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A&P > Immunity, Digestive, And Urinary > Flashcards

Immunity, Digestive, And Urinary Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the process of clonal selection

A

B cells all have different antigen docking sites, and only the one that binds with the invading antigen will proliferate and divide (clonal selection)

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2
Q

What is the outcome of clonal selection?

A

A lot of plasma cells and a few B cells that become memory cells for when that antigen is encountered again

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3
Q

In B cells, which cells are the actual effectors?

A

Plasma cells

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4
Q

How long does a primary response in B cells take to start and peak?

A

It takes three to four days to begin to respond, and antibody production doesn’t peak until 10 days or so later

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5
Q

How long does secondary response in B cells take to begin and peak?

A

It begins pretty much immediately and peaks after three days

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6
Q

In second exposure responses from B cells, how long are antibodies produced?

A

For weeks or even months

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7
Q

What is the difference between active and passive humoral immunity?

A

In active immunity, a person’s body generates the antibodies to fight the antigen.
In passive immunity, the antibodies are given to a person, not produced by them.

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8
Q

Natural active immunity

A

When a person gets sick and their body mounts an immune response

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9
Q

Artificial active immunity

A

Gaining immunity through vaccinations

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10
Q

Passive natural immunity

A

Antibodies being shared through placenta or breast milk

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11
Q

Passive artificial immunity

A

Antibodies are given in a serum (like with anti venom)

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12
Q

What are the four types of T cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
Regulatory T cells
Memory T cells

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13
Q

Which T cells are direct attack cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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14
Q

What are the targets of cytotoxic T cells?

A

Cancer cells, viruses, and other foreign cells

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15
Q

How do cytotoxic T cells kill their targets?

A

They perforate the cell using perforins, and then insert granzymes into them that kill the cells

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16
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

Direct the immune response
Activate and amplify immune response
Cause B and T cells to proliferate
Activate macrophages

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17
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Chemicals that help to stimulate or enhance cellular immunity

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18
Q

What are some examples of cytokines?

A

Interferons
Colony stimulating factor
Interleukins

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19
Q

Deglutition

A

Swallowing

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20
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing?

A

Voluntary phase
Pharyngeal phase
Esophageal phase

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21
Q

Where does the voluntary swallowing phase take place and what aids it?

A

It takes place in the mouth and the tongue presses up to push the food back into the pharynx

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22
Q

In the pharyngeal phase, what structures block the other openings to make the food go down the esophagus?

A

The tongue blocks the mouth
The uvula blocks the nasopharynx
The epiglottis blocks the trachea when the larynx pushes up and folds it over

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23
Q

What happens in the esophageal phase?

A

Peristalsis pushes food down, and the gastroesophageal sphincter opens for food to enter stomach

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24
Q

What four types of cells are found in gastric pits?

A

Mucous neck cells
Parietal cells
Chief cells
Enteroendocrine cells

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25
Q

Mucous neck cells

A

Secrete mucous to protect stomach lining

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26
Q

What two things are secreted by parietal cells?

A

Intrinsic factor

Hydrochloric acid

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27
Q

What does intrinsic factor do?

A

Aid in B12 absorption

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28
Q

What does hydrochloric acid do in the stomach?

A

Kills bacteria
Denatures proteins
Activates pepsinogen into pepsin

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29
Q

What do chief cells secrete? What is unique about this?

A

Pepsinogen, which doesn’t turn into pepsin until it gets up to the HCl

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30
Q

What is the pH of HCl?

A

3.0

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31
Q

Enteroendocrine cells

A

Secrete hormones into the blood that target the small and large intestine

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32
Q

What are the three phases in the regulation of gastric secretion?

A

Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal

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33
Q

What stimulates gastric secretions in the cephalic phase?

A

Smelling food

Thinking about food

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34
Q

What can inhibit the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?

A

Depression

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35
Q

What stimulates gastric secretions during the gastric phase?

A

The stomach being stretched by food and food and chemicals being sensed by the stomach

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36
Q

What can emotional upset/sympathetic nervous system input do to the gastric phase?

