indication is for the treatment of fibrinogen deficiency, hemophilia A, VwD, factor XIII deficiency, and as a fibrin sealant

A

Cryoprecipitate

196
Q

patients with FVIII deficiency are routinely treated with

A

FVIII concentrates

197
Q

Cryoprecipitate is NOT indicated in

A

TTP

198
Q

shelf life of single units cryoprecipitate

A

6 hours

199
Q

shelf life of pooled units close system

A

6 hours

200
Q

used for hemophilia A and vwD only if factor VIII concentrate or recombinant factor preparations not available

A

Cryoprecipitate

201
Q

shelf life of FFP if stored at -65 deg C or below

A

7 years

202
Q

shelf life of FFP and Cryoprecipitate if stored at -40 to -65 deg C

A

24 months

203
Q

shelf life of FFP and cryoprecipitate if stored at -30 to -39 deg C

A

12 months

204
Q

shelf life of FFP and cryoprecipitate if stored at -25 to -29 deg C

A

6 months

205
Q

shelf life of FFP and cryoprecipitate if stored at -20 to -25 deg C

A

3 months

206
Q

shelf life of FFP and cryoprecipitate if stored at -18 deg C

A

1 yr

207
Q

plasma may be separated from whole blood at any time during the unit’s shelf life up to ___ days after the expiration

A

5 days

208
Q

shelf life of plasma derivatives

A

5 years when stored between 1 - 6 deg C

209
Q

products that are transfused in patients sufferring from hypovolemia or indicated among burn and shock patients

A

plasma volume expander

210
Q

COmponents of Normal Serum Albumin (NSA)

A

96% albumin + 4% globulin

211
Q

Components of Plasma Protein Fraction (PPF)

A

83% albumin + 17% globulin

212
Q

a gluelike substance, such as protein or starch,whose particles, when dispersed in a solvent to the possible degree, remain uniformly distributed and fail to form a true solution

A

Colloid

213
Q

increased in RBC storage lesion

A

Lactic acid
Plasma K
Plasma hemoglobin
Microaggregates

214
Q

decreased in RBC storage lesion

A

ATP
2,3 DPG
pH
Glucose
Viable cells
Labile coagulation factors
Plasma Na

215
Q

transport cold chain
room temp (20-24degC0

A

20 - 24 deg C

216
Q

transport cold chain if stored at 2-6 deg C

A

2 - 10 deg C

217
Q

transport cold chain if stored frozen

A

with dry ice

218
Q

color label of blood Group O

A

Blue

219
Q

color label of blood Group A

A

Yellow

220
Q

color label of Blood Group B

A

Pink

221
Q

color label of blood group AB

A

White

222
Q

color: hold for further processing

A

tan

223
Q

color: for emergency use only

A

orange

224
Q

color: for autologous use only

A

green

225
Q

color: not for transfusion

A

Gray

226
Q

color: irradiated

A

Purple

227
Q

color: biohazard

A

Red

228
Q

color: from a therapeutic phlebotomy

A

Chartreuse

229
Q

the administration of blood or its component intravenously

A

Transfusion

230
Q

blood taken from a patient to be used for the same patient

A

Autologous transfusion

231
Q

transfer of blood directly from one person to another

A

Direct transfusion

232
Q

transfusion of blood from a donor to a suitable container and then to a patient

A

indirect transfusion

233
Q

transfusion and withdrawal of small amounts of blood, repeated until blood volume is almost entirely exchanged; used in infants born with hemolytic disease

A

exchange transfusion

234
Q

transfusion of blood into a fetus in utero

A

intrauterine transfusion

235
Q

standard filter in infusion of blood components

A

170 um

236
Q

peripheral vein cannula for transfusion for adults

A

gauge 18-20

237
Q

peripheral vein cannula for transfusion for pediatric patients

A

gauge 22-24

238
Q

maximum transfusion time allowed for one unit to be transfused

A

2-4 hours

239
Q

15 drops = ___ ml

A

1 ml

240
Q

at a rate of 60 drops per minute, __ ml of blood can be transfused in 1 hr

A

240 ml

241
Q

blood warmer should maintain a temperature of about ____

A

37 deg C

242
Q

apheresis blood collection: withdrawal of whole blood, removing selected fraction and reinfusion of the remaining components into the donor

