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Year 5 - Alex's Pathology Guide 2018 > Immunology (All Topics) > Flashcards

Immunology (All Topics) Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

What are the consequences of Phagocyte deficiencies?

A
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2
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are Phagocyte deficiencies investigated?

A
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3
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are Phagocyte deficiencies managed?

A
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4
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

What are the C3, C4 CH50 and AP50 findings in:

  1. C1q deficiency
  2. Factor B deficiency
  3. C9 deficiency
  4. SLE
A
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5
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

What are the consequences of Complement deficiencies?

A
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6
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are complement deficiencies diagnosed?

A
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7
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are complement deficiencies treated?

A
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8
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

What are the features of T Cell Deficiency vs Antibody deficiency (or CD 4 T cell deficiency)?

A
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9
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are Lymphocyte deficiencies diagnosed?

A
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10
Q

Diagnosis and management of immunodeficiencies:

How are Lymphocyte deficiencies managed?

A
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11
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is/are the definition of, symptoms and epidemiology of Type 1 hypersensitivity disorders?

A
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12
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Atopic Dermatitis (infantile eczema)?

A
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13
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Food Allergy?

A
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14
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Oral Allergy Syndrome?

A
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15
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Latex Food Syndrome?

A
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16
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Allergic Rhinitis?

A
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17
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the allergen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment of Acute Urticaria?

A
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18
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is/are the definition and management of Anaphylaxis?

A
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19
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What are the features of the skin prick test?

A
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20
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What are the features of the Quantitative specific IgE putative allergen (RAST)?

A
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21
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What are the features of the component resolved diagnostics?

A
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22
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What are the features of the Challenge test?

A
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23
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity disorders:

What should be measured during an acute anaphylaxis episode?

A
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24
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the definition of Type II Hypersensitivity disorders?

A
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25
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

A
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26
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A
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27
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
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28
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A
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29
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Pemphigus Vulgaris?

A
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30
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Grave’s Disease?

A
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31
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Myasthenia Gravis?

A
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32
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A
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33
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Pernicious Anaemia?

A
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34
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A
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35
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Wegener’s Granulomatosis (GPA)?

A
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36
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA)?

A
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37
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Chronic Urticaria?

A
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38
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the definition of Type III Hypersensitivity disorder?

A
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39
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Mixed Essential Cryoglobulinaemia?

A
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40
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Serum Sickness?

A
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41
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)?

A
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42
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

A
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43
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the definition of Type IV Hypersensitivity disorder?

A
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44
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A
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45
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Multiple Sclerosis?

A
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46
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Contact Dermatitis?

A
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47
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Mantoux Test?

A
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48
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Crohn’s Disease?

A
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49
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders:

What is the antigen, pathology, diagnosis and treatment for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
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50
Q

HLA Associations:

What is the susceptibility allele and risk factor increase for:

  1. Ankylosing spondylitis
  2. Goodpasture’s syndrome
  3. Grave’s Disease
  4. Systemic Lupus Eyrthematosis (SLE)
  5. Type I Diabetes
  6. Rheumatoid Arthritis
A
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51
Q

HLA Associations:

What are PTPN22 and CTLA4 associated with?

A
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52
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms, investigations and complications for Limited cutaneous scleroderma (CREST Syndrome)?

A
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53
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms, investigations and complications for Diffuse cutaneous scleroderma?

A
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54
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the aetiology, symptoms, investigations and complications for IPEX syndrome?

A
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55
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the aetiology and symptoms of Coeliac Disease?

A
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56
Q

Important other diseases:

What are the investigations for Coeliac Disease?

A
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57
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the complications, epidemiology and gold standard investigation for Coeliac Disease?

A
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58
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the 4 extractable extracelular nuclear antibodies?

A
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59
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the antibodies for Antiphospholipid Syndrome (Hugh’s Syndrome)?

A
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60
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Autoimmune hepatitis?

A
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61
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Autoimmune haemolytic Anaemia?