A

Inhibit gastric secretions

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37
Q

Under what conditions in the intestinal phase will gastric secretions be stimulated?

A

Gastric secretions will be stimulated/continued when the first bits of food enter the intestines, because most of the food is still in the stomach

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38
Q

In the intestinal phase, what will cause the inhibition of gastric secretions?

A

Intestinal stretching and acidity in the intestines

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39
Q

Where in the stomach does grinding take place and what does it entail?

A

Pyloric region, and the grinding motion pushes the food towards the small intestine

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40
Q

Retropulsion

A

Part of gastric motility in which a small amount of chyme squirts into the small intestine when the sphincter opens, but most most of it squirts back in the stomach to continue mixing

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41
Q

What is propulsion as pertains to the stomach?

A

The basic electrical rhythm of the stomach, which stimulates it to contract about 3 times per minute

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42
Q

What primarily controls the emptying of the stomach?

A

Signals from the small intestine

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43
Q

What kind of things will signal the stomach to empty faster?

A

The presence of carbohydrates in the small intestine

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44
Q

What sort of things will signal the stomach to empty slower?

A

Protein, fat, or acid presence in the small intestine, as well as stretch being sensed in the small intestine

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45
Q

In order, what are the three sections of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

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46
Q

What are three modifications that increase the surface area of the small intestine?

A

Circular folds
Villi
Microvilli

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47
Q

What is another name for circular folds?

A

Plicae circularis

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48
Q

How big are circular folds?

A

Up to 1 cm

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49
Q

What are villi?

A

Finger like projections that are about 1 mm in length

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50
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Finger like projections on each individual cell

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51
Q

What cell types are found in the small intestine micro anatomy?

A

Secretory cells
Enteroendocrine cells
Stem cells
Immune cells

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52
Q

What types of immune cells are present in the small intestine?

A

Intraepithelial lymphocytes and granular (paneth) cells

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53
Q

What do bound enzymes in the microvilli do?

A

Help to break down proteins and carbohydrates

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54
Q

What is the digestive function of the liver?

A

Creation of bile, to help break down lipids

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55
Q

How does bile help in fat breakdown?

A

Bile salts have a polar end and a non polar end, so they get between fat globs and break them into smaller bits so that enzymes can handle them better

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56
Q

How many times can bile salts be reused in one meal?

A

Up to five

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57
Q

How are bile salts recycled?

A

Through the enterohepatic circulatory route that takes blood from the intestines to the liver

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58
Q

What does the gallbladder do?

A

Store and concentrate bile

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59
Q

What are the endocrine secretions of the pancreas?

A

Insulin and glucagon

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60
Q

What are the exocrine secretions of the pancreas and where do they secrete into?

A

It secrete enzymes to break down all macromolecules, and the pancreas secretes them into the duodenum

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61
Q

Give examples of the enzymes of the pancreas for each type of macromolecule

A

Carbs: pancreatic amylase
Protein: proteases
Lipids: lipase
Nucleic acid: nucleases

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62
Q

How does the pancreas help regulate intestinal pH?

A

Pancreatic juice also includes lots of bicarbonate ions to neutralize stomach acid

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63
Q

What are the main functions of the large intestine?

A

Elimination of waste and absorption of water

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64
Q

What do bacterial flora in the large intestine do?

A

Digest carbs we cannot digest and synthesize vitamins B and K

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65
Q

Haustral contractions

A

Contraction of the individual segments of the large intestine

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66
Q

Gastrocolic reflex

A

The full stomach signaling the large intestine to empty (usually 20-30 minutes after a meal) to make room for more food

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67
Q

How often do mass movements occur?

A

3-4 times a day

68
Q

What are the three general roles of the kidneys?

A

Removal, regulation, and endocrine function

69
Q

What do the kidneys remove?

A

Metabolic wastes, toxins, excess water, excess ions

70
Q

What is regulated by the kidneys?

