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Module 3 Revision > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main function of the immune system?

A

Protects against infectious agents

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2
Q

What are the two main systems of immunity?

A

Innate immunity
Adaptive immunity

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3
Q

What form of immunity acts as a first line of defence? E.g. barriers, cells, soluble factors

A

Innate immunity

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4
Q

What are key features of the innate immunity?

A

-present at birth
-responds rapidly
- has no specificity
- has no memory

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5
Q

What are some physical barriers in innate immunity?

A

Skin, epithelial cell layer, mucosa, cilia, bronchi

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6
Q

what are some chemical barriers in innate immunity?

A

-acidity in stomach
- alkaline secretions
-lysozyme in tears

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7
Q

What is the main form of biological barrier in innate immunity?

A

Competition with commensal organisms

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8
Q

What are examples of cells in innate immunity?

A

-phagocytes
-natural killer cells
-eosinophils

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9
Q

What cells are phagocytic in nature?

A
  • monocytes
  • macrophages
  • neutrophils
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10
Q

What is the role of NK cells?

A

To kill tumour cells and virally infected cells

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11
Q

What is the role of eosinophils?

A

Attack and kill parasites

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12
Q

What are examples of soluble factors?

A
  • lysozymes
  • complement
  • cytokines
  • acute phase proteins
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13
Q

What is the role of lysozymes?

A

Protects against bacteria, viruses and fungi

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14
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Proteins that are part of the natural defences

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15
Q

The innate and adaptive immune systems cooperate with one another. True or false?

A

True

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16
Q

What are the two components of adaptive immunity?

A

humoral and cellular

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17
Q

What are key features of adaptive immunity?

A

-slow to start
-adaptive
- highly specific
-memory
-recognition of self and non-self

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18
Q

What does humoral immunity involve?

A

Antibodies (immunoglobulins)

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19
Q

What produces immunoglobulins?

A

B lymphocytes

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20
Q

What does cellular immunity involve?

A

Lymphocytes

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21
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes

A

B and T lymphocytes

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22
Q

What are the two types of T cell?

A

Helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells

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23
Q

What is the role of helper T cells?

A

Help B cells produce antibodies, in turn aiding humoral immunity

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24
Q

What is the role of cytotoxic T cells?

A

Destroy infected target cells with specific antigens, and spare uninfected cells.

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25
Q

What are effector functions?

A

Part of humoral response, they form an essential link between innate and adaptive immunity.

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26
Q

What are the two main roles of the immune system?

A

Recognition function
Effector function

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27
Q

What is recognition function?

A

Identifies a substance or antigen as foreign

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28
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Any substance which elicits an immune response

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29
Q

What part of an antigen is recognised by antibodies (humoral) and T cells ( cellular)?

A

The epitope/antigenic determinant

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30
Q

What is the KEY point to remember about antigens?

A

They are foreign

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31
Q

What are the two main roles of the cells of the immune system?

A
  1. Migrate into tissues to detect foreign antigens
  2. Accumulate in specialised organs to develop and differentiate
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32
Q

Name the five types of white blood cells

A
  • monocytes
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • lymphocytes
  • neutrophils
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33
Q

What are the two different lineages of white blood cells?

A
  • lymphoid lineage
  • myeloid lineage
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34
Q

What cells are associated with the lymphoid lineage of white blood cells?

A

Lymphocytes

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35
Q

What cells are associated with the myeloid lineage of white blood cells?

A

Granulocytes and monocytes

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36
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are all types of what cell?

A

Granulocytes

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37
Q

What cell makes up 95% of circulating granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils

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38
Q

What cell is 10-20 micro metres in diameter?

A

Neutrophils

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39
Q

What type of nucleus do neutrophils have?

A

Multi-lobed

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40
Q

How do neutrophils enter tissues?

A

They adhere to endothelial cells and squeeze between them to leave the circulation and enter tissues

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41
Q

What is the main role of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis

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42
Q

What type of nucleus to eosinophils have?

