Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

lymph node follicles

A

site of B cell localization and proliferation

  • primary are dense and dormant
  • secondary have active pale center
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

lymph node medulla

A

cords and sinuses - sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics and contain reticular cells and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

paracortex of lymph nodes

A

houses T cells, between follicles and medulla, contains HEVs where lymphocytes enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

region of lymph node not well developed in DiGeorge syndrome

A

paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

final lymph drainage

A

right lymphatic duct to right side above diaphragm, everything else to thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

superficial inguinal drainage

A

think skin - anal canal, below ubilicus, scrotum, vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

para-aortic drainage

A

testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

celiac drainage

A

liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, upper duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

composition of white pump in spleen

A

follicle has B cells, periarteriolar lymphoid sheath has T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

marginal zone in spleen

A

between red and white pulp - contains macrophages and special B cells, where APC capture antigens for recognition by lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

people are susceptible to what after spleenectomy

A

encapsulated organisms (pneumococcal, Hib, meningococcal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

things seen in spleenectomy

A
  • Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants
  • target cells
  • thrombocytosis (loss of sequestration)
  • lymphocytosis (loss of sequestration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

THymus is derived from…..

A

THird pharyngeal pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hassall corpuscles

A

epithelial reticular cells in thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

thymoma is associated with….

A

myasthenia gravis and superior vena cava syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MHC Class 1

A
  • bind to TCR and CD8
  • 1 long chain and 1 short chain (alpha 1-3 and beta2 microglobulin)
  • expressed on all nucleated cells
  • present endogenous peptides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MHC class 1 loading

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum after delivery via transporter associated with antigen processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MHC class 2

A
  • bind to TCR and CD4
  • 2 equal chain
  • present on all APCs
  • exogenous protein presented to CD4 cells
  • loaded from acidified endosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MHC

A

present on cells, binds to T cell receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HLA A3

A

hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HLA B8

A

Addison disease, myasthenia gravis, Graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HLA B27

A

seronegative arthopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8

A

celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HLA DR2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, goodpasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

HLA DR3

A

diabetes type 1, SLE Graves, Hashimoto, Addisons

26
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes, Addison

27
Q

HLA DR5

A

pernicious anemia and B12 deficiency and Hashimotos

28
Q

NK cells

A

innate immunity

- perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells

29
Q

positive and negative selection in thymus

A

positive - in cortex, TCR that bind to self MHC survive

negative - in medulla, TCR with high affinity for self antigen die

30
Q

autoimmune regulator (AIRE)

A

allows self-antigen presentation in thymus, deficiency leads to autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome-1

31
Q

TH1 activators

A

IL12 IFN-gamma

32
Q

TH2 activators

A

IL2, IL4

33
Q

TH17 activators

A

TGF beta, IL6

34
Q

TH1 cells

A
  • secrete gamma IFN, IL2
  • activates macrophages and CTLs
  • inhibited by IL-4 and IL-10
35
Q

TH2 cells

A
  • Secretes IL4,5,6,10,13
  • recruits eos for parsite defence and promotes IgE by B cells
  • inhibited by gamma-IFN
36
Q

IL-12

A

released by dendritic cells, macrophages and APCs to make TH1 cells

37
Q

IFN-gamma

A

macrophage stimulation

38
Q

expression in Tregs

A

CD3, CD4, CD25, FOXP3

39
Q

anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta

40
Q

IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, Xlinked syndrome)

A

defect in FOXP3 (no Treg) leading to autoimmunity - associated with diabetes in male infants

41
Q

CD 28 and B7

A

B7 on APC and CD 28 on T cell, leading to activation

42
Q

CD40 and CD40L

A

secondary signal in B cell activation, CD40 on B cell, CD40L on T cell

43
Q

4 Cs of Fc

A
  • constant
  • carboxy terminal
  • complement binding
  • carbohydrate side chains
44
Q

mechanisms for antibody diversity

A
  1. random recombination of VJ and VDJ
  2. random nucleotide addition by terminal deoxynecleotidyl tranferase
  3. random light and heavy
45
Q

mechanisms for antibody specificity

A

somatic hypermutation and isotype switching

46
Q

antibodies that fix complement

A

IgG and IgM

47
Q

antibody that crosses placenta

A

IgG

48
Q

CRP

A

acute phase reactant - opsonin, fixes complement, facilitates phagocytosis

marker of inflammation

49
Q

ferritin

A

acute phase reactant - sequesters iron

50
Q

fibrinogen

A

acute phase reactant - coag factor promoting endothelial repair

51
Q

hepcidin

A

acute phase reactant - decreased iron absorption and decreased iron release from macrophages leading to anemia of chronic disease

52
Q

serum amyloid A

A

acute phase reactant - long elevation can lead to amyloidosis

53
Q

classic pathway activation

A

IgG and IgM (GM makes classic cars)

54
Q

alternative pathway activation

A

microbe surface molecules

55
Q

lectin pathway activation

A

mannose or other sugars on microbe surface

56
Q

complement opsonin

A

C3b (b binds bacteria)

57
Q

anaphylatoxins complement

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

58
Q

neutrophil chemotaxis complement

A

C5a

59
Q

complement inhibitors

A

C1 esterase and DAF (CD55)

60
Q

C3 deficiency

A

increase in respiratory tract infections, more type 3 reactions

61
Q

C5-C9 deficiency

A

Neisseria bacteria

62
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

A

hereditary angioedema due to activation of kallikrein, increase bradykinin - low C4