Heme/Onc Flashcards

1
Q

reticulocyte

A

immature RBC

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2
Q

blue color on Wright-Giemsa stain of reticulocytes =

A

residual ribosomal RNA

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3
Q

dense granules of platelet

A

ADP and calcium

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4
Q

alpha granules of platelet

A

vWF, fibrinogen and fibronectin

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5
Q

vWF receptor

A

Gp1b

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6
Q

fibrinogen receptor

A

Gp2b/3a

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7
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils and mast cells

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8
Q

specific granules of neutrophils

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin

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9
Q

azurophilic granules of neutrophils

A

proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase and beta-glucuronidase

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10
Q

hypersegmented neutrophils

A

B12 deficiency/folate deficiency

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11
Q

neutrophil chemotaxis

A

C5a, Il-8, LTB4, kallikrein, platelet activating factor

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12
Q

monocyte

A

macrophage precursor

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13
Q

macrophages activated by

A

gamma interferon

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14
Q

histiocyte

A

macrophage in connective tissue

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15
Q

initiation of septic shock

A

LPS binds CD14

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16
Q

major basic protein

A

allows eosinophil defense in parasites

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17
Q

causes of eosinophilia

A
NAACP
neoplasia
asthma
allergic processes
chronic adrenal insufficiency
parasites
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18
Q

contents of basophils cells

A

heparin, histamine, leukotrienes

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19
Q

basophilia seen in…

A

CML

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20
Q

IgE binding and degranulation

A

in mast cells

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21
Q

what prevents mast cell degranulation

A

cromolyn sodium

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22
Q

dendritic cell

A

bridge between innate and adaptive immunities

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23
Q

NK cell

A

innate immunity lymphocyte

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24
Q

B cell markers

A

CD 19, 20, 21

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25
Q

T cell makers

A

CD 3, 4 and 8

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26
Q

CD28

A

for T cell activiation

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27
Q

order of erythropoesis production

A

yolk sac, liver, spleen, bone marrow

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28
Q

HbF

A

fetal hemoglobin, has less affinity for 2,3 BPG allowing O2 extraction from mom

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29
Q

blood types

A

if you have the antigen, you dont have the antibody

  • example AB is universal recipient due to no antibodies
  • O is universal donor due to no antigens
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30
Q

mothers at risk of hemolytic disease of newborn

A

Rh- moms (have anti Rh antibody after exposure)

- give Rhogam to prevent problems

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31
Q

ABO hemolytic disease of newborn

A

in O mom, with A or B baby

- leads to jaundice, treated with phototherapy

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32
Q

order of hemoglobin electrophoresis

A

A Fat Santa Claus

alpha, fetal, sickle, C

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33
Q

vWF and factor 8

A

vWF protects factor 8

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34
Q

vitamin K clotting cascase

A

vitamin K is reduced in liver by epoxide reductase and then acts as a cofactor for 2,7,9,10,c anc s

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35
Q

why are newborns vitamin K deficient

A

lack enteric bacteria

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36
Q

main targets of antithrombin

A

thrombin and Xa

37
Q

factor V Leiden

A

factor V is resistant to inhibition by protein C

38
Q

acanthocyte (spur cell)

A
  • in liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia (states of cholesterol dysregulation)
  • acantho = spiny
39
Q

basophilic stipling

A
  • in lead poisoning, sideroblastic anemias, myelodysplastic syndromes
  • aggregation of residual ribosomes
  • in peripheral smear
40
Q

dacrocyte (tear drop cell)

A
  • due to bone marrow infiltration (cells squeezing out)
41
Q

bite cell

A

G6PD deficiency

42
Q

echinocyte (burr cell)

A
  • seen in end stage renal disease, liver disease and pyruvate kinase deficiency
  • different than acanthocyte, smaller and uniform projections
43
Q

elliptocyte

A

seen in hereditary elliptocytosis, mutations in RBC membrane proteins

44
Q

macro-ovalocyte

A

megaloblastic anemia (also includes hypersegmented neutrophils

45
Q

ringed sideroblasts

A
  • iron in mitochondria in sideroblastic anemia

- in bone marrow

46
Q

schistocyte

A

in MAHA including DIC, TTP/HUS, HELLP, valves and aortic stenosis

47
Q

target cell

A
HALT said to target
HbC disease
asplenia
liver disease
thalassemia
48
Q

Heinz bodies

A
  • seen in G6PD deficiency

- oxidation of hemoglobin

49
Q

Howell Jolly bodies

A
  • seen in patients without spleen
50
Q

treatment of lead poisoning

A

dimercaprol and EDTA

- succimer in kids

51
Q

findings in lead poisoning

A
  • lead lines
  • encephalopathy and erythrocyte stippling
  • abdominal colic and anemia
  • wrist and foot drop
52
Q

orotic aciduria

A
  • cant convert orotic acid to UMP (UMP synthase)
  • megaloblastic anemia
  • increase in orotic acid
53
Q

non megaloblastic anemia causes

A

alcoholism, liver disease (no hypersegmented neutrophils)