A
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62
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic Purpura?

A
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63
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Churg-Strauss Syndrome (eGPA)?

A
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64
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Coeliac disease?

A
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65
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Congenital heart block in infants of mothers with SLE?

A
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66
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Dermatitis herpetiformis?

A
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67
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Dermatomyositis?

A
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68
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Diffuse Cutaneous Scleroderma?

A
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69
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Goodpasture’s Syndrome?

A
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70
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Graves Disease?

A
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71
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

A
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72
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Limited cutaneous scleroderma (CREST)?

A
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73
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA)?

A
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74
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Mixed connective tissue disease?

A
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75
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Myasthenia Gravis?

A
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76
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Pernicious anaemia?

A
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77
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Polymyositis?

A
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78
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Primary biliary cirrhosis?

A
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79
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
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80
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
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81
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Systemic Lupus Erythematosis?

A
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82
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Type 1 Diabetes Militus?

A
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83
Q

List of Autoantibodies:

What are the autoantibodies for Wegener’s Granulomatosis (GPA)?

A
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84
Q

Boosting immune response:

Outline the broad classification of Immune Modulation therapies

A
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85
Q

Boosting immune response:

Outline the features of Human Normal Immunoglobulin therapy

A
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86
Q

Boosting immune response:

Outline the features of Specific Immunoglobulin

A
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87
Q

Boosting immune response:

Outline the features of Recombinant Cytokines

A
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88
Q

Boosting immune response:

Outline the features of Blocking immune checkpoints

A
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89
Q

Immunosuppressive therapies:

Outline the features of injection site reactions

A
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90
Q

Immunosuppressive therapies:

Outline the features of infusion reactions

A
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91
Q

Immunosuppressive therapies:

Outline the types of immunosuppressive therapies

A
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92
Q

Immunosuppressive therapies:

Outline the process of Allergen Desensitization

A
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93
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Prednisolone?

A
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94
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indications for Prednisolone?

A
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95
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Prednisolone?

A
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96
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Cyclophosphamide?

A
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97
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indications for Cyclophosphamide?

A
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98
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Cyclophosphamide?

A
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99
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Mycophenolate Mofetil?

A
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100
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indication for Mycophenolate Mofetil?

A
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101
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Mycophenolate Mofetil?

A
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102
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Azathioprine?

A
103
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indications for Azathioprine?

A
104
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Azathioprine?

A
105
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Methotrexate?

A
106
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indications for Methotrexate?

A
107
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Methotrexate?

A
108
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is the mode of action for Plasmapheresis?

A
109
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the indications for Plasmapheresis?

A
110
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the main types of immunosuppressant drugs?

A
  • Corticosteriods:
    • ​Prednisolone
  • Antiproliferative Agents: “CAMM”
    • ​Cyclophosphamide
    • Azathioprine
    • Myclophosphamide
    • Methotrexate
  • Plasmapheresis
  • Inhibitors of cell signalling: “TTACS”
    • ​Tacrolimus
    • Tofacinib
    • Apremilast
    • Cyclosporin
    • Sirolimus
  • Agents directed at cell surface antigens: “ADAMANT BER”
    • Abatacept
    • Daclizumab
    • Anti thymocyte
    • Muromonab CD3
    • Alemtuzumab
    • Natalizumab
    • Tocilizumab
    • ​Basiliximab
    • Efalizumab
    • Rituximab
  • Agents directed at cytokines “GAUDIES C”:
    • Golimumab
    • Adalimumab
    • Ustekinumab
    • Denosumab
    • ​Infliximab
    • Etanercept
    • Secukinumab
    • Certolizumab
111
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What are the side effects of Plasmapheresis?

A
112
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Tacrolimus and Cyclosporine?

A
113
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Sirolimus, Tofacitinib and Apremilast?

A
114
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Basiliximab?

A
115
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Abatacept?

A
116
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Rituximab?

A
117
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Natalizumab?