A

Blood volume, blood pressure, pH, chemical composition of blood

71
Q

What hormones are made by the kidneys?

A

Erythropoietin, renin, and PTH

72
Q

When is PTH released and what does it do?

A

It is released when blood calcium is low, and it draws calcium from the bones that is then reabsorbed at the kidneys. The kidneys also activate vitamin D to cause the digestive system to absorb more calcium

73
Q

Trace a drop of creatinine through the kidney

A 
Glomerulus 
Filtration membrane
Glomerular space
Proximal convoluted tubule
Loop of henle (descending then ascending)
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct 
Calyx
Renal pelvis 
Ureter
Urinary bladder
Urethra
74
Q

List three possible urine color abnormalities and possible causes

A

Cloudy: possible UTI
Dark: dehydration
Pink/red: red foods or blood in the urine

75
Q

What could fruity smelling urine indicate?

A

Diabetes

76
Q

What is the normal pH of urine?

A

Around 6.0

77
Q

What could make urine alkaline?

A

vegetarian diet, UTI, or prolonged bleeding

78
Q

What is the normal specific gravity range for urine?

A

1.001 to 1.035

79
Q

What is the normal urine range for leukocytes and what could it indicate if out of range?

A

Zero

If present, UTI

80
Q

Normal amount of nitrites in urine

A

Zero

81
Q

What does it mean if there are nitrites in the urine?

A

Probably a UTI, because some bacteria can turn nitrates into nitrites

82
Q

Under what circumstances would there be protein in the urine?

A

Pregnancy, extreme exertion, heart failure, hypertension, renal disease, glomerulonephritis

83
Q

Will glucose normally be present in urine? Why or why not?

A

No, it should all be reabsorbed

84
Q

What does it mean if glucose is present in the urine?

A

Likely diabetes

85
Q

Under what circumstances would ketones be present in the urine?

A

Diabetes or starvation

86
Q

Where are urobilinogen and bilirubin normally found (leaving the body)?

A

In the stool

87
Q

What does it mean if bilirubin or urobilinogen is present in urine?

A

Possible liver disease or blockage of bile flow from the liver

88
Q

What could it indicate if blood is present in the urine?

A

Trauma, infection, kidney stones, or cancer

89
Q

What would be potential causes for hemoglobin presence in the urine?

A

Transfusion reaction, hemolytic anemia, or severe burns

90
Q

What are kidney stones?

A

Hard crystallized calcium salts that are between 2 and 3 mm in size

91
Q

Where do kidney stones usually form and why are they painful?

A

They usually form in the renal pelvis and they cause pain when passing through the ureter and the smooth muscle contracts

92
Q

Of men and women, who has an internal and external urethral sphincter?

A

Men only

93
Q

How does the micturation reflex work?

A

The micturation reflex gets the detrusor muscle in the bladder to contract, signaling that urination is needed. However, the external sphincter muscles will stay contracted until there is a convenient time.

94
Q

Why cant infants control when they urinate?

A

The nerves involved are not fully myelinated, so the micturation reflex cannot be inhibited

95
Q

proximal convoluted tubule tissue

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

96
Q

loop of henle descending limb tissue

A

simple squamous epithelium

97
Q

loop of henle ascending limb tissue

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

98
Q

what is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

amino acids and glucose

99
Q

what is reabsorbed in the descending limb of LOH?

A

water but not sodium

100
Q

what is reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the LOH?

A

sodium, but not water

101
Q

collecting duct tissue type?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

102
Q

what is reabsorbed at the collecting duct?

A

some sodium but mostly water

103
Q

what can be secreted at the collecting duct?

A

some water and other electrolytes for fine tuning urine concentration

104
Q

what are toxins and drugs secreted?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

105
Q

what is the tissue type(s) of the calyces?

A

simple cuboidal becoming transitional as it goes down

106
Q

renal pelvis tissue type

A

transitional epithelium

107
Q

ureter tissue type

A

transitional epithelium, lamina propria, smooth muscle

108
Q

urinary bladder tissue type

A

transitional epithelium, lamina propria, and smooth muscle

109
Q

urethra tissue type

A

smooth/skeletal muscle and stratified squamous epithelium

110
Q

what are the three main steps of urine formation?

