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MLS > Immunology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

GAS Extracellular Virulence Factors

A
  • SLO and SLS
  • Hyaluronidase
  • DNAses A, B, C, D
  • Streptokinase
  • Erythrogenic Toxins
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2
Q

Streptokinase

A

Helps to dissolve clots

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3
Q

Hyaluronidase

A

Breaks down extracellular matrix (ECM)

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4
Q

Erythrogenic toxins

A

Associated with scarlet fever strains
- 2nd day rash on trunk and face
- “Strawberry” tongue
- Sloughing of skin in second week

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5
Q

Impetigo

A
  • Common symptom of GAS (children)
  • Extremely contagious
  • Honey-colored crusts
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6
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A
  • Rare complication of GAS
  • Secondary to wound infection, organism rapidly progresses through muscle
    Treatment:
    1. Debridement
    2. Intramuscular Antibiotics
    3. Amputation
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7
Q

GAS Sequelae Causes

A

Rheumatic Fever - ASO
Acute Glomerulonephritis - Anti-DNAse B

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8
Q

ASO Reference Method

A
  • Neutralization Reaction
  • Todd Units (1 / titer of last tube w/o hemolysis)
    Significant titers: >200 TU (adult), >300 TU (child), up 50 TU in 2 weeks
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9
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis

A
  • EBV (herpes virus)
  • Infects B lymphocytes
  • Lymphoproliferative disorder (60-90% of WBC are lymphs, 5-30% are reactive)
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10
Q

Forssman (Heterophile Antibody)

A

Guinea Pig Kidney - Reacts
Bovine RBCs - NR
Sheep RBCs - Reacts

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11
Q

Mono (Heterophile Antibody)

A

Guinea Pig Kidney - NR
Bovine RBCs - Reacts
Sheep RBCs - Reacts

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12
Q

Serum Sickness (Heterophile Antibody)

A

Guinea Pig Kidney - Reacts
Bovine RBCs - Reacts
Sheep RBCs - Reacts

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13
Q

Anti-VCA (IgM)

A

“Viral Capsid Antigen”, first antibody to appear

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14
Q

Anti-VCA (IgG)

A

Appears early and a higher levels, may be present life long

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15
Q

Anti-EA-D

A

Associated with acute infection of EBV

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16
Q

Anti-EA-R

A

Associated with acute infection of EBV. Found in young adults but not children.

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17
Q

Anti-EBNA

A

“Epstein Barr Nuclear Antigen”. Appears after acute infection and increases in convalescence.

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18
Q

Febrile Agglutinins

A

Antibodies to microorganisms associated with persistent fever
- Cause RBCs to agglutinate (cold agglutinins)

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19
Q

Widal Test

A

Agglutination test to detect antigens of various Salmonella species.
- Can differentiate between species
- O = Somatic Antigen (< 6 months) (1:160+ indicative)
- H = Flagellar Antigen (1 year +) (1:80)
- Vi = Capsular Antigen, highly virulent S. typhi and S. paratyphi (Never leaves Carriers), Can cause false negative O, boil to correct

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20
Q

Tularemia

A
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Small mammals and birds
  • Acquired through contact with animals
  • Cross react with Brucella antibodies
  • High titers in primary disease (1:160+)
21
Q

Brucellosis

A
  • Brucella abortus
  • Normal flora in genital and urinary tract of cows, pigs, and buffalo
  • Acquired through eating meat or occupational exposure
  • (1:80 significant, 1:160 indicative)
22
Q

Rickettsial Disease

A
  • Recurrent Fever
  • Acquired through tick, mite, and lice bites
  • GNC
23
Q

Weil Felix Reactions

A

Detect Reckettsia Disease by cross reactivity with Proteus Antigens

24
Q

RMSF (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever)
Epidemic Typhus
Murine Typhus

A

OX19 ++++ (1:160-1:320)
OX2 +
OXK neg

25
Q

Scrub Typhus

A

OX19 neg
OX2 neg
OXK ++++

26
Q

Other tickborne SFG (Spotted Fever Group) Infections

A

OX19 +
OX2 ++++
OXK neg

27
Q

Hydatidiform Mole

A
  • Chorionic villi enlarge into grapelike clusters
  • Can be complete moles (no fetal tissue) or partial moles
  • More common in older women
28
Q

Choriocarcinoma

A
  • Malignancy of fetal origin
  • May disseminate, usually to lungs
29
Q

Testicular Teratoma

A
  • Embryonic germ cell tumor
  • Composed of different kinds of tissues (skin, hair, muscle)
  • Produce HCG in men
30
Q

BHCG

A

Lateral Flow Sandwich Immunoassay
- Highest near end of 1st Trimester
- Fall to 10-15% of peak in 2nd and 3rd Trimester

31
Q

TORCH Test

A

TOxoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

32
Q

Oocysts

A

Toxoplasmosis. Spore-like stage that is ingested by humans

33
Q

Tachyzoites

A

Toxoplasmosis. Mobile form that invades neural tissue

34
Q

Bradyzoites

A

Toxoplasmosis. Tissue cyst forming units that can lay dormant indefinitely

35
Q

Toxoplasmosis Treatment

A
  • Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
  • Treat baby for first two weeks after birth
36
Q

Rubella Characteristics

A
  • ssRNA virus of the togavirus family
  • Benign, self-limiting with mild upper respiratory tract infection, erythema (rash)
37
Q

Rubella Immune Titer (IgG)

A

1:8 or 1:10

38
Q

CMV (Cytomegalovirus)

A
  • Belongs to herpes family
  • Associated with WBCs
  • Greatest risk: HIV+, Transplant patients, Premees
  • “Owl Eye” inclusions in infection
39
Q

Herpes

A
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Type 1: upper body, oral cavity (most infections)
  • Type 2: genital lesions
  • Latent infection in lymphoid and CNS ganglia cells
40
Q

Herpes Treatment

A
  • Acyclovir or vidarabine
41
Q

Direct Agglutination

A

Antigen is a natural particle (often an RBC)

42
Q

Indirect (Passive) Agglutination

A

AntiGEN is adsorbed onto surface of an artificial particle (latex beads, etc)

43
Q

Reverse Indirect Agglutination

A

AntiBODY is adsorbed onto surface of an artificial particle (latex beads, etc)

44
Q

Agglutination Inhibition

A

Competitive between particle and the and its antigen for limited antibody
- If agglutination, neg
- If no agglutination, pos

45
Q

Capture (sandwich) immunoassays

A

Antibody-antigen-antibody

46
Q

Double Antibody immunoassays

A

Antigen-antibody-antibody

47
Q

Direct Immunofluorescence

A

Patient antigen adsorbed to slide, tagged antibody bound

48
Q

Indirect Immunofluorescence

A

Antigen adsorbed to slide, patient antibody bound, tagged antibody bound (like double-antibody immunoassay)

MLS (18 decks)

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