A
118
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Tocilizumab?

A
119
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Muromonab-CD3?

A
120
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG)?

A
121
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Daclizumab?

A
122
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Efalizumab?

A
123
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab and Golimumab?

A
124
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Etanercept?

A
125
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Ustekinumab?

A
126
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Secukinumab?

A
127
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Denosumab?

A
128
Q

Immunosuppressant Drugs:

What is/are the mode of action, indications and side effects of Alemetuzumab?

A
129
Q

Transplantation:

What is transplantation rejection and what are its stages?

A
130
Q

Transplantation:

Outline the process of immune recognition

A
131
Q

Transplantation:

What are the antigens recognised following transplant?

A
132
Q

Transplantation:

What are the 2 types of recognition in transplant?

A
133
Q

Activation and Effector Function:

What is activation and effector function?

A
134
Q

Activation and Effector Function:

What are the phases of immune response to transplant?

A
135
Q

Activation and Effector Function:

What is the T Cell function in transplant rejection?

A
136
Q

Activation and Effector Function:

What is acute vascular rejection?

A
137
Q

Activation and Effector Function - Types of Transplant Rejection:

What is the time, mechanism pathology and treatment for Hyperacute Rejection?

A
138
Q

Activation and Effector Function - Types of Transplant Rejection:

What is the time, mechanism pathology and treatment for Acute-Cellular Rejection?

A
139
Q

Activation and Effector Function - Types of Transplant Rejection:

What is the time, mechanism pathology and treatment for Acute- Antibody Mediated Rejection?

A
140
Q

Activation and Effector Function - Types of Transplant Rejection:

What is the time, mechanism pathology and treatment for Chronic Rejection?

A
141
Q

Activation and Effector Function - Types of Transplant Rejection:

What is the time, mechanism pathology and treatment for Graft versus Host Disease (GvHD)?

A
142
Q

Matching:

How are antigenic differences between donors and recipients reduced?

A
143
Q

Matching:

What immune agents are given before a transplant?

A
144
Q

Matching:

What immune agents are given after transplant and give some examples?

A
145
Q

Matching:

What are used to treat episodes of acute transplant rejection?

A
146
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

Outline the aetiology, symptoms and treatment of Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)

A
147
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

What is an isograft, allograft, xenograft and split graft?

A
148
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

What are the infection related post transplant complications?

A
149
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

What are the malignancy related post transplant complications?

A
150
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

What are the Cardiovascular related post transplant complications?

A
151
Q

Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT):

What are the sources of Allografts?

A
152
Q

Pathogenesis:

What is the very basic aetiology of HIV?

A
153
Q

Epidemiology:

How many people are living with HIV and how many have died from AIDS?

A
154
Q

Epidemiology:

How many people are infected with HIV each day?

A
155
Q

Epidemiology:

How is HIV transmitted and how does it gain entry to cells?

A
156
Q

Pathogenesis:

What is the innate response to HIV?

A
157
Q

Pathogenesis:

What is the adaptive response to HIV?

A
158
Q

Pathogenesis:

How does HIV damage the immune response?

A
159
Q

Life cycle:

What is the life cycle of HIV?

A
160
Q

Natural history:

What is the natural history of HIV?

A
161
Q

Natural history:

Outline the changes in Mucosal CD4 T cells, CD4 T cell counts in blood, Viremia and Immune activation in HIV over weeks, years and months.

A
162
Q

Diagnosis:

What is the screening test and confirmation test for HIV?

A
163
Q

Diagnosis:

What investigations happen after diagnosis?

A
164
Q

Treatment:

What is the current treatment of HIV?

A
165
Q

Treatment:

What is HIV treatment in Pregnancy?

A
166
Q

Treatment:

What are the limitations of HAART?

A
167
Q

Treatment:

Outline the treatment diagram for HIV

A
168
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Fusion inhibitors?

A
169
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Attachment inhibitors?

A
170
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)?

A
171
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Non-NRTI?