A

glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion

111
Q

what drives glomerular filtration and by what mechanism?

A

driven by hydrostatic pressure and it’s a passive mechanical process

112
Q

what substances are filtered at the glomerulus?

A

glucose, ions, small toxins, urea/nitrogenous waste, amino acids, water

113
Q

what substances are not filtered at the glomerulus?

A

all formed elements and proteins, large toxins

114
Q

what is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule?

A

calcium and sodium, other electrolytes

115
Q

what is tubular reabsorption?

A

selective transepithelial process that can be active or passive (stuff from nephron back into blood)

116
Q

what is tubular secretion?

A

things moving from the bloodstream into the urinary tubules (opposite direction of tubular reabsorption)

117
Q

what types of pressures move substances into the glomerular space?

A

hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus and osmotic pressure of the capsule

118
Q

what pressures give opposition to the movement of substances into the capsule?

A

hydrostatic pressure of the capsule and osmotic pressure of the glomerulus

119
Q

which pressure in the glomerulus is usually the driving/dominant?

A

hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus

120
Q

which pressure in the glomerular capsule is zero (or should be)?

A

osmotic pressure of the capsule

121
Q

how do you find net filtration pressure at the glomerulus?

A

(HPg + OPcaps) - (HPcaps + OPg)=net filtration pressure

122
Q

what is normal GFR?

A

about 125 mL/min

123
Q

what two general categories control GFR?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic methods

124
Q

what are the two intrinsic methods of GFR control?

A

myogenic mechanism and tubuloglomerular mechanism

125
Q

how does the myogenic mechanism work to control GFR?

A

if LOCAL BP is high, afferent arteriole will constrict to slow blood flow to glomerulus. If local BP is low, afferent arteriole will dilate to increase blood flow to glomerulus

126
Q

what triggers the myogenic mechanism?

A

baroreceptors in the granular cells of the distal convoluted tubule, which touches the afferent arteriole

127
Q

how does the tubuloglomerular mechanism work?

A

the end of the tubule (DCT) talks to the beginning (afferent arteriole). The DCT senses sodium level and tells afferent tubule to constrict or dilate accordingly

128
Q

what is it called where the distal convoluted tubule meets the afferent arteriole?

A

juxtaposition apparatus

129
Q

what specifically senses the sodium levels in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

chemoreceptors called the macula densa cells

130
Q

how does GFR affect blood sodium and how will the body adjust accordingly?

A

If GFR is too high, blood will be too salty and afferent arteriole will constrict
If GFR is too low, blood will not be salty enough and afferent arteriole will vasodilate

131
Q

what are the extrinsic methods for controlling GFR?

A

neural and hormonal

132
Q

how does the nervous system influence GFR?

A

in stressful situations where the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, GRF will decrease because blood will be routed to other areas where its needed more. the nervous system overrides any local controls

133
Q

if blood pressure drops, what endocrine controls do the kidneys have?

A

the granular cells release renin, which triggers the formation of angiotensin II

134
Q

what functions does angiotensin II have in the endocrine/vascular system? (4 things)

A 
causes vasoconstriction
ADH formation
aldosterone formation
glomerular cells contract 
**all of these lead to increase in BP**
135
Q

what does ADH do?

A

decreases urination

136
Q

what does aldosterone do?

A

increases sodium reabsorption at the kidneys, leading to water retention and increasing BP

137
Q

what is the purpose of tubular reabsorption?

A

Tubular reabsorption helps the body to keep as much water and as many nutrients as possible, instead of most of them leaving the body as waste products

138
Q

what does it mean to say that tubular reabsorption is a selective transepithelial process?

A

it means that some substances make it across the epithelial membrane of the tubule while others do not

139
Q

by what two routes can substances be reabsorbed?