A

Centrifugation

243
Q

apheresis blood collection: removal of only plasma through a membrane for normal plasma collection or for therapeutic purposes

A

Filtration

244
Q

apheresis blood collection: removal of only a selected constituent of plasma with reinfusion of plasma after constituent removed

A

Adsorption

245
Q

done for plateletpheresis for polycythemia vera

A

therapeutic bleeding

246
Q

done for leukapheresis for leukemia

A

therapeutic bleeding

247
Q

done for plasmapheresis for SLE

A

therapeutic bleeding

248
Q

replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours or about 10 units of blood in an adult

A

Massive blood transfusion

249
Q

hemolysis with symptoms due to red cell incompatibility

A

Acute HTR

250
Q

antibody to leukocyte antigens

A

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

251
Q

antibody to IgA

A

Anaphylaxis

252
Q

antibody to plasma proteins

A

Allergy or urticaria

253
Q

antibody to leukocytes or complement activation

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) or non-cardiac pulmonary edema

254
Q

anamestic antibody to red cell antigens

A

Delayed HTR

255
Q

engraftment of transfused functional lymphocytes

A

TA-GvHD

256
Q

development of antiplatelet antibody

A

Post-transfusion purpura

257
Q

tests for HBV

A

Chemiluminescent assay (ChLIA) or enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Confirmatory: Neutralization

258
Q

test for HCV

A

ChLIA or EIA
Confirmatory: RIBA or recombinant immunoblot

259
Q

tests for HIV

A

ChLIA or EIA
Confirmatory for HIV-1: IFA or WB
Confirmatory for HIV-2: IEA

260
Q

tests for HTLV

A

ChLIA or EIA
Confirmatory: IFA or Line immunoblot

261
Q

tests for syphilis

A

Microhemagglutination or IEA
Solid phase red cell adherence or particle agglutination
Confirmatory: T. pallidium antigen specific immunofluorescence or agglutination assays

262
Q

tests for West Nile Virus

A

Transcription-mediated amplification or PCR

263
Q

Tests for T. cruzi

A

ChLIA or EIA
Confirmatory: RIPA or Radioimmunoprecipitation assay

264
Q

routine blood bank techniques and pre-transfusion testing procedures

A

ABO typing
Rh Typing
Antibody screen
Antibody identification
Crossmatch

265
Q

discovered by coomb’s, Mourant, and Race

A

AHG testing

266
Q

used to detect RBCs sensitized with IgG alloantibodies, IgG autoantibodies, and complement components

A

AHG testing

267
Q

detects in vivo sensitization of RBC with IgG and or complement components

A

DAT

268
Q

where maternal antibodies coat fetal or neonatal RBC in the fetal or neonatal circulation

A

HDFN

269
Q

where recipient antibodies coat donor RBCs

A

HTR

270
Q

where autoantibodies and complement components coat individual’s RBCs

A

AIHA and DIIHA

271
Q

Detects in vitro sensitization of RBC

A

IAT

272
Q

Tubes with no agglutination in DAT and IAT –> add ___

A

Coomb’s Control Cells

273
Q

Involves the reaction between serum or plasma with 2-3 reagent phenotyped for multiple antigens

A

Antibody screen

274
Q

Incidence of unexpected antibodies

A

0.2-2%

275
Q

Current mandated test for pretransfusion samples:

A

Antibody screen

276
Q

Determines compatibility of donor RBCs with recipient blood

A

Crossmatch

277
Q

Method that demonstrate ABO incompatibility and clinically significant antibodies

A

Crossmatch

278
Q

Units to be crossmatched

A

RBC
Granulocytes

279
Q

Units that do not need crossmatching

A

Plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Platelets

280
Q

Mixing patient’s serum with donor’s red cells

A

Major crossmatch

281
Q

Mixing donor’s serum with patient’s red cells

A

Minor crossmatch

282
Q

Potentiating media
0.2% NaCL in glycine
Increases antibody uptake

A

LISS

283
Q

Potentiating media
Allows sensitized cells to come closer together to form agglutination lattices

A

Bovine albumin (22% or 30%)