54
Q

diamond-blackfan anemia

A
  • rapid anemia due to defect in erythroid progenitor cells

- short, craniofacial abnormalities and upper extremity problesm

55
Q

drugs causing aplastic anemia

A

benzene, chloramphenicol, alkylating agents, antimetabolites

56
Q

fanconi anemia

A
  • DNA repair defect causing BM failure
  • macrocytosis
  • short stature, tumors/leukemia, cafe-au-lait spots, thumb defects
57
Q

diagnose HS with…

A

osmotic fragility test

58
Q

pyruvate kinase deficiency

A
  • leads to less ATP, rigid RBCs, extravascular hemolysis

- in hemolytic anemia of newborn

59
Q

where is cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia seen

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae and infections mononucleosis (MMM) - IgM

60
Q

causes of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

SLE, CLL and drugs (methyl dopa)

61
Q

packed RBCs

A
  • increase Hb and O2 capacity

- for acute blood loss and severe anemia

62
Q

platelets

A
  • increases platelet count

- used to stop significant bleed (thrombocytopenia, platelet defects)

63
Q

fresh frozen plasma

A
  • increases coag factors

- treats DIC, cirrhosis, immediate anticoagulation reversal

64
Q

cryoprecipitate

A

fibrinogen, factor 8, factor 13, vWF and fibronectin

- treats deficiencies in fibrinogen and factor *

65
Q

hodgkin lymphoma distribution

A

bimodal

66
Q

hints for hodkin lymphoma

A
  • 2 owl eyes X CD15 = CD30
67
Q

most common type of hodgkin lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosis

68
Q

best prognosis of hodgkin lymphoma

A

lymphocyte rich

69
Q

burkitt lymphoma association

A
  • 8:14, c-myc
  • starry sky with tingible body macrophage
  • EBV
  • jaw lesions or abdomen in sporadic
70
Q

diffuse large B cell lymphoma assocations

A
  • older adults
  • Bcl-2
  • most common
71
Q

follicular lymphoma associations

A
  • 14:18
  • Bcl-2
  • waxing and waning
72
Q

mantle cell lymphoma

A
  • 11:14
  • cyclin D
  • CD5+
  • aggressive
73
Q

marginal cell lymphoma

A
  • 11:18

- chronic inflammation

74
Q

primary central nervous lymphoma

A
  • HIV/AIDS
  • involves EBV
  • distinguish from toxo via CSF
75
Q

adult T cell lymphoma

A
  • caused by HTLV (drug abuse)

- lytic bone lesions, and hypercalcemia

76
Q

mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome

A
  • cutaneous T cell lymphoma
  • CD4 cells with cerebriform nuclei
  • Pautrier microabscess
  • Sezary syndrome = T cell leukemia
77
Q

multiple myeloma

A
  • hypercalcermia, renal involvement, anemia, blone lytic lesions
  • M spike
  • infection
  • amyloidosis
  • iG light chain
  • Rouleaux formation (RBC stacks)
78
Q

WaldenstroM MacroglobulineMa

A
  • no CRAB findings
  • M spike
  • IgM
  • hyperviscosity syndrome
79
Q

MGUS

A
  • no crab

- 1-2% go to myeloma

80
Q

Pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly

A

neutrophils with bilobed neutrophils after chemo

81
Q

ALL

A
  • in kid
  • Down syndrome
  • increase in lymphoblasts
  • TdT and CD10
  • to CNS and testes
  • 12:21 = better
82
Q

CLL

A
  • commonest adult leukemia
  • CD20, CD23, CD5
  • smudge cells (crushed little lymphocytes)
83
Q

richter transformation

A

CLL transforms to aggressive lymphoma, occurs with diffuse large B cell lymphoma

84
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A
  • mature B cells
  • hair like projections
  • no LAD
  • marrow fibrosis (dry tap)
  • stains TRAP
85
Q

AML/APL

A
  • MPO
  • 15:17
  • ATRA
    Down syndrome
  • DIC
86
Q

CML

A
  • 9:22
  • BCR-ABL
  • low LAP
  • treat with imatinib
87
Q

polycythemia vera

A
  • itching after shower
  • episodic blood clots
  • low EPO
  • JAK kinase
88
Q

essential thrombocythemia

A
  • platelets

- bleeding and thrombosis

89
Q

myelofibrosis

A
  • increased fibroblasts

- massive spleen and teardrop