A

transcellular and paracellular routes

140
Q

transcellular route

A

substances go through the epithelial cells of the DCT and into the bloodstream

141
Q

paracellular route

A

substances go between the epithelial cells of the DCT and into the bloodstream

142
Q

Describe the primary active transport of sodium across the DCT membrane

A

Sodium passes from the inside of the PCT cell through the basolateral membrane and into the capillary using primary active transport (ATP is used to move the sodium)

143
Q

how does the secondary active transport of sodium work?

A

the sodium leaving the epithelial cell creates a gradient with the intracellular space, and the sodium goes through the luminal membrane using a channel that has been opened without ATP being used

144
Q

what is the benefit to the secondary active transport mechanism?

A

sodium takes glucose and amino acids through the channel with it, so those molecules are transported without energy being expended

145
Q

what is the transport maximum?

A

there are only so many of those channels that sodium/glucose/ATP can go through, so if someone’s blood has too much glucose (diabetes) not all of it will be reabsorbed

146
Q

why are lipids hard for the body to get rid of?

A

they can slide between the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane and back into the bloodstream, meaning they cycle around and are rarely expelled from the body

147
Q

how do ions like chloride and potassium usually move from the tubules to the blood?

A

either by the paracellular route or through a channel in exchange for sodium

148
Q

how does water get through the membrane of the tubules?

A

osmosis or aquaporins (water channels)

149
Q

why are lipid soluble environmental toxins dangerous to the body?

A

because like lipids, they slide through the phospholipid bilayer and back into the bloodstream, so they build up in the body instead of being filtered out

150
Q

what is the purpose of tubular secretions?

A

get rid of unwanted things in the body

151
Q

in a counter current multiplier, what is the direction of the flow in the tubes?

A

they flow in opposite directions of one another

152
Q

how does the gradient function (give number too) to establish maximum water reclamation at the collecting duct?

A

Entering nephron, osmolarity of filtrate is 300. At top of collecting duct, it is 100, and at the bottom it is 1200. Because the papilla gets saltier the lower you go, the more water is pulled out of the collecting duct (maximum reclamation)

153
Q

What is the role of ADH in regulating urine concentration?

A

ADH inserts and removed aquaporins, so if ADH removes the aquaporins, the urine will be very dilute

154
Q

How does aldosterone work in regulating urine concentration?

A

Aldosterone causes the kidneys to reabsorb more salt, which also causes more water retention, so urine will be more concentrate

155
Q

By what mechanism do osmotic diuretics, alcohol and caffeine affect urine volume?

A

Alcohol inhibits ADH, so you pee a lot
Caffeine inhibits sodium reabsorption, so you pee a lot
Glucose is an osmotic diuretic, meaning the water follows the glucose so you pee more

156
Q

What is renal clearance?

A

Renal clearance is the volume of blood plasma cleared of a particular substance in a given time (mL/min)

157
Q

What does it mean if renal clearance is less than normal as pertains to a drug in the system?

A

some is being filtered and some is being reabsorbed

158
Q

what does it mean if renal clearance is normal?

A

all is being cleared/filtered

159
Q

what does it mean if renal clearance is zero?

A

nothing is being filtered, or its being filtered but completely reabsorbed

160
Q

What is the percentage of body fluids in the different compartments?

A

8% of body fluid is in the plasma
30% of body fluids are interstitial fluids
62% of body fluids are intracellular fluids

161
Q

What are the most abundant interstitial solutes? (give charges as well)

A

Positively charged sodium

Negatively charged chloride

162
Q

What are the most abundant intracellular solutes? (with charges)

A

Positively charged potassium

Negatively charged protein and phosphate

163
Q

What are some non-organic solutes in the body?

A

Glucose
Lipids
Urea

164
Q

what happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

A

it swells

165
Q

what happens to a cell in a hypertonic solution?

A

it shrinks

166
Q

What do electrolytes do in the presence of water?

A

Disassociate into ions

167
Q

What do non-electrolytes do in the presence of water?

A

Stay the same, no disassociation

A&P (10 decks)

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