A

Bi-lobed nucleus

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43
Q

The cells which releases toxin-containing granules upon activation in order to kill large pathogens (parasites), are known as?

A

Eosinophils

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44
Q

Which white blood cell is least present in the circulation?

A

Basophils

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45
Q

What is the difference between basophils and mast cells?

A

Mast cells are ONLY found in tissues, not the bloodstream.

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46
Q

What type of nucleus does a monocytes have?

A

Horse-shoe shaped

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47
Q

What are important features of monocytes?

A

Pinochet if vesicles and lysosomal granules

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48
Q

What do the lysosomes in monocytes contain?

A

Peroxidase and acid hydrolases

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49
Q

What is the main function if macrophages?

A

Phagocytosis

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50
Q

Name four types of accessory cell

A
  • platelets
  • antigen presenting cells (APC)
  • mast cells
  • endothelial cells
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51
Q

What role is associated with platelets

A

Blood clotting and inflammation

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52
Q

What role is associated with antigen presenting cells (APC)?

A

They present antigens to T cells and produce cytokines

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53
Q

What is the function of endothelial cells?

A

They control lymphocyte “traffic” and “distribution”

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54
Q

What is the role of mast cells?

A

To release histamine (usually in an allergic reaction)

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55
Q

Lymphocytes are involved in both cellular and humoral immunity. True or false?

A

True

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56
Q

Where are lymphocytes found?

A

In blood, lymph and specialised tissue

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57
Q

Where do lymphocytes originate?

A

In bone marrow from pluripotent cells

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58
Q

Where are B cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

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59
Q

Where are T cells produced?

A

Thymus

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60
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies used for?

A

As cell markers, they are highly specific and used to study cell surfaces

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61
Q

When does activation of lymphocytes occur?

A

Only on binding of antigen by antigen receptor

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62
Q

Where are antibodies (immunoglobulins) produced?

A

Plasma cells ( activated B cells)

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63
Q

What is clonal expansion a result of?

A

Binding of antigen to lymphocyte receptor

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64
Q

What does clonal expansion produce?

A

More activated and memory cells

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65
Q

A more rapid and effective response of lymphocytes to foreign antigens is a result of?

A

Clonal expansion

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66
Q

Tissues where immune response occurs are usually rich in what?

A

Macrophages

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67
Q

What is required for an immune response to occur?

A

Cooperation of cells, cell to cell contact and secretion of cytokines

68
Q

What is another word for immunoglobulin?

A

Antibody

69
Q

What are activated B cells called?

A

Plasma cells

70
Q

What are the five classes of immunoglobulins ( IgG)?

A

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE

71
Q

What shape do immunoglobulins have?

A

Y shape

72
Q

What are three important regions on an immunoglobulin?

A

Fab region
Fc region
Hinge

73
Q

What are the two chains of immunoglobulin structure?

A

Heavy chain and light chain

74
Q

What is the “hinge” region of the immunoglobulin?

A

Disulphide bridge

75
Q

What is the recognition function of antibodies?

A

The Fab arms bind to antigens

76
Q

What is the effector function of antibodies?

A

Interaction of Fc region on antibody with effector molecules (this is a clearance mechanism to get rid of foreign bodies)

77
Q

What are the two types of light chains on antibodies?

A
  1. Lambda
  2. Kappa
78
Q

What two globular domains will light chains on antibodies fold up into?

A

VL and CL

79
Q

What determines the class of antibody?

A

Heavy chains

80
Q

How many domains will heavy chains on antibodies fold up into and what are they?

A

4 (or 5) domains
VH,CH1,CH2,CH3 (and CH4)

81
Q

What are found in V domains?

A

Complementary determining regions (CDR’s)

82
Q

What are key in determining which antigen will bind?

A

Complementary determining regions (CDR’s)

83
Q

What forms the antigen binding site?

A

Complementary determining regions (CDR’s)

84
Q

Where are antigen binding sites found on immunoglobulins?

A

At the tip of the Fab arms

85
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is most abundant in plasma?