284
Q

Potentiating media
Concentrates antibodies and creates low-ionic solution to allow greater antibody uptake

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG) additive

285
Q

Potentiating media
Positively charged polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in the red cell

A

Polybrene

286
Q

Antibodies enhanced by enzymes

A

Rh
Lewis
Kidd
P1
I
ABO

287
Q

Antibodies destroyed by enzymes

A

Xga
M
N
S
Duffy

288
Q

Technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs

A

Elution

289
Q

Releases antibody by destroying the RBCs

A

Digitonin

290
Q

Used to remove IgM antibodies (usually A or B) present on newborn RBCs

A

Lui freeze-thaw

291
Q

Process of removing antibody from serum by combining a serum sample with appropriate RBCs

A

Adsorption

292
Q

Autoadsorption can be performed if patient was not transfused within the past ____

A

3 months

293
Q

Autoanti-I can be adsorbed by

A

Rabbit RBC

294
Q

Uses soluble antigen to inhibit the reactivity of certain antibodies in hemagglutination assays

A

Neutralization

295
Q

Neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon droppings, turtle dove’s egg whites

A

Anti-P1

296
Q

Neutralized by saliva, serum or plasma

A

Anti-Lewis

297
Q

Neutralized by serum or plasma

A

Anti-Chido or anti-Rogers

298
Q

Neutralized by urine

A

Anti-Sda

299
Q

Neutralized by breast milk

A

Anti-I

300
Q

Chemical used for preparing cells for adsorption

A

ZZAP/DTT

301
Q

Chemic tht destroys kell antigens

A

2-aminoethyliaothiouronium bromide

302
Q

Bead based assay that uses fluorescence and flow cytometry to test for platelet or HLA antibodies

A

Luminex-based assay

303
Q

Fetomaternal hemorrhage may result in ___ ml of fetal blood passing into maternal circulation

A

30 ml

304
Q

Common Antibodies identified in prenatal specimens causing HDFN

A

Rh
Kell
ABO

305
Q

Rare antibodies identified in prenatal specimens causing HDFN

A

Duffy
MNSs

306
Q

Sample to confirm HDFN

A

Cord blood

307
Q

Carried out by obtaining fetal cells through amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling as early as 10 to 12 weeks of gestation

A

Fetal DNA testing

308
Q

Gauge the severity of HDFN

A

Antibody titers

309
Q

Based on the reduced viscosity at low hematocrit resulting in faster velocity

A

Middle Cerebral Artery -Peak Systolic Velocity (MCA-PSV) ultrasonography

310
Q

Transfusion of prbc to the fetus to correct anemia

A

Intrauterine transfusion

311
Q

Removal of infant RBcs coated with maternal antibody and replacement with antigen-negative RBCs

A

Exchange transfusion

312
Q

Phototherapy wavelengths used

A

460 to 490 nm

313
Q

Use of fluorescent blue light in ____ for jaundice

A

420 to 475 nm

314
Q

To interrupt transport of maternal antibodies to the fetus

A

Early delivery

315
Q

Autoantibody specificity of WAIHA

A

Anti-Rh precursor
Anti- common Rh
Anti-Lw
Anti-U

316
Q

Autoantibody specificity of CAS

A

Anti-I
Anti-i
Anti-Pr

317
Q

Cold reactive IgM autoagglutinin binds to RBCs in peripheral circulation - IgM binds complement - IgM dissociates leaving RBCs coated only with complement

A

Cold Agglutinin Syndrome

318
Q

IgG autoantibody reacts with RBCs in colder parts of the body, causes complement to be bound irreversibly ro RBCS, and then elutes at warmer temperature

A

PCH

319
Q

Autoantibody specificity of PCH

A

Anti-P

320
Q

Prototype drugs in immune complex

A

Quinidine and Phenacetin

321
Q

Small doses of these drugs may cause acute intravascular hemolysis with hemoglobinemia or hemoglobinuria; renal failure common

A

Quinidine and Phenacetin

322
Q

Large doses of this drug causes immune hemolysis, usually extravascular

A

Penicillin

323
Q

Drug that mimics Warm AIHA

A

Methyldopa (Aldomet)

Reviewers (14 decks)

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