A
172
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Integration inhibitors?

A
173
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Protease inhibitors?

A
174
Q

HIV Treatment:

What are the examples and side effects of Nucleotide RTI?

A
175
Q

Vaccination:

Outline the schedule of childhood vaccination

A
  • D = Diphtheria
  • T = Tetanus
  • aP = acellular Pertussis (whooping cough)
  • IPV = Inactivated Polio
  • HiB = Haemophilus influenza type b
  • MMR = Measles, mumps
  • rubella PCV = Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
  • Men C = Meningitis C
  • R = rotavirus gastroenteritis (oral)
  • HPV = Human papilloma virus type 16,18 (3 injections at 1,3,6 months)
176
Q

Vaccination:

Who are at risk individuals?

A
177
Q

Vaccination:

What is the progression of antibody concentration in first and second exposures?

A
178
Q

Vaccination:

What does vaccination rely on?

A
179
Q

Vaccination:

What is herd immunity?

A
180
Q

Vaccination:

What are Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)?

A
181
Q

Vaccination:

What are the locations, antigens, cytokines and memory types of Central and Effector memory cells?

A
182
Q

Vaccination:

What do CCR7, CCL19, CCL21 and CD62L do?

A
183
Q

Vaccination:

What antigens do T Memory cells have and what do they bind to?

A
184
Q

Vaccination:

What are the features of B Memory Cells?

A
185
Q

Vaccination:

Outline the T helper cell response

A
186
Q

Vaccination:

What are the features of the perfect vaccination?

A

1

187
Q

Vaccination:

What is the progression of a vaccine?

A
188
Q

Vaccination:

What are the different routes of admission of vaccines?

A
189
Q

Vaccination:

Which cells mediate the response to Influenza and TB vaccines?

A
190
Q

Vaccination:

What are the ways to ensure a good response to generate effective memory?

A
191
Q

Vaccination:

What are the Cancer Vaccines?

A
192
Q

Vaccination:

What are the Alzheimer’s disease Vaccines?

A
193
Q

Vaccination:

Why don’t vaccinations for effectively in the elderly?

A
194
Q

Vaccination:

What are the indications for bone marrow transplantation?

A
195
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the advantages of live vaccines?

A
196
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the disadvantages of live vaccines?

A
197
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the examples of live vaccines?

A
198
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the advantages of inactivated vaccines?

A
199
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

A
200
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the examples of inactivated vaccines?

A
201
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What is the definition of a DNA vaccine?

A
202
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the advantages of DNA vaccines?

A
203
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the disadvantages of DNA vaccines?

A
204
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What are the examples of DNA vaccines?

A
205
Q

Types of Vaccine:

What types of vaccines can HIV patients not have and which ones are okay?

A
206
Q

Vaccination:

What is the definition of a Vaccine Adjutant?

A
207
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of Depot adjuvant?

A
208
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of ALUM adjuvant?

A
209
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of CpG adjuvant?

A
210
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of Complete Freund’s adjuvant?

A
211
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of ISCOMS (Immune Stimulating Complex) adjuvant?

A
212
Q

Vaccination:

What is the action of Interleukin 2 adjuvant?

A
213
Q

Vaccination:

What are the passive vaccines?

A
214
Q

Vaccination:

What is the Mantoux test?

A
215
Q

Vaccination:

  • Who are at risk groups?
  • Which Vaccinations are needed for travel?
  • Who needs the BCG? Who needs T/IP vaccine?
  • Who needs DTaP/IPV vaccine?
  • Who needs Shingles vaccine?
A
216
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the CD4, CD8, B Cell, IgM and IgG changes in:

  1. SCID
  2. Di George
  3. BLS
A
217
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the CD4, CD8, B Cell, IgM, IgG and IgA changes in:

  1. SCID
  2. Brutons
  3. Hyper IgM
  4. Selective IgA Deficiency
  5. CVID
A
218
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the Neutrophil count, Leukocyte adhesion markers, Nitroblue test of oxidative killing (NBT) and pus findings in:

  1. Kostmann syndrome
  2. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
  3. Chronic Granulomatous disease
A
219
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of External epithelia deficiencies?