A

IgG

86
Q

How many subclasses does IgG have and what are they?

A

4 subclasses
IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4

87
Q

What is the role of IgG

A

Triggers complement and phagocytosis

88
Q

What immunoglobulin class is the only one to cross the placenta from mother to foetus?

A

IgG

89
Q

What antibody is only in plasma and secretions, not tissues and why?

A

IgM, its too large to enter tissues

90
Q

What immunoglobulin is predominant in the secondary antibody response?

A

IgG

91
Q

What immunoglobulin has a special feature known as a ‘J joining chain’ ?

A

IgM

92
Q

What is the shape and number of binding sites of IgM?

A

Five Y-shaped units with 10 binding sites (FAB arms) for antigen

93
Q

What is the function of IgM?

A

Activates complement

94
Q

Which antibody is predominant in the first antibody response?

A

IgM

95
Q

What antibody is largely associated with seromucous secretions ( e.g. saliva)?

A

IgA

96
Q

What are the two subclassses of IgA?

A

IgA1 and IgA2

97
Q

What is IgE’s effector function?

A

It interacts with high affinity receptor: Fc£R1

98
Q

Where is the high affinity receptor, Fc£RI expressed?

A

On mast cells and basophils (it is associated with the allergic response)

99
Q

Which immunoglobulin is important against parasitic infections?

A

IgE

100
Q

What immunoglobulin is found on the surface of lymphocytes?

A

IgD

101
Q

Which region of an antibody is recognition associated with?

A

Fab arms

102
Q

Which region of an antibody is effector function associated with?

A

Fc region

103
Q

Define complement

A

A system of plasma proteins, protects the host from infection through a cascade of reactions that occurs on the surface of pathogens, recruiting and enhancing phagocytosis and leading to Lysis of cells.

104
Q

Where precursors trigger proteolytic enzymes to go on and trigger other precursors. What is this known as?

A

Enzyme cascade

105
Q

What are the three pathways involved in complement?

A
  • classical
  • Lectin
  • alternative
106
Q

Deficiency in what inhibitor will result in recurrent bacterial infections?

A

C3 inhibitor

107
Q

Which of the three complement pathways is the first major line of defence against systemic infection?

A

Alternative pathway

108
Q

Define lysis

A

Break down of cell

109
Q

Define opsonisation

A

Attracts phagocytosis

110
Q

What is released from mast cells in responses to anaphylaxis?

A

Histamine

111
Q

What is the function of chemotaxis?

A

Causes phagocytes to migrate to infection site

112
Q

What inhibitor deficiency will cause inappropriate activation of complement system?

A

C1 inhibitor

113
Q

What can deficiencies in the classical complement pathway be associated with?

A

Autoimmune disorders

114
Q

What is the specificity of lymphocytes achieved by?

A

Antigen receptors on cell surface

115
Q

What is the antigen receptor on B cells?

A

Cell-surface antibody

116
Q

What is the antigen receptor of T cells?

A

T cell receptor (TCR)

117
Q

What do B cells synthesise and secrete?

A

Immunoglobulins

118
Q

How do B cells produce immunoglobulins?

A

They are activated by binding antigens, then they differentiate into plasma cells which actively produce immunoglobulins

119
Q

What is the initial immunoglobulin produced by B cells?

A

IgM

120
Q

What immunoglobulins are produced by memory B cells?

A

IgG, IgA and IgE

121
Q

What immunoglobulin do T cell independent antigens produce In small amounts?

A

IgM

122
Q

What is a T cell receptor (TCR)?

A

A structure on T cell surface that recognises antigen

123
Q

What are the two classes of T cells?

A
  • helper T cell ( Th)
  • cytotoxic T cell ( Tc)
124
Q

What important cell surface protein do helper T cells express?

A

CD4

125
Q

What important cell surface protein do cytotoxic T cells present?

A

CD8

126
Q

What are the cell surface proteins, CD4 and CD8, required for?

A

For an effective response to antigen

127
Q

What is the role of antigen presenting cells ( APC)?

A

Phagocytose foreign bodies

128
Q

What do helper T cells secrete after binding to antigen? And what is their importance?

A

Cytokines, which control immune response

129
Q

What are the two main functions of cytokines in controlling immune response?

A
  • favour macrophage activation and cell mediated responses
  • stimulate B cells to produce antibodies
130
Q

An exaggerated, inappropriate adaptive immune response is known as?

A

Hypersensitivity

131
Q

What can be the result of hypersensitivity?

A

Inflammatory reactions and tissue damage

132
Q

When does hypersensitivity manifest, on the first contact or second contact?

A

Second contact

133
Q

How many classifications of hypersensitivity are there?

A

4

134
Q

Which hypersensitivity classifications are antibody mediated?

A

Class I, II and III

135
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity classification is mediated by T cells and macrophages?

A

Class IV

136
Q

Describe type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE response to non-harmful environmental antigens

137
Q

What high affinity receptor on mast cells does IgE bind to?

A

Fc£R1

138
Q

What does the second encounter to an antigen trigger?

A

The release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine

139
Q

What are severe type I hypersensitivity reactions with systemic symptoms known as?

A

Anaphylactic shock

140
Q

What chemical must be sued to treat anaphylaxis?

A

Adrenaline

141
Q

Which class of hypersensitivity is antibody- dependent cytotoxic?

A

Type II

142
Q

Does type II hypersensitivity occur slower or faster than type I?

A

Slower ( within 18-24hrs)

143
Q

What classification of hypersensitivity is mediated by the persistence and deposition of antibody-antigen immune complexes?

A

Type III

144
Q

What does deposition of immune complexes cause?

A

Inflammation

145
Q

What class of hypersensitivity is delayed, occurring within 48-72 hrs post antigen exposure?

A

Type IV

146
Q

What are the three types of type IV hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Contact
  2. Tuberculin
  3. Granulomatous
147
Q

What are the two phases of type IV hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Sensitisation
  2. Elicitation (inflammation)
148
Q

What class of hypersensitivity can sometimes be seen as a reaction to dental materials e.g. amalgam, gold, mercury and resin-based materials?

A

Type IV

149
Q

What is the most key step of adaptive immunity?

A

Lymphocytes must recognise antigen

150
Q

Which cells only recognise parts of antigens expressed on cell surfaces?

A

T cells

151
Q

What are major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules also referred to as?

A

Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

152
Q

What are the two MHC families?

A

Class I and Class II

153
Q

What are the three members of the Class I MHC family?

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

154
Q

What are the three members of the Class II MHC family?

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

155
Q

What MHC class is expressed on all nucleated cells?

A

Class I

156
Q

Which MHC class is expressed only on leukocytes which present antigen T cells? e.g. monocytes

A

Class II

157
Q

What are the three clinical implications of MHC?

A
  1. Tissue grafting
  2. Certain HLA types exposed to certain disease
  3. Forensic medicine
158
Q

Which MHC class has a structure where the peptide-binding cleft is more open?

A

Class I

159
Q

What do MHC molecules present to cells?

A

Antigenic peptides

160
Q

what type of T cell does MHC class I present peptides to?

A

Cytotoxic T cell

161
Q

what type of T cell does MHC class II present peptides to?

A

Helper T cell

162
Q

Define the breakdown of self-tolerant mechanisms in the immune system

A

Autoimmunity

163
Q

What antibodies develop in autoimmunity and what do they recognise?

A

Auto reactive antibodies that recognise self antigens

164
Q

What are the two classes of autoimmune disease?

A

Organ-specific and Non organ-specific

165
Q

what reactions can organ-specific autoimmunity bring about?

A

Type II hypersensitivity and cell mediated reactions

166
Q

Define the chronic autoimmune disease of mucosal membranes and/or skin

A

Cicatrical Pemphigoid

167
Q

What are oral indicators of Sjogren’s disease?

A
  • oral candida
  • dental caries
  • dry lips
  • dry and lobulated tongue

Module 3 Revision (20 decks)

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