A
220
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Mucosal surfaces deficiencies?

A
221
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Commensal bacteria deficiencies?

A
222
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Reticular dysgenesis?

A
223
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Kostmann syndrome?

A
224
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Cyclic neutropenia?

A
225
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A
226
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Phagocytosis deficiencies?

A
227
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Chronic granulomatous disease? Including:

  1. Absent respiratory burst
  2. Excessive inflammation
A
228
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Chronic granulomatous disease? Including:

  1. Symptoms
  2. Investigations performed
A
229
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Recruitment of other cell deficiencies?

A
230
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Alternative Pathway deficiencies?

A
231
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Deficiencies in early classical Pathway (C1/2/4)?

Include:

  1. Aetiolgy
  2. Depoisition sites
A
232
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Secondary Classical Pathway deficiencies?

A
233
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Mannose binding lectin deficiencies?

A
234
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of C3 Deficiencies?

A
235
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Secondary C3 deficiencies?

A

Don’t confuse with secondary Classical pathway deficiencies, which are caused by active lupus depleting the complement

236
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of terminal common pathway deficiencies?

A
237
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features, disease and disease characteristics of Haem stem cell deficiencies?

A
238
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of SCID?

Include:

  1. Clinical presentation
  2. Family history
A
239
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of X-linked SCID? Include:

  1. Epidemiology
  2. Genetics
A
240
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of DiGeorge syndrome?

A
241
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What is the clinical presentation of Bare lymphocyte Type II syndrome?

A
242
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What is the aetiology of Bare lymphocyte Type II syndrome?

A
243
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Bruton’s X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia?

A
244
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Hyper IgM Syndrome? Include:

  1. Definition
  2. Genetics
A
245
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Hyper IgM Syndrome? Include:

  1. Symptoms
  2. Complications
A
246
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Common variable immune deficiency?

A
247
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of Deficiencies in early classical Pathway (C1/2/4)?

Include:

  1. Complement deficiency
  2. Clinical phenotype
A
248
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of SCID?

Include:

  1. Associated Pathways
  2. Effect on Lymphocytes
A
249
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What are the features and disease characteristics of X-linked SCID? Include:

  1. Phenotype
A
250
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What is are the subclasses of Primary immune deficiencies?

A

“BACKLIT CHAMP R”

  • B Lymphocyte Maturation
  • Alternative pathway
  • Classical pathway
  • Killing
  • Lymphoid progenitors
  • Immune barriers
  • Terminal common pathway/T Cell maturation/T Cell acitvation
  • C3
  • HAem stem cells
  • Mannose binding lectin/Mobilisation of Phagocytes
  • Phagocytosis
  • Recruitment of other cells
251
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What is are the subclasses of Primary immune deficiencies affecting Immune barriers?

A

Immune barriers:

  • External epithelia
  • Mucosal surfaces
  • Commmensal Bacteria
252
Q

Primary Immune Deficiencies:

What is are the subclasses of Primary immune deficiencies affecting:

  • Mobilisation of Pagocytes
  • T Cell activation and effector functions
  • T Cell maturation
  • B Lymphocyte Maturation
A

Mobilisation of Phagocytes:

  • Production of neutrophils
  • Neutrophil maturation
  • Migration to site of infection

T Cell activation and effector functions:

  • Cytokine release
  • T/B Cell communication

T Cell Maturation:

  • ​Thymus
  • Positive and negative selection
  • Exposure of mature T cells to periphery

B Lymphocyte Maturation:

  • ​Pro B Cells
  • Class switching
253
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the epidemiology and symptoms of Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A
254
Q

Important other diseases:

What is/are the assocaited antibodies and investigations for Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A

Year 5 - Alex's Pathology Guide 2018 (70 decks)

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